Labor Complications — MCQs

A 49-year-old woman comes to the office complaining of 2 weeks of urinary incontinence. She says she first noticed some light, urinary dribbling that would increase with sneezing or coughing. This dribble soon worsened, soaking through a pad every 3 hours. She denies any fevers, chills, abdominal pain, hematuria, dysuria, abnormal vaginal discharge, or increased urinary frequency. The patient had a bilateral tubal ligation 3 weeks ago. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. Her menses are regular and last 5 days. She has had 3 pregnancies that each resulted in uncomplicated, term vaginal deliveries. Her last pregnancy was 2 years ago. The patient has hypothyroidism and takes daily levothyroxine. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drug use. She has no history of sexually transmitted diseases. She is sexually active with her husband of 25 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m^2. On physical examination, the abdomen is soft, nondistended, and nontender without palpable masses or hepatosplenomegaly. Rectal tone is normal. The uterus is anteverted, mobile, and nontender. There are no adnexal masses. Urine is seen pooling in the vaginal vault. Urinalysis is unremarkable. Which of the following is next best step in diagnosis?

A 30-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 39 weeks' gestation comes to the hospital 20 minutes after the onset of vaginal bleeding. She has not received prenatal care. Her third child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of a footling breech presentation. Her other two children were delivered vaginally. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 86/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 132/74 mm Hg. The abdomen is nontender, and no contractions are felt. The fetus is in a vertex presentation. The fetal heart rate is 96/min. Per speculum examination reveals ruptured membranes and severe bleeding from the external os. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old woman gravida 2, para 1, at 35 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital 1 hour after spontaneous rupture of membranes. She has had mild abdominal discomfort and nausea for a day. Her pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes, which is controlled with a strict diet. Her first child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of placental abruption. Current medications include iron and vitamin supplements. Her immunizations are up-to-date. Her temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), pulse is 122/min, and blood pressure is 110/78 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows severe, diffuse tenderness throughout the lower quadrants. Speculum examination confirms rupture of membranes with drainage of malodorous, blood-tinged fluid. Ultrasonography shows the fetus in a cephalic presentation. The fetal heart rate is 175/min and reactive with no decelerations. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 11.1 g/dL Leukocyte count 13,100/mm3 Serum Na+ 136 mEq/L Cl- 101 mEq/L K+ 3.9 mEq/L Glucose 108 mg/dL Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL Urine Protein Negative Glucose 1+ Blood Negative WBC 3–4/hpf RBC Negative Nitrites Negative Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old female presents to her primary care provider with pelvic pain. She reports that for the last several years, she has had chronic pain that is worst just before her menstrual period. Over the past two months, she has also had worsening pain during intercourse. She denies dysuria, vaginal discharge, or vaginal pruritus. The patient has never been pregnant and previously used a copper intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception, but she had the IUD removed a year ago because it worsened her menorrhagia. She has now been using combined oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) for nearly a year. The patient reports improvement in her menorrhagia on the OCPs but denies any improvement in her pain. Her past medical history is otherwise unremarkable. Her temperature is 98.0°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 124/73 mmHg, pulse is 68/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient has tenderness to palpation during vaginal exam with lateral displacement of the cervix. A pelvic ultrasound shows no abnormalities, and a urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best next step in management to confirm the diagnosis?

A previously healthy 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-hour history of sudden severe lower abdominal pain. The pain started shortly after having sexual intercourse. The pain is worse with movement and urination. The patient had several urinary tract infections as a child. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and uses condoms inconsistently. She cannot remember when her last menstrual period was. She appears uncomfortable and pale. Her temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows a palpable, tender right adnexal mass. Her hemoglobin concentration is 10 g/dL and her hematocrit is 30%. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 5 x 3-cm right ovarian sac-like structure with surrounding echogenic fluid around the structure and the uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient's condition?

A 31-year-old G1P0 woman with a history of hypertension presents to the emergency department because she believes that she is in labor. She is in her 38th week of pregnancy and her course has thus far been uncomplicated. This morning, she began feeling painful contractions and noted vaginal bleeding after she fell off her bike while riding to work. She is experiencing lower abdominal and pelvic pain between contractions as well. Her temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 177/99 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a gravid and hypertonic uterus and moderate blood in the vaginal vault. Ultrasound reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old female presents to the gynecologist with a primary concern of infertility. She has been unable to become pregnant over the last 16 months despite consistently trying with her husband. She has not used any form of contraception during this time and her husband has had a normal semen analysis. She has never been diagnosed with any chronic conditions that could explain her infertility; however, she remembers testing positive for a sexually transmitted infection about four years ago. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her infertility?

A 24-year-old woman, G1P0, presents to her OB/GYN for her annual examination with complaints of painful cramps, abdominal pressure, and bloating with her cycle. She reports that she has not menstruated since her missed abortion requiring dilatation and curettage (D&C) seven months ago. She is sexually active with her husband and is not using any form of contraception. Her BMI is 29. At the clinic, her vitals are as follows: temperature, 98.9°F; pulse, 80/min; and blood pressure, 120/70 mm Hg. The physical examination is unremarkable. Thyroid-stimulating hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone, and prolactin concentrations are all within normal limits. The patient tests negative for qualitative serum beta‐hCG. A progestin challenge test reveals no withdrawal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 30-year-old G3P0 woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presents for a prenatal care visit. She reports occasionally feeling her baby move but has not kept count over the past couple weeks. She denies any bleeding, loss of fluid, or contractions. Her previous pregnancies resulted in spontaneous abortions at 12 and 14 weeks. She works as a business executive, has been in excellent health, and has had no surgeries. She states that she hired a nutritionist and pregnancy coach to ensure good prospects for this pregnancy. On physical exam, fetal heart tones are not detected. Abdominal ultrasound shows a 24-week fetal demise. The patient requests an autopsy on the fetus and wishes for the fetus to pass "as naturally as possible." What is the best next step in management?

A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 36 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department because of worsening pelvic pain for 2 hours. Three days ago, she had a burning sensation with urination that resolved spontaneously. She has nausea and has vomited fluid twice on her way to the hospital. She appears ill. Her temperature is 39.7°C (103.5°F), pulse is 125/min, respirations are 33/min, and blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows diffuse tenderness. No contractions are felt. Speculum examination shows pooling of nonbloody, malodorous fluid in the vaginal vault. The cervix is not effaced or dilated. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 14 g/dL, a leukocyte count of 16,000/mm3, and a platelet count of 250,000/mm3. Fetal heart rate is 148/min and reactive with no decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?