A 32-year-old G0P0 female complains of unsuccessful pregnancy since discontinuing an oral contraceptive 12 months ago. She reports menarche at age 15 and has had irregular periods since. She had occasional spotting while taking an oral contraceptive, but she has not had a “normal period” since discontinuing the pill. She currently denies having any hot flashes. Physical examination reveals normal height and BMI. A speculum examination shows atrophic vagina. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and prolactin concentrations are within normal limits. The patient tests negative for a qualitative serum beta‐hCG. The laboratory findings include a follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level of 56 mIU/mL and an estradiol level of <18 pmol/L, confirmed by 2 separate readings within 2 months. Based on her history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, what is the most likely cause of her infertility?
Q32
A 36-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 35 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department for the evaluation of a sudden, painless, bright red vaginal bleeding for the last hour. She has had no prenatal care. Her third child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of a preterm breech presentation; her first two children were delivered vaginally. The patient's pulse is 100/min, respirations are 15/min, and blood pressure is 105/70 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft, nontender abdomen; no contractions are felt. There is blood on the vulva, the introitus, and on the medial aspect both thighs bilaterally. The fetus is in a cephalic presentation. The fetal heart rate is 140/min. One hour later, the bleeding stops. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q33
A 13-year-old girl presents to her primary care physician due to concerns of not having her first menstrual period. She reports a mild headache but otherwise has no concerns. She does not take any medications. She states that she is sexually active and uses condoms inconsistently. Medical history is unremarkable. Menarche in the mother and sister began at age 11. The patient is 62 inches tall and weighs 110 pounds. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2 °C), blood pressure is 105/70, pulse is 71/min, and respirations are 14/min. On physical exam, she is Tanner stage 1 with a present uterus and normal vagina on pelvic exam. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is negative. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) serum level is 0.5 mIU/mL (normal is 4-25 mIU/mL) and luteinizing hormone (LH) serum level is 1 mIU/mL (normal is 5-20 mIU/mL). Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q34
A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 28 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. She has a history of bipolar disorder and hypothyroidism. She uses cocaine once a month and has a history of drinking alcohol excessively, but has not consumed alcohol for the past 5 years. Medications include quetiapine, levothyroxine, folic acid, and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 115/75 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 28-week gestation. Serum studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 11.2 g/dL and thyroid-stimulating hormone level of 3.5 μU/mL. Her fetus is at greatest risk of developing which of the following complications?
Q35
A 25-year-old woman presents to her physician with a missed mense and occasional morning nausea. Her menstrual cycles have previously been normal and on time. She has hypothyroidism resulting from Hashimoto thyroiditis diagnosed 2 years ago. She receives levothyroxine (50 mcg daily) and is euthyroid. She does not take any other medications, including birth control pills. At the time of presentation, her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate 68/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and temperature 36.5℃ (97.7℉). The physical examination shows slight breast engorgement and nipple hyperpigmentation. The gynecologic examination reveals cervical softening and increased mobility. The uterus is enlarged. There are no adnexal masses. The thyroid panel is as follows:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.41 mU/L
Total T4 111 nmol/L
Free T4 20 pmol/L
Which of the following adjustments should be made to the patient’s therapy?
Q36
A 28-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 12 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She reports feeling fatigued, but she is otherwise feeling well. Pregnancy and delivery of her first 2 children were complicated by iron deficiency anemia. The patient does not smoke or drink alcohol. She does not use illicit drugs. She has a history of a seizure disorder controlled by lamotrigine; other medications include folic acid, iron supplements, and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 144/96 mm Hg. She recalls that during blood pressure self-monitoring yesterday morning her blood pressure was 140/95 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies, including serum glucose level and thyroid-stimulating hormone concentration, are within normal limits. This patient's child is most likely to develop which of the following?
Q37
A 25-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with a headache. Her pregnancy has been managed by a nurse practitioner. Her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 164/104 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a comfortable appearing woman with a gravid uterus. Laboratory tests are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 6,700/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 100,500/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 141 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 21 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
AST: 32 U/L
ALT: 30 U/L
Urine:
Color: Amber
Protein: Positive
Blood: Negative
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q38
A 25-year-old G2P1 woman at 28 weeks estimated gestational age presents with questions on getting epidural anesthesia for her upcoming delivery. She has not received any prenatal care until now. Her previous pregnancy was delivered safely at home by an unlicensed midwife, but she would like to receive an epidural for this upcoming delivery. Upon inquiry, she admits that she desires a ''fully natural experience'' and has taken no supplements or shots during or after her 1st pregnancy. Her 1st child also did not receive any post-delivery injections or vaccinations but is currently healthy. The patient has an A (-) negative blood group, while her husband has an O (+) positive blood group. Which of the following should be administered immediately in this patient to prevent a potentially serious complication during delivery?
