A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician at 36 weeks' gestation for her first prenatal visit. She confirmed the pregnancy with a home urine pregnancy kit a few months ago but has not yet followed up with a physician. She takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 36-week gestation. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.6 g/dL
Serum
Glucose 88 mg/dL
Hepatitis B surface antigen negative
Hepatitis C antibody negative
HIV antibody positive
HIV load 11,000 copies/mL (N < 1000 copies/mL)
Ultrasonography shows an intrauterine fetus consistent in size with a 36-week gestation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
Q252
A 14-year-old girl comes to the physician because of excessive flow and duration of her menses. Since menarche a year ago, menses have occurred at irregular intervals and lasted 8–9 days. Her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago with passage of clots. She has no family or personal history of serious illness and takes no medications. She is at the 50th percentile for height and 20th percentile for weight. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q253
A 32-year-old G1P0 woman presents to her obstetrician for a prenatal visit. She is 30 weeks pregnant. She reports some fatigue and complains of urinary urgency. Prior to this pregnancy, she had no significant medical history. She takes a prenatal vitamin and folate supplements daily. Her mother has diabetes, and her brother has coronary artery disease. On physical examination, the fundal height is 25 centimeters. A fetal ultrasound shows a proportional reduction in head circumference, trunk size, and limb length. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s presentation?
Q254
A 40-year-old nulliparous woman with no significant medical history presents to your office with shortness of breath and increased abdominal girth over the past month. The initial assessment demonstrates that the patient has a right-sided hydrothorax, ascites, and a large ovarian mass. Surgery is performed to remove the ovarian mass, and the patient's ascites and pleural effusion resolve promptly. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q255
A 31-year-old G3P1 woman who is at 37 weeks of gestation is brought into the emergency department by her husband after repeated twitching. According to the husband, they were watching TV when she suddenly became unresponsive and her hands and legs started shaking. The episode lasted about 5 minutes and she “seemed to be sleeping afterwards.” Her past medical history is significant for pregnancy induced hypertension. The patient is tired but responsive and denies urinary incontinence, paresthesia, fever, upper respiratory signs, or new medication changes. She denies a history of seizures. Her temperature is 99°F (37°C), blood pressure is 186/97 mmHg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 12/min. Physical examination demonstrates a lethargic patient with moderate right upper quadrant tenderness. What is the most appropriate next step for this patient?
Q256
A 31-year-old G1P0 woman at 26 weeks gestation presents to the clinic for evaluation of an abnormal glucose tolerance test. She denies any symptoms, but states that she was given 50 g of oral glucose 1 week earlier and demonstrated a subsequent venous plasma glucose level of 156 mg/dL 1 hour later. The vital signs are: blood pressure, 112/78 mm Hg; pulse, 81/min; and respiratory rate, 16/min. Physical examination is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q257
A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right lower quadrant abdominal pain and vaginal spotting. She denies diarrhea, constipation, or blood in the stool. The medical history is unremarkable. She does not use tobacco or drink alcohol. She is sexually active with her husband and uses an IUD for contraception. The temperature is 37.2 °C (99.0°F), the blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, the pulse is 80/min, and the respiratory rate is 12/min. The physical examination reveals localized tenderness in the right adnexa, but no masses are palpated. The LMP was 8 weeks ago. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient’s diagnosis?
Q258
A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of a 1-month history of dull lower abdominal pain, decreased appetite, and a 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Pelvic ultrasonography shows bilateral ovarian enlargement and free fluid in the rectouterine pouch. Biopsy specimens from the ovaries show multiple, round, mucin-filled cells with flat, peripheral nuclei. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q259
A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, comes to the physician for her initial prenatal visit at 18 weeks’ gestation. She is a recent immigrant from Thailand. Her history is significant for anemia since childhood that has not required any treatment. Her mother and husband have anemia, as well. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Fundal height measures at 22 weeks. Ultrasound shows polyhydramnios and pleural and peritoneal effusion in the fetus with fetal subcutaneous edema. Which of the following is the most likely clinical course for this fetus?
