A 14-year-old girl is referred to a gynecologist for amenorrhea. Her mother is also concerned that she hasn't grown any hair "in her private parts." The patient states that she is getting used to high school and wants to join the volleyball team but complains that her weakness and headaches limit her physical activity. She does not share her mother's concerns about her menses. She reveals that her parents are maternal cousins. Her temperature is 98°F (37°C), blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 24/min. Her cardiac exam is unremarkable, and her abdominal exam reveals no bruits. After obtaining permission for a pelvic exam, the exam reveals a normal appearing vagina without any hair. No cervical os can be palpated. Initial labs reveal the following:
Serum:
Na+: 143 mEq/L
Cl-: 110 mEq/L
K+: 2.9 mEq/L
HCO3-: 26 mEq/L
BUN: 40 mg/dL
Glucose: 104 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.3 mg/dL
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q72
A 25-year-old woman whose menses are 2 weeks late, presents to her physician for evaluation. She also complains of fatigue, morning nausea, and mood changes. She is a nulliparous with previously normal menstrual cycles and no known medical conditions. She had an intrauterine device (IUD) placed 6 months ago. The patient’s vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate 72/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and temperature 36.5℃ (97.7℉). The physical examination is unremarkable. The gynecologic exam revealed cervical cyanosis and softening, uterine enlargement, and non-palpable adnexa. A transvaginal ultrasound examination is performed to check the IUD position. Ultrasonography revealed 2 uterine cavities; one cavity had a gestational sac and the intrauterine device was in the other uterine cavity. The cavities are fully separated but there is one cervix. What is the most likely etiology of this patient’s condition?
Q73
A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of facial hair growth, acne, and irregular menses. Her friends have told her that her voice sounds lower than usual. Physical examination shows pustular acne and dark hair growth along the jawline. Serum studies show elevated testosterone levels and normal inhibin levels. An ultrasound of the pelvis shows a left-sided ovarian mass. Microscopic examination of the resected ovarian mass shows pale, testosterone-positive staining cells with cytoplasmic Reinke crystal inclusions. These abnormal cells are homologous to which of the following physiological cell type in females?
Q74
A 16-year-old girl is brought to the physician because she has not yet reached menarche. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. She is at the 20th percentile for weight and 50th percentile for height. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows mild facial hair. There is no glandular breast tissue. Pubic hair is coarse and curly and extends to the inner surface of both thighs. Pelvic examination shows clitoromegaly. Ultrasound shows an absence of the uterus and ovaries. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause for this patient's symptoms?
Q75
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 28 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F) and blood pressure is 163/105 mm Hg. Her blood pressure 10 weeks ago was 128/84 mm Hg. At her last visit two weeks ago, her blood pressure was 142/92 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 28-week gestation. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, creatinine, and hepatic transaminases are within the reference range. A urinalysis is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q76
A previously healthy 37-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 29 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of colicky postprandial abdominal pain. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 29-week gestation. Ultrasonography of the abdomen shows multiple 5-mm hyperechoic masses within the gallbladder lumen. Which of the following processes is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
Q77
A 66-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a wellness exam. She noticed mild spotting a few days prior to presentation. Her last menstrual period was when she was 53 years of age, and she denies any trauma to the area. She is sexually active with one male partner and does not use condoms. Medical history is significant for type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. She is currently taking metformin and lisinopril. Her last pap smear was normal. She is 5 ft 5 in (165.1 cm), weighs 185 lbs (84 kg), and BMI is 30.8 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 15/min. Pelvic examination demonstrates a normal sized uterus with no adnexal masses. There are no vulvar, vaginal, or cervical lesions. Stool testing for blood is negative and an endometrial biopsy is performed, which demonstrates simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q78
A 42-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a checkup. She has been trying to get pregnant with her husband for the past 12 months but has been unsuccessful. The patient states that they have been having unprotected intercourse daily during this time frame. She states that she experiences her menses every 28 days. Her husband has 2 children from another marriage. Otherwise, the patient only complains of mild vaginal dryness during intercourse. The patient's past medical history is notable for seasonal allergies for which she takes loratadine and a chlamydial infection which was treated in college. On physical exam, you note a healthy woman. Cardiopulmonary, abdominal, and pelvic exam are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q79
A 32-year-old primigravid woman with a history of seizures comes to the physician because she had a positive pregnancy test at home. Medications include valproic acid and a multivitamin. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is positive. Her baby is at increased risk for requiring which of the following interventions?