Q39
A 19-year-old woman presents with an irregular menstrual cycle. She says that her menstrual cycles have been light with irregular breakthrough bleeding for the past three months. She also complains of hair loss and increased the growth of facial and body hair. She had menarche at 11. Vital signs are within normal limits. Her weight is 97.0 kg (213.8 lb) and height is 157 cm (5 ft 2 in). Physical examination shows excessive hair growth on the patient’s face, back, linea alba region, and on the hips. There is also a gray-brown skin discoloration on the posterior neck. An abdominal ultrasound shows multiple peripheral cysts in both ovaries. Which of the following cells played a direct role in the development of this patient’s excessive hair growth?
Q40
A 19-year-old woman presents to her university health clinic for a regularly scheduled visit. She has a past medical history of depression, acne, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, and dysmenorrhea. She is currently on paroxetine, dextroamphetamine, and naproxen during her menses. She is using nicotine replacement products to quit smoking. She is concerned about her acne, recent weight gain, and having a depressed mood this past month. She also states that her menses are irregular and painful. She is not sexually active and tries to exercise once a month. Her temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 133/81 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a morbidly obese woman with acne on her face. Her pelvic exam is unremarkable. The patient is given a prescription for isotretinoin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
High-risk pregnancies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: A 32-year-old G0P0 female complains of unsuccessful pregnancy since discontinuing an oral contraceptive 12 months ago. She reports menarche at age 15 and has had irregular periods since. She had occasional spotting while taking an oral contraceptive, but she has not had a “normal period” since discontinuing the pill. She currently denies having any hot flashes. Physical examination reveals normal height and BMI. A speculum examination shows atrophic vagina. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and prolactin concentrations are within normal limits. The patient tests negative for a qualitative serum beta‐hCG. The laboratory findings include a follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level of 56 mIU/mL and an estradiol level of <18 pmol/L, confirmed by 2 separate readings within 2 months. Based on her history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, what is the most likely cause of her infertility?
A. Primary ovarian insufficiency (Correct Answer)
B. Menopause
C. Secondary ovarian insufficiency
D. Hyperprolactinemia
E. Polycystic ovary syndrome
Explanation: ***Primary ovarian insufficiency***
- The combination of **amenorrhea**, **elevated FSH** (56 mIU/mL), and **low estradiol** (<18 pmol/L) in a woman younger than 40 is diagnostic of **primary ovarian insufficiency (POI)**.
- The atrophic vaginal spotting mentioned before suggests **estrogen deficiency**, which is consistent with POI.
*Menopause*
- While menopause also presents with elevated FSH and low estradiol, it typically occurs in women around age 50, making it less likely in a **32-year-old female**.
- A definitive diagnosis of menopause often requires one year of amenorrhea, which is not fully met, given her irregular spotting history.
*Secondary ovarian insufficiency*
- **Secondary ovarian insufficiency** (also known as hypothalamic or pituitary insufficiency) would result in **low FSH** and **low estradiol** due to a problem with central hormone production.
- This patient has **high FSH**, indicating the problem is at the ovarian level as the pituitary is attempting to stimulate the ovaries.
*Hyperprolactinemia*
- **Hyperprolactinemia** causes amenorrhea by inhibiting GnRH, leading to **low FSH** and **low estradiol**.
- The patient's **prolactin levels are within normal limits**, ruling out this condition.
*Polycystic ovary syndrome*
- **Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)** is characterized by **anovulation**, elevated androgens, and often **elevated LH/FSH ratio**.
- This patient's **FSH is markedly elevated**, and estradiol is low, which is not typical for PCOS.
