A 58-year-old obese woman presents with painless postmenopausal bleeding for the past 5 days. A recent endometrial biopsy confirmed endometrial cancer, and the patient is scheduled for total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. Past medical history is significant for stress incontinence and diabetes mellitus type 2. Menarche was at age 11 and menopause was at age 55. The patient has 4 healthy children from uncomplicated pregnancies, who were all formula fed. Current medications are topical estrogen and metformin. Family history is significant for breast cancer in her grandmother at age 80. Which of the following aspects of this patient’s history is associated with a decreased risk of breast cancer?
Q262
A 31-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department for sudden leakage of clear vaginal fluid. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her first child was born at term by vaginal delivery. She has no history of serious illness. She does not drink alcohol or smoke cigarettes. Current medications include vitamin supplements. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg. Speculum examination demonstrates clear fluid in the cervical canal. The fetal heart rate is reactive at 160/min with no decelerations. Tocometry shows uterine contractions. Nitrazine testing is positive. She is started on indomethacin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q263
A 23-year-old G1 at 10 weeks gestation based on her last menstrual period is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to sudden vaginal bleeding. She says that she has mild lower abdominal cramps and is feeling dizzy and weak. Her blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, the pulse is 100/min, and the respiration rate is 15/min. She says that she has had light spotting over the last 3 days, but today the bleeding increased markedly and she also noticed the passage of clots. She says that she has changed three pads since the morning. She has also noticed that the nausea she was experiencing over the past few days has subsided. The physician examines her and notes that the cervical os is open and blood is pooling in the vagina. Products of conception can be visualized in the os. The patient is prepared for a suction curettage. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the pregnancy loss?
Q264
A 5-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother for excessive hair growth. Her mother reports that for the past 2 months she has noticed hair at the axillary and pubic areas. She denies any family history of precocious puberty and reports that her daughter has been relatively healthy with an uncomplicated birth history. She denies any recent illnesses, weight change, fever, vaginal bleeding, pain, or medication use. Physical examination demonstrates Tanner stage 4 development. A pelvic ultrasound shows an ovarian mass. Laboratory studies demonstrates an elevated level of estrogen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
High-risk pregnancies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: A 58-year-old obese woman presents with painless postmenopausal bleeding for the past 5 days. A recent endometrial biopsy confirmed endometrial cancer, and the patient is scheduled for total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. Past medical history is significant for stress incontinence and diabetes mellitus type 2. Menarche was at age 11 and menopause was at age 55. The patient has 4 healthy children from uncomplicated pregnancies, who were all formula fed. Current medications are topical estrogen and metformin. Family history is significant for breast cancer in her grandmother at age 80. Which of the following aspects of this patient’s history is associated with a decreased risk of breast cancer?
A. Early menarche
B. Formula feeding
C. Obesity
D. Endometrial cancer
E. Multiple pregnancies (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Multiple pregnancies***
- Having **multiple full-term pregnancies** is associated with a **decreased lifetime risk of breast cancer**
- This protective effect is related to hormonal changes during pregnancy that lead to **terminal differentiation of mammary epithelial cells**
- The protective effect **increases with the number of completed pregnancies** and is greater with younger age at first full-term pregnancy
- This patient had **4 healthy children**, providing significant protective benefit
*Early menarche*
- **Early menarche** (before age 12) is a **risk factor** for breast cancer because it increases lifetime exposure of breast tissue to estrogens
- This patient's menarche at **age 11** falls into the category of early menarche, thus **increasing** her breast cancer risk
*Formula feeding*
- **Breastfeeding** is protective against breast cancer, reducing risk through hormonal changes and breast tissue differentiation
- **Formula feeding** (lack of breastfeeding) does **not confer this protective benefit** and is associated with relatively higher risk compared to breastfeeding
- This patient formula-fed all 4 children, missing the protective effect of breastfeeding
*Obesity*