Q80
A 36-year-old primigravid woman at 22 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a routine prenatal visit. Her previous prenatal visits showed no abnormalities. She has hyperthyroidism treated with methimazole. She previously smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 15 years but quit 6 years ago. She reports gaining weight after quitting smoking, after which she developed her own weight loss program. She is 168 cm (5 ft 6 in) tall and weighs 51.2 kg (112.9 lb); BMI is 18.1 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37°C (98.5°F), pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 115/72 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. The fundus is palpated between the symphysis and the umbilicus. Ultrasound shows a fetal head at the 20th percentile and the abdomen at the 9th percentile. Fetal birth weight is estimated at the 9th percentile and a decreased amniotic fluid index is noted. The maternal quadruple screening test was normal. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is 0.4 mIU/mL, triiodothyronine (T3) is 180 ng/dL, and thyroxine (T4) is 10 μg/dL. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for the ultrasound findings in this patient?
High-risk pregnancies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: A 14-year-old girl is referred to a gynecologist for amenorrhea. Her mother is also concerned that she hasn't grown any hair "in her private parts." The patient states that she is getting used to high school and wants to join the volleyball team but complains that her weakness and headaches limit her physical activity. She does not share her mother's concerns about her menses. She reveals that her parents are maternal cousins. Her temperature is 98°F (37°C), blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 24/min. Her cardiac exam is unremarkable, and her abdominal exam reveals no bruits. After obtaining permission for a pelvic exam, the exam reveals a normal appearing vagina without any hair. No cervical os can be palpated. Initial labs reveal the following:
Serum:
Na+: 143 mEq/L
Cl-: 110 mEq/L
K+: 2.9 mEq/L
HCO3-: 26 mEq/L
BUN: 40 mg/dL
Glucose: 104 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.3 mg/dL
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. 5-alpha reductase deficiency
B. 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency
C. 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency
D. 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency (Correct Answer)
E. 21-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency
Explanation: ***17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency***
- This deficiency leads to impaired synthesis of sex steroids and cortisol, causing **primary amenorrhea**, **lack of pubic/axillary hair**, and **hypertension** due to increased mineralocorticoid production (deoxycorticosterone).
- The patient's presentation with undeveloped secondary sexual characteristics, hypertension, and hypokalemia (due to mineralocorticoid excess) is highly consistent with this diagnosis.
*5-alpha reductase deficiency*
- Characterized by **XY individuals** who appear female at birth but virilize at puberty, which is inconsistent with the patient's presentation.
- Individuals typically have **normal adrenal function** and do not present with hypertension or electrolyte abnormalities related to adrenal steroid synthesis.
*11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency*
- Causes **hypertension** and **virilization** in affected individuals due to accumulation of 11-deoxycorticosterone (a mineralocorticoid) and adrenal androgens.
- However, it does not typically result in **primary amenorrhea** or the lack of secondary sexual characteristics observed in this patient.
*3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency*
- Leads to deficiency in cortisol, aldosterone, and sex steroids, causing **salt wasting** (due to aldosterone deficiency) and **female-like external genitalia** in males.
- The patient's **hypertension** and **hypokalemia** are inconsistent with the salt-wasting presentation of this disorder.
*21-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency*
- The most common form of **congenital adrenal hyperplasia**, leading to **cortisol and aldosterone deficiency** and **androgen excess**.
- Typically presents with **salt wasting** and **virilization** (ambiguous genitalia in females), which are not seen in this patient.