Question 32: A 36-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 35 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department for the evaluation of a sudden, painless, bright red vaginal bleeding for the last hour. She has had no prenatal care. Her third child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of a preterm breech presentation; her first two children were delivered vaginally. The patient's pulse is 100/min, respirations are 15/min, and blood pressure is 105/70 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft, nontender abdomen; no contractions are felt. There is blood on the vulva, the introitus, and on the medial aspect both thighs bilaterally. The fetus is in a cephalic presentation. The fetal heart rate is 140/min. One hour later, the bleeding stops. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Placenta previa (Correct Answer)
B. Uterine rupture
C. Abruptio placentae
D. Uterine atony
E. Latent phase of labor
Explanation: **Placenta previa**
- The presentation of **painless, bright red vaginal bleeding** in the third trimester is a hallmark sign of placenta previa.
- A prior **cesarean section** is a significant risk factor for placenta previa due to scarring of the uterine wall.
*Uterine rupture*
- Uterine rupture typically presents with **severe abdominal pain**, maternal **tachycardia**, and fetal **distress** (e.g., decelerations), none of which are noted here.
- The abdomen is described as soft and non-tender, which is inconsistent with uterine rupture.
*Abruptio placentae*
- Abruptio placentae is characterized by **painful vaginal bleeding**, a **tense and tender uterus**, and often fetal distress due to placental detachment.
- The patient's abdomen is soft and non-tender, directly contradictory to the findings in abruptio placentae.
*Uterine atony*
- **Uterine atony** is a cause of **postpartum hemorrhage**, occurring *after* delivery, not during the antenatal period.
- The patient is still pregnant at 35 weeks' gestation, making uterine atony an unlikely diagnosis.
*Latent phase of labor*
- While some bleeding can occur during the latent phase of labor (bloody show), it is usually **minimal** and often mixed with mucus, not the sudden, bright red, profuse bleeding described.
- The absence of regular uterine contractions and a soft, non-tender abdomen further argue against active labor.
Question 33: A 13-year-old girl presents to her primary care physician due to concerns of not having her first menstrual period. She reports a mild headache but otherwise has no concerns. She does not take any medications. She states that she is sexually active and uses condoms inconsistently. Medical history is unremarkable. Menarche in the mother and sister began at age 11. The patient is 62 inches tall and weighs 110 pounds. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2 °C), blood pressure is 105/70, pulse is 71/min, and respirations are 14/min. On physical exam, she is Tanner stage 1 with a present uterus and normal vagina on pelvic exam. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is negative. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) serum level is 0.5 mIU/mL (normal is 4-25 mIU/mL) and luteinizing hormone (LH) serum level is 1 mIU/mL (normal is 5-20 mIU/mL). Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Ask the patient to return to clinic in 6 months to see if she undergoes menarche
B. Obtain an MRI of the pituitary (Correct Answer)
C. Order a karyotype
D. Obtain an HIV test
E. Begin estrogen replacement therapy
Explanation: ***Obtain an MRI of the pituitary***
- The patient presents with **primary amenorrhea** (lack of menarche by age 13 with no secondary sexual characteristics, or by age 15 with secondary sexual characteristics), low **FSH** and **LH** levels, and mild headaches, which suggests **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism**.
- A pituitary MRI is crucial to rule out a central cause like a **pituitary adenoma** or other hypothalamic-pituitary lesions that could be suppressing gonadotropin release.
*Ask the patient to return to clinic in 6 months to see if she undergoes menarche*
- This approach is inappropriate given the patient's age, **Tanner stage 1** (prepubertal) findings, and significantly low gonadotropin levels, which indicate a pathological delay in puberty rather than a normal variation.
- Waiting would delay diagnosis and management of a potentially serious underlying condition affecting the **hypothalamic-pituitary axis**.
*Order a karyotype*
- A karyotype is indicated when there is suspicion of **gonadal dysgenesis** (e.g., Turner syndrome), which typically presents with high FSH/LH due to primary ovarian failure.
- This patient has **low FSH and LH**, making a chromosomal abnormality affecting gonadal development less likely as the primary cause of her hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
*Obtain an HIV test*
- While recommended in sexually active individuals, an **HIV test** is not the best next step for investigating **primary amenorrhea** with **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism**.
- HIV infection does not directly explain the specific endocrine findings (low FSH/LH) or the delayed puberty in this context.
*Begin estrogen replacement therapy*
- **Estrogen replacement therapy** may be part of the long-term management once a diagnosis is established, but it should not be initiated before a thorough investigation into the cause of **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism**.
- Starting hormone therapy prematurely could mask diagnostic clues or delay the identification of an underlying correctable condition, such as a **pituitary tumor**.