Q260
A 54-year-old G2P2 presents to her gynecologist's office with complaints of frequent hot flashes, malaise, insomnia, and mild mood swings for 2 weeks. She has also noticed some pain with intercourse and vaginal dryness during this time. She is otherwise healthy besides hyperlipidemia, controlled on atorvastatin. Her surgical history includes a hysterectomy performed years ago due to postpartum hemorrhage. She is desiring of a medication to control her symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate short-term medical therapy in this patient for symptomatic relief?
High-risk pregnancies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician at 36 weeks' gestation for her first prenatal visit. She confirmed the pregnancy with a home urine pregnancy kit a few months ago but has not yet followed up with a physician. She takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 36-week gestation. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.6 g/dL
Serum
Glucose 88 mg/dL
Hepatitis B surface antigen negative
Hepatitis C antibody negative
HIV antibody positive
HIV load 11,000 copies/mL (N < 1000 copies/mL)
Ultrasonography shows an intrauterine fetus consistent in size with a 36-week gestation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A. Intrapartum zidovudine and vaginal delivery when labor occurs
B. Intrapartum zidovudine and cesarean delivery at 38 weeks' gestation
C. Start cART and prepare for vaginal delivery at 38 weeks' gestation
D. Conduct cesarean delivery immediately
E. Start cART and schedule cesarean delivery at 38 weeks' gestation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Start cART and schedule cesarean delivery at 38 weeks' gestation***
- This patient presents at 36 weeks with a **newly diagnosed HIV infection** and a **viral load of 11,000 copies/mL**, which is considered high. Starting **combination antiretroviral therapy (cART)** immediately is crucial to reduce the viral load and the risk of **mother-to-child transmission (MTCT)**.
- For patients with **HIV viral loads > 1,000 copies/mL** near term, a **scheduled cesarean delivery at 38 weeks** is recommended to minimize fetal exposure to maternal blood and secretions during labor, further reducing the risk of MTCT.
*Intrapartum zidovudine and vaginal delivery when labor occurs*
- This approach is appropriate for HIV-positive mothers with a **low viral load (< 1,000 copies/mL)** at or near delivery, as a scheduled cesarean section would not significantly further reduce the risk of transmission.
- Given the patient's **high viral load (11,000 copies/mL)**, **only intrapartum zidovudine** would be insufficient to adequately reduce the risk of MTCT during a vaginal delivery.
*Intrapartum zidovudine and cesarean delivery at 38 weeks' gestation*
- While a **scheduled cesarean delivery at 38 weeks** is indicated for a high viral load, simply administering **intrapartum zidovudine without prior cART** misses the opportunity to significantly reduce viral load before delivery.
- Starting **cART immediately** offers the best chance to lower viral load and optimize outcomes for both mother and child, which is superior to only intrapartum prophylaxis.
*Start cART and prepare for vaginal delivery at 38 weeks' gestation*
- Starting **cART is essential**, but preparing for a vaginal delivery with a **viral load of 11,000 copies/mL** at 36 weeks is inappropriate.
- A **high viral load** necessitates a ** scheduled cesarean delivery** to minimize the risk of MTCT, regardless of cART initiation at this late stage.
*Conduct cesarean delivery immediately*
- While immediate action is needed, an **emergency cesarean delivery** is not indicated at 36 weeks unless there are other obstetric complications or rapid deterioration.
- The primary goal is to **reduce viral load through cART** and then perform a **scheduled cesarean at 38 weeks**, balancing safety for both mother and fetus with the greatest reduction in HIV transmission risk.