Question 72: A 25-year-old woman whose menses are 2 weeks late, presents to her physician for evaluation. She also complains of fatigue, morning nausea, and mood changes. She is a nulliparous with previously normal menstrual cycles and no known medical conditions. She had an intrauterine device (IUD) placed 6 months ago. The patient’s vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate 72/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and temperature 36.5℃ (97.7℉). The physical examination is unremarkable. The gynecologic exam revealed cervical cyanosis and softening, uterine enlargement, and non-palpable adnexa. A transvaginal ultrasound examination is performed to check the IUD position. Ultrasonography revealed 2 uterine cavities; one cavity had a gestational sac and the intrauterine device was in the other uterine cavity. The cavities are fully separated but there is one cervix. What is the most likely etiology of this patient’s condition?
A. Incomplete Mullerian ducts fusion (Correct Answer)
B. Failure of fusion of the sex cords
C. Failure of the Wolffian duct regression
D. Cloacal membrane duplication
E. Mullerian ducts duplication
Explanation: ***Incomplete Mullerian ducts fusion***
- The presence of **two uterine cavities** that are fully separated but share a **single cervix** is characteristic of a **bicornuate uterus**.
- A bicornuate uterus results from a **partial failure of fusion** of the paramesonephric (Müllerian) ducts during embryonic development.
*Failure of fusion of the sex cords*
- Failure of fusion of the **sex cords** is not a recognized developmental anomaly leading to uterine malformations.
- Sex cords are primarily involved in the differentiation of the **gonads** (testes or ovaries), not the uterus.
*Failure of the Wolffian duct regression*
- Failure of **Wolffian duct regression** in females can lead to remnants such as **Gartner's duct cysts** or other anomalies of the urinary or reproductive tracts, but not a bicornuate uterus.
- The Wolffian (mesonephric) ducts primarily contribute to the male reproductive system and typically regress in females.
*Cloacal membrane duplication*
- **Cloacal membrane duplication** is a very rare and complex anomaly involving the lower gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts, often resulting in duplicated structures like the bladder or rectum.
- It does not directly explain the formation of a **bicornuate uterus** with two separate uterine cavities and a single cervix.
*Mullerian ducts duplication*
- **Müllerian duct duplication** would imply the formation of completely separate and distinct uterus and cervix structures (e.g., **uterus didelphys**), which would present with two cervices.
- The patient's presentation of **two uterine cavities** but **one cervix** specifically points to incomplete fusion rather than complete duplication.
Question 73: A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of facial hair growth, acne, and irregular menses. Her friends have told her that her voice sounds lower than usual. Physical examination shows pustular acne and dark hair growth along the jawline. Serum studies show elevated testosterone levels and normal inhibin levels. An ultrasound of the pelvis shows a left-sided ovarian mass. Microscopic examination of the resected ovarian mass shows pale, testosterone-positive staining cells with cytoplasmic Reinke crystal inclusions. These abnormal cells are homologous to which of the following physiological cell type in females?
A. Clue cells
B. Theca interna cells (Correct Answer)
C. Granulosa cells
D. Germinal epithelial cells
E. Sertoli cells
Explanation: ***Theca interna cells***
- This patient's presentation with **hirsutism**, **acne**, **virilization** (deepened voice), **irregular menses**, **elevated testosterone**, and an **ovarian mass** containing **Reinke crystal inclusions** is characteristic of a **Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor**.
- **Leydig cells** (the primary component of the tumor causing virilization) are the male homolog of female **theca interna cells**, both of which produce androgens.
*Clue cells*
- **Clue cells** are **vaginal epithelial cells** covered in bacteria, typically associated with **bacterial vaginosis**.
- They are not related to ovarian hormone production or tumor cells.
*Granulosa cells*
- **Granulosa cells** produce **estrogen** and are associated with estrogen-producing ovarian tumors, such as **granulosa cell tumors**, which would lead to signs of estrogen excess, not virilization.
- While granulosa cells are ovarian cells, they are primarily involved in estrogen synthesis, not androgen production.