Question 34: A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 28 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. She has a history of bipolar disorder and hypothyroidism. She uses cocaine once a month and has a history of drinking alcohol excessively, but has not consumed alcohol for the past 5 years. Medications include quetiapine, levothyroxine, folic acid, and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 115/75 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 28-week gestation. Serum studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 11.2 g/dL and thyroid-stimulating hormone level of 3.5 μU/mL. Her fetus is at greatest risk of developing which of the following complications?
A. Neural tube defect
B. Cretinism
C. Aplasia cutis congenita
D. Premature placental separation (Correct Answer)
E. Shoulder dystocia
Explanation: ***Premature placental separation***
- The patient's **cocaine use**, even if infrequent, significantly increases the risk of **vasoconstriction** and **hypertension**, leading to premature placental separation (placental abruption).
- **Cocaine use** is a well-established risk factor for **placental abruption** due to its acute vasoconstrictive effects on uterine blood vessels.
*Neural tube defect*
- Neural tube defects are primarily associated with **folic acid deficiency** during early pregnancy. The patient is taking folic acid supplements, mitigating this risk.
- While some medications for bipolar disorder can increase risk, **quetiapine** is generally considered safer in pregnancy compared to others like valproate.
*Cretinism*
- **Cretinism (congenital hypothyroidism)** is typically caused by severe maternal iodine deficiency or uncontrolled maternal hypothyroidism.
- The patient's **TSH level of 3.5 µU/mL** is within the acceptable range for the second and third trimesters of pregnancy, and she is taking **levothyroxine** for her hypothyroidism.
*Aplasia cutis congenita*
- This condition is specifically associated with **maternal use of methimazole or carbimazole** (antithyroid medications), particularly in the first trimester.
- The patient is taking **levothyroxine** for hypothyroidism, not an antithyroid medication, making this outcome unlikely.
*Shoulder dystocia*
- **Shoulder dystocia** is a risk associated with **fetal macrosomia**, typically seen in mothers with uncontrolled **gestational diabetes** or pre-existing diabetes.
- There is no information in the vignette to suggest the patient has diabetes or that the fetus is macrosomic.
Question 35: A 25-year-old woman presents to her physician with a missed mense and occasional morning nausea. Her menstrual cycles have previously been normal and on time. She has hypothyroidism resulting from Hashimoto thyroiditis diagnosed 2 years ago. She receives levothyroxine (50 mcg daily) and is euthyroid. She does not take any other medications, including birth control pills. At the time of presentation, her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate 68/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and temperature 36.5℃ (97.7℉). The physical examination shows slight breast engorgement and nipple hyperpigmentation. The gynecologic examination reveals cervical softening and increased mobility. The uterus is enlarged. There are no adnexal masses. The thyroid panel is as follows:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.41 mU/L
Total T4 111 nmol/L
Free T4 20 pmol/L
Which of the following adjustments should be made to the patient’s therapy?
A. Increase levothyroxine dosage by 20%–30% (Correct Answer)
B. Decrease levothyroxine dosage by 30%
C. Discontinue levothyroxine
D. The patient is euthyroid, so no adjustments should be made
E. Increase levothyroxine dosage by 5% each week up to 50%
Explanation: ***Increase levothyroxine dosage by 20%–30%***
- The patient's symptoms (missed menses, nausea, breast changes, enlarged uterus, cervical changes) are highly suggestive of **pregnancy**. During pregnancy, **thyroid hormone requirements increase significantly** due to increased levels of **thyroid-binding globulin (TBG)** stimulated by estrogen, and the production of **human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)** which has TSH-like activity.
- The recommended management for pregnant women with hypothyroidism is to **increase the levothyroxine dose by approximately 25-50%** and monitor TSH and free T4 levels every 4-6 weeks to maintain a TSH level within the goal range for pregnancy (typically <2.5 mU/L in the first trimester).
*Decrease levothyroxine dosage by 30%*
- Decreasing levothyroxine would lead to **hypothyroidism**, which is detrimental in pregnancy and associated with adverse outcomes such as **preeclampsia**, **gestational hypertension**, **low birth weight**, and **neurocognitive impairment** in the offspring.
- Thyroid hormone requirements increase, not decrease, during pregnancy.
