Labor Complications — MCQs

A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of increasing abdominal pain with associated nausea and vomiting. The symptoms began suddenly after having intercourse with her partner six hours ago. There is no associated fever, diarrhea, vaginal bleeding, or discharge. Menarche was at the age of 13 years and her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago. She uses combination contraceptive pills. She had an appendectomy at the age of 12. Her temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), pulse is 100/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows severe right lower quadrant tenderness with associated rebound and guarding. Pelvic examination shows scant, clear vaginal discharge and right adnexal tenderness. There is no cervical wall motion tenderness. Her hemoglobin concentration is 10.5 g/dL, leukocyte count is 9,000/mm3, and platelet count is 250,000/mm3. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following imaging findings is most likely?

A 66-year-old G3P3 presents with an 8-year-history of back pain, perineal discomfort, difficulty urinating, recurrent malaise, and low-grade fevers. These symptoms have recurred regularly for the past 5–6 years. She also says that there are times when she experiences a feeling of having a foreign body in her vagina. With the onset of symptoms, she was evaluated by a physician who prescribed her medications after a thorough examination and recommended a vaginal pessary, but she was non-compliant. She had 3 vaginal deliveries She has been menopausal since 51 years of age. She does not have a history of malignancies or cardiovascular disease. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus that is controlled with diet and metformin. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 110/60 mm Hg, heart rate 91/min, respiratory rate 13/min, and temperature 37.4℃ (99.3℉). On physical examination, there is bilateral costovertebral angle tenderness. The urinary bladder is non-palpable. The gynecologic examination reveals descent of the cervix to the level of the introitus. A Valsalva maneuver elicits uterine procidentia. Which pathology is most likely to be revealed by imaging in this patient?

A previously healthy 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because of lower abdominal pain and purulent vaginal discharge for the past 5 days. Menses occur at irregular 20 to 40-day intervals and last 4 to 8 days. She is sexually active with a new partner that she met 2 months ago and they use condoms inconsistently. She had a normal pap smear 5 months ago. She drinks 2 beers every other day. Her temperature is 39°C (102.2°F), pulse is 85/min, and blood pressure is 108/75 mm Hg. Examination shows lower abdominal tenderness and bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. Pelvic examination is notable for uterine and adnexal tenderness as well as small amounts of bloody cervical discharge. A spot urine pregnancy test is negative. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 14,500/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 90 mm/h. Nucleic acid amplification confirms the suspected diagnosis. The patient is started on ceftriaxone and doxycycline. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old multiparous woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of episodes of involuntary urine leakage for the past 6 months. She loses small amounts of urine without warning after laughing or sneezing. She also sometimes forgets the names of her grandchildren and friends. She is retired and lives at an assisted-living facility. She has insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus type 2. Her mother received a ventriculoperitoneal shunt around her age. She walks without any problems. Sensation to pinprick and light touch is normal. Which of the following is the primary underlying etiology for this patient's urinary incontinence?

A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 38 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department for sudden leakage of clear fluid from her vagina. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has largely been compliant with her prenatal care but missed some appointments. She has a history of chronic hypertension. She drinks a glass of wine once per week. Current medications include labetalol, iron, and vitamin supplements. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen on palpation. Speculum examination demonstrates clear fluid in the cervical canal. The fetal heart rate is reactive at 170/min with no decelerations. Tocometry shows no contractions. The vaginal fluid demonstrates a ferning pattern when placed onto a glass slide. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?

A 36-year-old primigravid woman at 26 weeks' gestation comes to the physician complaining of absent fetal movements for the last 2 days. Pregnancy was confirmed by ultrasonography 14 weeks earlier. She has no vaginal bleeding or discharge. She has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus controlled with insulin. Vital signs are all within the normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a soft, 2-cm long cervix in the midline with a cervical os measuring 3 cm and a uterus consistent in size with 24 weeks' gestation. Transvaginal ultrasonography shows a fetus with no cardiac activity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 35-year-old G1 is brought to the emergency department because of sharp pains in her abdomen. She is at 30 weeks gestation based on ultrasound. She complains of feeling a little uneasy during the last 3 weeks of her pregnancy. She mentions that her abdomen has not been enlarging as expected and her baby is not moving as much as during the earlier part of the pregnancy. If anything, she noticed her abdomen has decreased in size. While she is giving her history, the emergency medicine physician notices that she is restless and is sweating profusely. An ultrasound is performed and her blood is sent for type and match. The blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, the pulse is 120/min, and the respiratory rate is 18/min. The fetal ultrasound is significant for no fetal heart motion or fetal movement. Her blood work shows the following: hemoglobin, 10.3 g/dL; platelet count, 1.1*10(5)/ml; bleeding time, 10 minutes; PT, 25 seconds; and PTT, 45 seconds. Which of the following would be the best immediate course of management for this patient?

A 17-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a 5-day history of severe abdominal pain, cramping, nausea, and vomiting. She also has pain with urination. She is sexually active with one male partner, and they use condoms inconsistently. She experienced a burning pain when she last had sexual intercourse 3 days ago. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 days. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 83/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows abdominal tenderness in the lower quadrants. Pelvic examination shows cervical motion tenderness and purulent cervical discharge. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 15,000/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 100 mm/h. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because she has been unable to conceive for 2 years. The patient also reports monthly episodes of pelvic and back pain accompanied by painful diarrhea for 6 years. She takes naproxen for the pain, which has provided some relief. Menses have occurred at regular 28-day intervals since menarche at the age of 11 years and last for 7 days. She is sexually active with her husband and does not use contraception. Pelvic and rectal examination shows no abnormalities. A hysterosalpingogram is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

A 22-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of double vision and rapidly worsening pain and swelling of her right eye. She had an upper respiratory tract infection a week ago after which she has had nasal congestion, recurrent headaches, and a purulent nasal discharge. She took antibiotics for her respiratory tract infection but did not complete the course. She has asthma treated with theophylline and inhaled β-adrenergic agonists and corticosteroids. She appears to be in severe distress. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 100/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Ophthalmic examination of the right eye shows proptosis and diffuse edema, erythema, and tenderness of the eyelids. Right eye movements are restricted and painful in all directions. The pupils are equal and reactive to light. There is tenderness to palpation over the right cheek and purulent nasal discharge in the right nasal cavity. The left eye shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 12,000/mm3. Which of the following provides the strongest indication for administering intravenous antibiotics to this patient?