Question 252: A 14-year-old girl comes to the physician because of excessive flow and duration of her menses. Since menarche a year ago, menses have occurred at irregular intervals and lasted 8–9 days. Her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago with passage of clots. She has no family or personal history of serious illness and takes no medications. She is at the 50th percentile for height and 20th percentile for weight. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
B. Inadequate gonadotropin production (Correct Answer)
C. Defective von Willebrand factor
D. Excessive androgen production
E. Endometrial polyp
Explanation: ***Inadequate gonadotropin production***
- In adolescents, especially within the first few years post-menarche, the **hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis** is often immature and anovulatory cycles are common, leading to irregular and heavy bleeding due to **unopposed estrogen**.
- Without sufficient **LH surges** to trigger ovulation, a corpus luteum does not form, resulting in inadequate progesterone production and
subsequent dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB).
*Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma*
- This is a rare, aggressive malignancy typically associated with a rapidly enlarging **pelvic mass**, pain, and sometimes vaginal bleeding or discharge, which are not described in this stable patient.
- While it can occur in adolescents, it would present with more significant findings on physical exam and symptoms beyond just heavy, irregular menses.
*Defective von Willebrand factor*
- **Von Willebrand disease** is a common bleeding disorder that can cause menorrhagia. However, the patient's history mentions no personal or family history of
serious illness or easy bruising/bleeding from other sites, making this less likely.
- Though it can cause heavy menses, the pattern of **irregularity** in a newly menstruating adolescent points more strongly to an endocrine cause.
*Excessive androgen production*
- Conditions involving excessive androgen production, such as **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)**, typically present with signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, acne), obesity, and chronic anovulation.
- The patient has no signs of hyperandrogenism, is within a normal weight percentile (20th percentile), and does not fit the typical PCOS presentation, making it an unlikely cause for her bleeding.
*Endometrial polyp*
- Endometrial polyps can cause **intermenstrual bleeding** or menorrhagia, but they are relatively uncommon in adolescents.
- The patient's irregular cycles are more indicative of an underlying hormonal imbalance rather than a structural lesion, and polyps are usually found at older ages or in association with hyperestrogenic states.
Question 253: A 32-year-old G1P0 woman presents to her obstetrician for a prenatal visit. She is 30 weeks pregnant. She reports some fatigue and complains of urinary urgency. Prior to this pregnancy, she had no significant medical history. She takes a prenatal vitamin and folate supplements daily. Her mother has diabetes, and her brother has coronary artery disease. On physical examination, the fundal height is 25 centimeters. A fetal ultrasound shows a proportional reduction in head circumference, trunk size, and limb length. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s presentation?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Antiphospholipid syndrome
C. Rubella infection (Correct Answer)
D. Pre-eclampsia
E. Cigarette smoking
Explanation: **Rubella infection**
- The **reduced fundal height** (25 cm at 30 weeks) and **symmetrically small fetus** (proportional reduction in head, trunk, and limbs) are characteristic findings of **intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)** due to a congenital infection like rubella.
- Maternal symptoms like **fatigue** and **urinary urgency** are non-specific but, in the context of fetal findings, point towards a systemic process affecting both mother and fetus.
*Gestational diabetes*
- Fetal growth in gestational diabetes is typically characterized by **macrosomia** (large for gestational age), not IUGR.
- Clinical findings would usually include a **fundal height larger than expected** for gestational age due to a larger fetus.
*Antiphospholipid syndrome*
- This condition is associated with **recurrent pregnancy loss**, **thrombosis**, and **placental insufficiency**, which can lead to IUGR.
- However, the IUGR associated with antiphospholipid syndrome is typically **asymmetric**, meaning the head circumference is spared while the abdomen and other body parts are disproportionately small.
*Pre-eclampsia*
- Pre-eclampsia can cause **IUGR** due to placental insufficiency, but it is primarily characterized by **new-onset hypertension** and **proteinuria** after 20 weeks of gestation, which are not mentioned in this case.
- While fatigue and urgency can be present, the absence of hypertension and proteinuria makes pre-eclampsia less likely as the primary cause.
*Cigarette smoking*
- Maternal cigarette smoking is a known risk factor for **IUGR**, particularly **symmetrical IUGR**.