*Discontinue levothyroxine*
- **Discontinuing levothyroxine** would result in severe hypothyroidism, posing significant risks to both the mother and the developing fetus.
- Hypothyroidism must be treated throughout pregnancy to ensure proper fetal development.
*The patient is euthyroid, so no adjustments should be made*
- While the patient's thyroid panel currently shows euthyroid values (TSH 3.41 mU/L is within normal range but slightly elevated for first-trimester pregnancy goals), the **onset of pregnancy** rapidly increases thyroid hormone demand.
- Failure to adjust the dose can lead to **maternal and fetal hypothyroidism** as pregnancy progresses, even if the patient is currently euthyroid.
*Increase levothyroxine dosage by 5% each week up to 50%*
- A gradual increase of 5% each week may be too slow and insufficient to meet the rapidly increasing thyroid hormone demands of early pregnancy.
- The standard recommendation is to make a more substantial initial adjustment (20-30%) as soon as pregnancy is confirmed, followed by close monitoring and further adjustments.
Question 36: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 12 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She reports feeling fatigued, but she is otherwise feeling well. Pregnancy and delivery of her first 2 children were complicated by iron deficiency anemia. The patient does not smoke or drink alcohol. She does not use illicit drugs. She has a history of a seizure disorder controlled by lamotrigine; other medications include folic acid, iron supplements, and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 144/96 mm Hg. She recalls that during blood pressure self-monitoring yesterday morning her blood pressure was 140/95 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies, including serum glucose level and thyroid-stimulating hormone concentration, are within normal limits. This patient's child is most likely to develop which of the following?
A. Small for gestational age (Correct Answer)
B. Fetal hydantoin syndrome
C. Caudal regression syndrome
D. Intellectual disability
E. Neonatal polycythemia
Explanation: ***Small for gestational age***
- The patient has **chronic hypertension** (blood pressure >140/90 mmHg before 20 weeks' gestation), which is a significant risk factor for **fetal growth restriction (FGR)** leading to a small for gestational age (SGA) infant.
- Chronic hypertension reduces uteroplacental blood flow, impairing nutrient and oxygen delivery to the fetus, thus hindering optimal growth.
*Fetal hydantoin syndrome*
- This syndrome is associated with exposure to **phenytoin** (historically known as diphenylhydantoin) in utero, characterized by craniofacial anomalies, intellectual disability, and limb defects.
- The patient is taking **lamotrigine**, which is not associated with fetal hydantoin syndrome; it is generally considered a safer antiepileptic drug during pregnancy compared to older agents.
*Caudal regression syndrome*
- This is a rare congenital disorder characterized by abnormal development of the lower spine and limbs, most strongly associated with **poorly controlled maternal diabetes mellitus**.
- The patient's serum glucose level is within normal limits, making caudal regression syndrome less likely.
*Intellectual disability*
- While some antiepileptic drugs can increase the risk of neurodevelopmental issues, **lamotrigine** is associated with a lower risk compared to medications like valproate.
- The primary and most direct fetal complication of uncontrolled maternal hypertension is **growth restriction**, not necessarily intellectual disability as the primary or most likely outcome.
*Neonatal polycythemia*
- This condition is characterized by an abnormally high red blood cell count in a newborn, often associated with delayed cord clamping, maternal diabetes, or placental insufficiency.
- While chronic hypertension can cause placental insufficiency, **fetal growth restriction (SGA)** is a more direct and commonly observed consequence than polycythemia in this specific clinical context.
Question 37: A 25-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with a headache. Her pregnancy has been managed by a nurse practitioner. Her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 164/104 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a comfortable appearing woman with a gravid uterus. Laboratory tests are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 6,700/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 100,500/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 141 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 21 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
AST: 32 U/L
ALT: 30 U/L
Urine:
Color: Amber
Protein: Positive
Blood: Negative
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. HELLP syndrome
B. Acute fatty liver disease of pregnancy
C. Preeclampsia
D. Severe preeclampsia (Correct Answer)
E. Eclampsia
Explanation: ***Severe preeclampsia***
- The patient exhibits **hypertension** (BP 164/104 mmHg), **proteinuria** (positive urine protein), and **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 100,500/mm^3). The elevated BUN and creatinine also suggest **renal dysfunction**.
- The blood pressure reading 164/104 mmHg meets the criteria for **severe range blood pressure** (systolic ≥160 mmHg or diastolic ≥110 mmHg), classifying this as severe preeclampsia. Headaches are also a symptom of severe preeclampsia.