*Germinal epithelial cells*
- **Germinal epithelial cells** are the surface epithelial cells of the ovary and are the origin of common **epithelial ovarian cancers**.
- These cells do not typically produce significant amounts of hormones or contain Reinke crystal inclusions.
*Sertoli cells*
- While **Sertoli cells** are part of the Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor and are the male homolog of female **granulosa cells**, they are primarily involved in supporting spermatogenesis in males and do not produce androgens themselves.
- The **virilizing effects** in this tumor are due to the **Leydig cell component**, which is homologous to the theca interna cells.
Question 74: A 16-year-old girl is brought to the physician because she has not yet reached menarche. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. She is at the 20th percentile for weight and 50th percentile for height. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows mild facial hair. There is no glandular breast tissue. Pubic hair is coarse and curly and extends to the inner surface of both thighs. Pelvic examination shows clitoromegaly. Ultrasound shows an absence of the uterus and ovaries. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause for this patient's symptoms?
A. 5-α reductase deficiency (Correct Answer)
B. Complete androgen insensitivity
C. 21-hydroxylase deficiency
D. Sex chromosome monosomy
E. Aromatase deficiency
Explanation: ***5-α reductase deficiency***
- This condition presents with an **absence of uterus and ovaries** (indicating a male genotype, XY) and **clitoromegaly** due to testosterone conversion to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) being impaired, leading to a spectrum of undervirilization in XY individuals.
- The presence of **facial and coarse pubic hair** suggests some androgen effect, while the absence of breast tissue and primary amenorrhea are consistent with an XY genotype and a lack of estrogenization from ovaries.
*Complete androgen insensitivity*
- In this condition, individuals are genotypically male (XY) but phenotypically female due to non-functional androgen receptors, leading to **breast development** and a **blind-ending vagina**, but no clitoromegaly or significant pubic/facial hair.
- The absence of a uterus and ovaries is consistent, but the presence of clitoromegaly and coarse hair along with lack of breast development contradicts this diagnosis.
*21-hydroxylase deficiency*
- This is a common cause of **congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)**, leading to excess androgen production in genetically female (XX) individuals, causing **virilization**, clitoromegaly, and ambiguous genitalia.
- However, patients with 21-hydroxylase deficiency would have a **uterus and ovaries**, which are absent in this patient.
*Sex chromosome monosomy*
- This refers to **Turner syndrome (45, XO)**, where individuals are phenotypically female but typically present with **gonadal dysgenesis** (streak gonads), leading to primary amenorrhea and lack of secondary sexual characteristics like breast development.
- However, Turner syndrome patients do not usually exhibit **clitoromegaly** or significant facial/coarse pubic hair, and would have residual uterine tissue.
*Aromatase deficiency*
- This condition affects genetically female (XX) individuals, impairing the conversion of androgens to estrogens, leading to **virilization** (e.g., clitoromegaly, facial hair) and primary amenorrhea due to lack of estrogen for breast development and uterine maturation.
- While it explains virilization and amenorrhea, the **absence of uterus and ovaries** in this patient rules out aromatase deficiency, as XX individuals would possess these organs.
Question 75: A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 28 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F) and blood pressure is 163/105 mm Hg. Her blood pressure 10 weeks ago was 128/84 mm Hg. At her last visit two weeks ago, her blood pressure was 142/92 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 28-week gestation. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, creatinine, and hepatic transaminases are within the reference range. A urinalysis is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Oral labetalol therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Lisinopril therapy
C. Magnesium sulfate therapy
D. Complete bed rest
E. Dietary salt restriction
Explanation: **Oral labetalol therapy**
- The patient has developed **gestational hypertension** (blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg on two occasions at least 4 hours apart after 20 weeks gestation, without proteinuria or other signs of preeclampsia), with her current BP of 163/105 mmHg confirming **severe range hypertension** (systolic ≥160 mmHg or diastolic ≥110 mmHg).
- **Labetalol** is a first-line agent for managing hypertension in pregnancy due to its established safety profile and efficacy in lowering blood pressure.