- **Obesity**, especially in postmenopausal women, is a **known risk factor** for breast cancer
- Adipose tissue converts androgens into estrogens via aromatase, leading to **higher circulating estrogen levels**
- This increased estrogen exposure stimulates growth of hormone-sensitive breast cancer cells
*Endometrial cancer*
- Both **endometrial cancer** and breast cancer are influenced by **prolonged estrogen exposure**
- They share common risk factors including obesity, nulliparity, late menopause, and unopposed estrogen
- Having endometrial cancer indicates high estrogen exposure, which is a **shared risk factor** rather than a protective factor for breast cancer
Question 262: A 31-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department for sudden leakage of clear vaginal fluid. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her first child was born at term by vaginal delivery. She has no history of serious illness. She does not drink alcohol or smoke cigarettes. Current medications include vitamin supplements. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg. Speculum examination demonstrates clear fluid in the cervical canal. The fetal heart rate is reactive at 160/min with no decelerations. Tocometry shows uterine contractions. Nitrazine testing is positive. She is started on indomethacin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Administer betamethasone and ampicillin (Correct Answer)
B. Administer betamethasone, ampicillin, and proceed with cesarean section
C. Administer betamethasone, ampicillin, and proceed with induction of labor
D. Administer ampicillin and perform amnioinfusion
E. Administer ampicillin and test amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity
Explanation: ***Administer betamethasone and ampicillin***
- This patient presents with **preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM)** at 32 weeks' gestation, indicated by clear vaginal fluid and positive nitrazine test. Given the preterm status, **antenatal corticosteroids (betamethasone)** are crucial for fetal lung maturity, and **antibiotics (ampicillin)** are necessary to prevent intrauterine infection.
- She is not in active labor and the fetus is stable, so conservative management with these medications is appropriate, allowing for continued gestation while mitigating risks associated with prematurity and infection.
*Administer betamethasone, ampicillin, and proceed with cesarean section*
- While betamethasone and ampicillin are appropriate, **proceeding directly with a cesarean section** is not indicated as the patient is not in active labor and there are no signs of fetal distress or immediate need for delivery.
- Cesarean section carries maternal risks and is reserved for specific indications such as non-reassuring fetal status, malpresentation, or contraindications to vaginal delivery.
*Administer betamethasone, ampicillin, and proceed with induction of labor*
- Administering betamethasone and ampicillin is correct, but **inducing labor immediately** is not the most appropriate step at 32 weeks with PPROM in a stable patient without chorioamnionitis.
- The goal at this gestational age is typically to prolong the pregnancy to allow for further fetal development, unless there are complications that necessitate delivery, such as chorioamnionitis or non-reassuring fetal testing.
*Administer ampicillin and perform amnioinfusion*
- Ampicillin is appropriate for infection prophylaxis in PPROM, but **amnioinfusion** is generally reserved for cases of **oligohydramnios** with umbilical cord compression, particularly during labor.
- While oligohydramnios can result from PPROM, amnioinfusion is not a standard or primary intervention in the initial management of PPROM before labor onset.
*Administer ampicillin and test amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity*
- Ampicillin is appropriate, but **testing amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity** is less critical in this scenario, as corticosteroids will be administered regardless.
- Given the 32-week gestation, fetal lungs are unlikely to be fully mature, and waiting for test results would delay essential interventions (i.e., corticosteroids) that improve fetal outcomes.
Question 263: A 23-year-old G1 at 10 weeks gestation based on her last menstrual period is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to sudden vaginal bleeding. She says that she has mild lower abdominal cramps and is feeling dizzy and weak. Her blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, the pulse is 100/min, and the respiration rate is 15/min. She says that she has had light spotting over the last 3 days, but today the bleeding increased markedly and she also noticed the passage of clots. She says that she has changed three pads since the morning. She has also noticed that the nausea she was experiencing over the past few days has subsided. The physician examines her and notes that the cervical os is open and blood is pooling in the vagina. Products of conception can be visualized in the os. The patient is prepared for a suction curettage. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the pregnancy loss?