*HELLP syndrome*
- While **thrombocytopenia** is present, the **liver enzymes (AST/ALT)** are not elevated (AST 32 U/L, ALT 30 U/L), which would be a primary diagnostic criterion for HELLP (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets).
- There is no evidence of **hemolysis**, such as elevated bilirubin or schistocytes on a peripheral smear, which is also required for HELLP diagnosis.
*Acute fatty liver disease of pregnancy*
- This condition presents with significantly elevated **liver enzymes**, **jaundice**, and often severe **hypoglycemia** and **coagulopathy**, none of which are evident in this patient's lab results.
- While it can cause elevated BUN and creatinine, it typically involves **more prominent liver dysfunction** than seen here.
*Preeclampsia*
- This patient meets the criteria for preeclampsia (hypertension and proteinuria), but her **blood pressure** (164/104 mmHg), **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 100,500/mm^3), and elevated **creatinine** (1.0 mg/dL) all point to features that classify it as *severe* preeclampsia.
- Preeclampsia without severe features generally involves blood pressure values below 160/110 mmHg and no evidence of significant organ dysfunction or severe laboratory abnormalities.
*Eclampsia*
- Eclampsia is defined as the occurrence of new-onset **grand mal seizures** in a woman with preeclampsia.
- The patient presents with a **headache** but is described as "comfortable appearing" and there is no mention of seizures.
Question 38: A 25-year-old G2P1 woman at 28 weeks estimated gestational age presents with questions on getting epidural anesthesia for her upcoming delivery. She has not received any prenatal care until now. Her previous pregnancy was delivered safely at home by an unlicensed midwife, but she would like to receive an epidural for this upcoming delivery. Upon inquiry, she admits that she desires a ''fully natural experience'' and has taken no supplements or shots during or after her 1st pregnancy. Her 1st child also did not receive any post-delivery injections or vaccinations but is currently healthy. The patient has an A (-) negative blood group, while her husband has an O (+) positive blood group. Which of the following should be administered immediately in this patient to prevent a potentially serious complication during delivery?
A. Vitamin K
B. Folic acid
C. Anti-RhO(D) immunoglobulin (Correct Answer)
D. Vitamin D
E. Iron supplements
Explanation: ***Anti-RhO(D) immunoglobulin***
- The patient is **Rh-negative** (A- blood group), and her husband is **Rh-positive** (O+ blood group), indicating a potential for her fetus to be Rh-positive. Without prenatal care, she has likely not received **Rh(D) immunoglobulin**, which is crucial for preventing **Rh isoimmunization** at 28 weeks gestation.
- This intervention is critical to prevent the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against Rh-positive fetal red blood cells, which could lead to **hemolytic disease of the newborn** in this or future pregnancies.
*Vitamin K*
- **Vitamin K** is typically administered to *newborns* shortly after birth to prevent **hemorrhagic disease of the newborn**, not to the mother during pregnancy.
- While important for coagulation, its immediate administration to the mother at 28 weeks gestation is not indicated to prevent a serious delivery complication related to Rh incompatibility.
*Folic acid*
- **Folic acid** is essential during pregnancy to prevent **neural tube defects**; however, it is most critical in the *first trimester* and continued throughout pregnancy.
- While beneficial, its immediate administration at 28 weeks for a patient who has had no prenatal care is not the priority to prevent an *acute, serious delivery complication* in the context of Rh incompatibility.
*Vitamin D*
- **Vitamin D** is important for **bone health** in both mother and fetus, and deficiencies are common.
- However, its immediate administration at 28 weeks is not the primary intervention to prevent an acute, serious complication during delivery in a patient at risk for Rh incompatibility.
*Iron supplements*
- **Iron supplements** are commonly prescribed during pregnancy to prevent and treat **iron-deficiency anemia**, which is particularly important given the increased blood volume.
- While her lack of prenatal care suggests a potential for anemia, addressing **Rh isoimmunization** is a more immediate and critical concern for preventing a serious complication specific to delivery in this scenario.