*Lisinopril therapy*
- **Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors** like lisinopril are **contraindicated in pregnancy** as they can cause fetal renal dysfunction, oligohydramnios, and neonatal hypotension.
- This medication choice would be harmful to the fetus.
*Magnesium sulfate therapy*
- **Magnesium sulfate** is indicated for the **prevention and treatment of seizures in preeclampsia/eclampsia**, not for blood pressure control itself.
- While the patient has hypertension, there are no signs of preeclampsia (e.g., proteinuria, signs of end-organ damage), making magnesium sulfate inappropriate at this stage.
*Complete bed rest*
- **Complete bed rest** is no longer recommended for the management of gestational hypertension or preeclampsia, as studies have shown it does not improve maternal or fetal outcomes and can increase the risk of **thromboembolism**.
- It can also negatively impact a patient's quality of life without providing therapeutic benefit.
*Dietary salt restriction*
- While generally recommended for hypertension outside of pregnancy, **severe salt restriction** in pregnancy is **not typically recommended** for gestational hypertension or preeclampsia, as it has not been shown to improve outcomes and could potentially worsen maternal fluid balance.
- The primary management for severe range gestational hypertension involves antihypertensive medications.
Question 76: A previously healthy 37-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 29 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of colicky postprandial abdominal pain. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 29-week gestation. Ultrasonography of the abdomen shows multiple 5-mm hyperechoic masses within the gallbladder lumen. Which of the following processes is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
A. Accelerated gallbladder emptying
B. Increased secretion of bile acids
C. Increased secretion of cholesterol (Correct Answer)
D. Decreased caliber of bile duct
E. Overproduction of bilirubin
Explanation: ***Increased secretion of cholesterol***
- Pregnancy leads to increased **estrogen levels**, which elevate hepatic cholesterol secretion into bile.
- This increased cholesterol, combined with reduced gallbladder motility due to **progesterone**, promotes bile supersaturation and cholesterol stone formation.
*Accelerated gallbladder emptying*
- Pregnancy hormones like **progesterone** actually lead to *decreased* gallbladder motility and delayed emptying, contributing to bile stasis.
- Accelerated emptying would reduce the likelihood of stone formation, as bile would not remain in the gallbladder long enough to supersaturate.
*Increased secretion of bile acids*
- While bile acids are crucial for fat digestion, their *increased* secretion would help solubilize cholesterol, thus *reducing* the risk of gallstone formation.
- The problem in cholesterol gallstone pathogenesis is often an imbalance *favoring* cholesterol over bile acids.
*Decreased caliber of bile duct*
- A decreased caliber of the bile duct is more characteristic of conditions like **cholangitis** or **choledocholithiasis** (stones in the common bile duct), which occur *after* stones have formed or due to other pathologies.
- It is not a primary factor in the *formation* of gallstones within the gallbladder.
*Overproduction of bilirubin*
- Overproduction of bilirubin, as seen in conditions like **hemolytic anemia**, primarily leads to the formation of **pigment gallstones** (black or brown stones).
- The hyperechoic masses in this patient, especially given the context of pregnancy, are more consistent with cholesterol gallstones.
Question 77: A 66-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a wellness exam. She noticed mild spotting a few days prior to presentation. Her last menstrual period was when she was 53 years of age, and she denies any trauma to the area. She is sexually active with one male partner and does not use condoms. Medical history is significant for type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. She is currently taking metformin and lisinopril. Her last pap smear was normal. She is 5 ft 5 in (165.1 cm), weighs 185 lbs (84 kg), and BMI is 30.8 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 15/min. Pelvic examination demonstrates a normal sized uterus with no adnexal masses. There are no vulvar, vaginal, or cervical lesions. Stool testing for blood is negative and an endometrial biopsy is performed, which demonstrates simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Anastrozole
B. Megestrol acetate (Correct Answer)
C. Nafarelin
D. Estrogen-progestin contraceptives
E. Hysterectomy
Explanation: ***Megestrol acetate***
- This patient has **simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia**, which is effectively treated with **progestin therapy**.