A. Trauma
B. Chromosomal abnormalities (Correct Answer)
C. Sexually transmitted disease (STD)
D. Antiphospholipid syndrome
E. Rh immunization
Explanation: ***Chromosomal abnormalities***
- **Chromosomal anomalies** are the leading cause of first-trimester spontaneous abortions, accounting for 50-70% of cases.
- The sudden increase in bleeding, passage of clots, and the cessation of nausea ("subsiding of nausea") (due to a drop in **hCG** levels), along with an open cervical os and visible products of conception, are consistent with an **inevitable or complete abortion** often triggered by such genetic issues.
*Trauma*
- While severe trauma can cause pregnancy loss, the clinical picture here including **subsiding nausea** and **visible products of conception** is not indicative of trauma as the primary cause.
- There is no mention of any specific traumatic event or injury in the patient's history.
*Sexually transmitted disease (STD)*
- **STDs** like chlamydia or gonorrhea can cause complications like ectopic pregnancies or preterm labor, but are less commonly the primary cause of a **first-trimester spontaneous abortion** with the described presentation.
- The symptoms of sudden bleeding and passage of products of conception with subsiding nausea are more characteristic of a genetic issue than an infection.
*Antiphospholipid syndrome*
- This condition is a cause of recurrent pregnancy loss, but typically manifests later in the first or second trimester as **recurrent miscarriages** and is less likely to be the cause of an isolated, acute first-trimester loss presenting this way.
- Its presence is more often considered after **multiple prior pregnancy losses**, which is not indicated here.
*Rh immunization*
- **Rh immunization** primarily causes hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which typically affects pregnancies later in gestation (second or third trimester) and does not present as an acute first-trimester spontaneous abortion.
- It would not explain the sudden bleeding, passage of products, or the subsiding nausea in early pregnancy.
Question 264: A 5-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother for excessive hair growth. Her mother reports that for the past 2 months she has noticed hair at the axillary and pubic areas. She denies any family history of precocious puberty and reports that her daughter has been relatively healthy with an uncomplicated birth history. She denies any recent illnesses, weight change, fever, vaginal bleeding, pain, or medication use. Physical examination demonstrates Tanner stage 4 development. A pelvic ultrasound shows an ovarian mass. Laboratory studies demonstrates an elevated level of estrogen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Sertoli-Leydig tumor
B. Granulosa cell tumor (Correct Answer)
C. Idiopathic precocious puberty
D. McCune-Albright syndrome
E. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation: ***Granulosa cell tumor***
- The combination of **precocious puberty** (Tanner stage 4 at age 5), an **ovarian mass**, and **elevated estrogen levels** strongly points to an estrogen-producing ovarian tumor.
- Granulosa cell tumors are the most common type of estrogen-producing ovarian tumor in prepubertal girls, leading to **isosexual precocious puberty**.
*Sertoli-Leydig tumor*
- These are **androgen-producing ovarian tumors** that classically present with signs of **virilization** (e.g., hirsutism, clitoromegaly, deepening voice), which are not described.
- While they can cause precocious puberty, the elevated estrogen levels seen in this case make it less likely.
*Idiopathic precocious puberty*
- This diagnosis does not involve an **ovarian mass** as the underlying cause, but rather premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis.
- Given the presence of a mass and elevated estrogen, a specific organic cause is indicated.
*McCune-Albright syndrome*
- This syndrome presents with a triad of **precocious puberty**, **café-au-lait spots**, and **fibrous dysplasia of bone**.
- Although precocious puberty is a feature, the absence of skin lesions and bone pathology, along with the distinct ovarian mass, makes it less likely.
*Congenital adrenal hyperplasia*
- This group of disorders affects adrenal steroid synthesis, often leading to **androgen excess** (e.g., virilization in girls) or cortisol deficiency, not primarily elevated estrogen from an ovarian mass.
- It would typically involve adrenal gland abnormalities rather than an ovarian mass and markedly elevated estrogen.