Question 39: A 19-year-old woman presents with an irregular menstrual cycle. She says that her menstrual cycles have been light with irregular breakthrough bleeding for the past three months. She also complains of hair loss and increased the growth of facial and body hair. She had menarche at 11. Vital signs are within normal limits. Her weight is 97.0 kg (213.8 lb) and height is 157 cm (5 ft 2 in). Physical examination shows excessive hair growth on the patient’s face, back, linea alba region, and on the hips. There is also a gray-brown skin discoloration on the posterior neck. An abdominal ultrasound shows multiple peripheral cysts in both ovaries. Which of the following cells played a direct role in the development of this patient’s excessive hair growth?
A. Pituitary gonadotropic cells
B. Pituitary lactotrophs
C. Ovarian follicular cells
D. Ovarian theca cells (Correct Answer)
E. Adipocytes
Explanation: ***Ovarian theca cells***
- The patient's symptoms, including **irregular menstrual cycles**, **hirsutism** (excessive hair growth), and **polycystic ovaries** on ultrasound, are classic for **Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)**.
- In PCOS, there is an overproduction of **androgens** by the **theca cells** within the ovary, leading to hyperandrogenism and its associated symptoms like hirsutism.
*Pituitary gonadotropic cells*
- These cells produce **Luteinizing Hormone (LH)** and **Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)**, which regulate ovarian function.
- While LH is often elevated in PCOS, leading to increased androgen production, the gonadotropic cells themselves do not directly produce the androgens that cause hair growth.
*Pituitary lactotrophs*
- **Lactotrophs** produce **prolactin**, which is primarily involved in milk production.
- While hyperprolactinemia can cause menstrual irregularities, it is not directly responsible for the excessive hair growth seen in this patient, which is androgen-driven.
*Ovarian follicular cells*
- **Granulosa cells** within the ovarian follicles are responsible for converting androgens into estrogens under the influence of FSH.
- In PCOS, the abnormal follicular development and increased androgen production disrupt this process, but granulosa cells are not the primary source of the excess androgens.
*Adipocytes*
- Adipocytes can convert androgen precursors into weaker androgens and estrogens, contributing to the overall hormonal milieu, especially in obese individuals.
- However, they are not the primary source of the high levels of potent androgens (like testosterone) that cause significant hirsutism in conditions like PCOS.
Question 40: A 19-year-old woman presents to her university health clinic for a regularly scheduled visit. She has a past medical history of depression, acne, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, and dysmenorrhea. She is currently on paroxetine, dextroamphetamine, and naproxen during her menses. She is using nicotine replacement products to quit smoking. She is concerned about her acne, recent weight gain, and having a depressed mood this past month. She also states that her menses are irregular and painful. She is not sexually active and tries to exercise once a month. Her temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 133/81 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a morbidly obese woman with acne on her face. Her pelvic exam is unremarkable. The patient is given a prescription for isotretinoin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Administer bupropion
B. Recheck blood pressure in 1 week
C. Check hCG (Correct Answer)
D. Check TSH
E. Check prolactin
Explanation: ***Check hCG***
- The patient is being prescribed **isotretinoin**, a potent teratogen. This necessitates a **pregnancy test (hCG)** before initiating the medication to prevent severe birth defects.
- The patient's presentation with **irregular menses** and **weight gain**, despite not being sexually active, further emphasizes the need to rule out pregnancy before starting isotretinoin, as irregular menses can sometimes be mistaken for an absence of pregnancy.
*Administer bupropion*
- While bupropion could be considered for smoking cessation, depression, or weight management, isotretinoin is a **teratogenic drug** and pregnancy must be ruled out immediately.
- Introducing another medication before addressing the critical safety concern of isotretinoin is not the most appropriate immediate next step.
*Recheck blood pressure in 1 week*
- The patient's blood pressure of 133/81 mmHg is elevated, but it is not a hypertensive crisis and does not require immediate intervention in this context.
- While follow-up for blood pressure is important, it is secondary to the immediate concern associated with starting isotretinoin.
*Check TSH*
- Symptoms like **weight gain**, **depressed mood**, and **irregular menses** can be associated with **hypothyroidism**, making TSH a relevant diagnostic test.
- However, the most immediate and critical concern is ruling out pregnancy due to the planned initiation of isotretinoin.
*Check prolactin*
- **Hyperprolactinemia** can cause **irregular menses** and, less commonly, weight gain, making prolactin a plausible diagnostic test.
- Similar to TSH, while a prolactin check might be warranted for her symptoms, it is not the most pertinent immediate next step given the risk associated with isotretinoin.