- **Megestrol acetate** is a progestin often used for this condition, aiming to induce regression of the hyperplastic tissue.
*Anastrozole*
- **Anastrozole** is an **aromatase inhibitor** primarily used in the treatment of hormone-sensitive breast cancer.
- It works by reducing estrogen production but is not the first-line treatment for simple endometrial hyperplasia.
*Nafarelin*
- **Nafarelin** is a **GnRH agonist** mainly used for conditions like endometriosis and uterine fibroids.
- It suppresses ovarian function but is not the standard treatment for simple endometrial hyperplasia.
*Estrogen-progestin contraceptives*
- While containing progestin, **estrogen-progestin contraceptives** are generally contraindicated in postmenopausal women with abnormal uterine bleeding due to the estrogen component, which can worsen hyperplasia.
- The goal in treating endometrial hyperplasia is to provide progestin while avoiding exogenous estrogen.
*Hysterectomy*
- **Hysterectomy** is a surgical option reserved for more severe forms of endometrial hyperplasia, such as **atypical hyperplasia**, or in cases where progestin therapy fails.
- It is an overly aggressive approach for simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia.
Question 78: A 42-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a checkup. She has been trying to get pregnant with her husband for the past 12 months but has been unsuccessful. The patient states that they have been having unprotected intercourse daily during this time frame. She states that she experiences her menses every 28 days. Her husband has 2 children from another marriage. Otherwise, the patient only complains of mild vaginal dryness during intercourse. The patient's past medical history is notable for seasonal allergies for which she takes loratadine and a chlamydial infection which was treated in college. On physical exam, you note a healthy woman. Cardiopulmonary, abdominal, and pelvic exam are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Spermatogenesis defect
B. Menopause
C. Tubal scarring
D. Decreased ovarian reserve (Correct Answer)
E. Premature ovarian failure
Explanation: **Decreased ovarian reserve**
- The patient's age (42 years old) is a significant factor, as **fertility naturally declines** with age due to decreased ovarian reserve.
- Her regular 28-day menstrual cycles do not rule out decreased ovarian reserve, as **ovarian function can decline** even with regular menses.
*Tubal scarring*
- While a past **chlamydial infection** can cause **tubal scarring** and affect fertility, the patient's only current complaint is vaginal dryness, and there are no other symptoms suggestive of pelvic inflammatory disease.
- **Tubal scarring** would typically disrupt normal sperm and egg transport, often leading to difficulty conceiving without symptoms of pain or infection.
*Spermatogenesis defect*
- The husband has **two children from a previous marriage**, making a primary spermatogenesis defect unlikely.
- While the quality of sperm can change over time, the history suggests **male factor infertility is less probable** as the primary cause.
*Premature ovarian failure*
- **Premature ovarian failure** (POF) is characterized by loss of ovarian function before age 40, leading to amenorrhea, elevated FSH, and symptoms of estrogen deficiency like hot flashes.
- Her regular menses and age (42) make **POF less likely** than age-related decreased ovarian reserve.
*Menopause*
- **Menopause** is defined as 12 consecutive months of amenorrhea, and the patient reports regular 28-day menstrual cycles.
- While perimenopause can start in the early 40s, the consistent menstrual cycles indicate she has **not yet reached menopause**.
Question 79: A 32-year-old primigravid woman with a history of seizures comes to the physician because she had a positive pregnancy test at home. Medications include valproic acid and a multivitamin. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is positive. Her baby is at increased risk for requiring which of the following interventions?
A. Lower spinal surgery (Correct Answer)
B. Kidney transplantation
C. Arm surgery
D. Cochlear implantation
E. Respiratory support
Explanation: ***Lower spinal surgery***
- Maternal use of **valproic acid** during pregnancy significantly increases the risk of neural tube defects, particularly **spina bifida**, which often requires surgical correction of the lower spine in affected infants.
- **Spina bifida** results from the incomplete closure of the neural tube, leading to exposed spinal cord or meninges, and frequently necessitates surgical intervention to prevent further neurological damage and infection.
*Kidney transplantation*
- While some fetal anomalies can involve the kidneys, **valproic acid** exposure is not primarily associated with renal agenesis or severe kidney malformations requiring transplantation.
- Birth defects affecting the kidneys are more commonly linked to genetic syndromes or other teratogens, not specifically valproic acid.
*Arm surgery*
- **Valproic acid** has been associated with limb defects, but these are typically minor and do not usually directly necessitate extensive arm surgery.
- **Phocomelia** (shortened or absent limbs) is more typically associated with **thalidomide** exposure, not valproic acid.
*Cochlear implantation*
- Although **valproic acid** exposure has been occasionally linked to some congenital anomalies, it is not a primary risk factor for **severe hearing loss** requiring cochlear implantation.
- Hearing loss requiring such intervention is more often due to genetic factors, congenital infections, or other specific teratogens.
*Respiratory support*
- While a variety of congenital conditions can lead to respiratory compromise, **valproic acid** exposure does not specifically cause severe pulmonary hypoplasia or other defects that commonly necessitate prolonged or intense neonatal respiratory support.
- Respiratory distress in neonates is often related to prematurity, meconium aspiration, or other direct pulmonary issues.
Question 80: A 36-year-old primigravid woman at 22 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a routine prenatal visit. Her previous prenatal visits showed no abnormalities. She has hyperthyroidism treated with methimazole. She previously smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 15 years but quit 6 years ago. She reports gaining weight after quitting smoking, after which she developed her own weight loss program. She is 168 cm (5 ft 6 in) tall and weighs 51.2 kg (112.9 lb); BMI is 18.1 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37°C (98.5°F), pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 115/72 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. The fundus is palpated between the symphysis and the umbilicus. Ultrasound shows a fetal head at the 20th percentile and the abdomen at the 9th percentile. Fetal birth weight is estimated at the 9th percentile and a decreased amniotic fluid index is noted. The maternal quadruple screening test was normal. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is 0.4 mIU/mL, triiodothyronine (T3) is 180 ng/dL, and thyroxine (T4) is 10 μg/dL. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for the ultrasound findings in this patient?
A. Advanced maternal age
B. Fetal aneuploidy
C. Maternal malnutrition (Correct Answer)
D. History of tobacco use
E. Maternal hyperthyroidism
Explanation: ***Maternal malnutrition***
- The patient's **BMI of 18.1 kg/m2** indicates she is underweight, likely due to her self-imposed weight loss program following a history of weight gain after quitting smoking.
- **Maternal malnutrition** can lead to **intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)**, characterized by fetal measurements and estimated birth weight below the 10th percentile, and can also contribute to **oligohydramnios** (decreased amniotic fluid index).
*Advanced maternal age*
- While the patient is 36, which is considered **advanced maternal age**, this factor is primarily associated with an increased risk of **aneuploidies** and other chromosomal abnormalities.
- The patient's **quadruple screen** was normal, making aneuploidy less likely as the primary cause of IUGR.
*Fetal aneuploidy*
- **Fetal aneuploidy** can cause IUGR and oligohydramnios, but the **normal maternal quadruple screening test** makes this diagnosis less likely in this case.
- While aneuploidy cannot be entirely ruled out without further genetic testing, other causes are more strongly suggested by the clinical picture.
*History of tobacco use*
- Although the patient has a **history of smoking**, she quit 6 years ago, significantly reducing her current risk of smoking-related complications during pregnancy.
- **Active tobacco use** can cause IUGR and placental insufficiency, but her cessation of smoking prior to pregnancy makes it a less direct cause of the current findings.
*Maternal hyperthyroidism*
- The patient's **hyperthyroidism** is being treated with methimazole, and her thyroid hormone levels (TSH, T3, T4) are within a relatively controlled range.
- While uncontrolled hyperthyroidism can lead to complications such as **miscarriage** or **preterm birth**, it is not typically a direct cause of asymmetric IUGR and oligohydramnios when well-managed.