- However, the patient's medical history states "no significant medical history" and does not mention smoking, making an infection a more likely explanation given the context.
Question 254: A 40-year-old nulliparous woman with no significant medical history presents to your office with shortness of breath and increased abdominal girth over the past month. The initial assessment demonstrates that the patient has a right-sided hydrothorax, ascites, and a large ovarian mass. Surgery is performed to remove the ovarian mass, and the patient's ascites and pleural effusion resolve promptly. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Metastatic colon cancer
C. Metastatic lung cancer
D. Meigs syndrome (Correct Answer)
E. Metastatic ovarian cancer
Explanation: ***Meigs syndrome***
- Meigs syndrome is characterized by the triad of a **benign ovarian tumor** (most commonly a fibroma), **ascites**, and **pleural effusion**, which resolve after the tumor's removal.
- The prompt resolution of ascites and hydrothorax after the ovarian mass removal is the classic diagnostic feature, distinguishing it from malignant causes.
*Nephrotic syndrome*
- Characterized by massive **proteinuria**, **hypoalbuminemia**, and generalized edema, but not typically associated with an ovarian mass as the primary cause of ascites and pleural effusion.
- The resolution of effusions post-ovarian mass removal would not occur in nephrotic syndrome as the underlying renal pathology remains.
*Metastatic colon cancer*
- While it can cause ascites and pleural effusions due to carcinomatosis, these symptoms would not resolve promptly with the removal of an ovarian mass unless the mass itself was a metastasis from the colon, which is not indicated as a benign ovarian tumor.
- Metastatic colon cancer typically indicates a widespread disease process, and removal of a single ovarian mass would not cure the underlying metastatic disease.
*Metastatic lung cancer*
- Can cause pleural effusions, but typically not ascites as a primary manifestation, nor an ovarian mass.
- If ascites were present, it would be due to widespread metastases, and resolution would not occur with removal of an ovarian mass.
*Metastatic ovarian cancer*
- While it presents with an ovarian mass, ascites, and pleural effusion, these conditions would indicate a malignant process.
- Unlike Meigs syndrome, the removal of a metastatic ovarian cancer mass would not typically lead to the prompt and complete resolution of ascites and pleural effusion due to the underlying malignancy.
Question 255: A 31-year-old G3P1 woman who is at 37 weeks of gestation is brought into the emergency department by her husband after repeated twitching. According to the husband, they were watching TV when she suddenly became unresponsive and her hands and legs started shaking. The episode lasted about 5 minutes and she “seemed to be sleeping afterwards.” Her past medical history is significant for pregnancy induced hypertension. The patient is tired but responsive and denies urinary incontinence, paresthesia, fever, upper respiratory signs, or new medication changes. She denies a history of seizures. Her temperature is 99°F (37°C), blood pressure is 186/97 mmHg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 12/min. Physical examination demonstrates a lethargic patient with moderate right upper quadrant tenderness. What is the most appropriate next step for this patient?
A. Emergency cesarean section
B. Expectant management
C. Intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin
D. Intravenous infusion of oxytocin
E. Intravenous magnesium sulfate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Intravenous magnesium sulfate***
- The patient exhibits classic signs of **eclampsia**: new-onset generalized tonic-clonic seizures in a pregnant woman with a history of **pregnancy-induced hypertension** and **preeclampsia** symptoms (elevated BP, RUQ tenderness, lethargy postpartum).
- **Magnesium sulfate** is the first-line treatment for preventing and managing seizures in eclampsia, reducing seizure recurrence risk and improving maternal outcomes.
*Emergency cesarean section*
- While delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia/eclampsia, the immediate priority after a seizure is to **stabilize the mother** and prevent further complications with anticonvulsant therapy.
- An emergency cesarean section would be considered after **maternal stabilization** but **not as the immediate first step** in an actively seizing or recently seized eclamptic patient.
*Expectant management*
- **Expectant management** is inappropriate given the patient's critical condition with a seizure (eclampsia).
- Eclampsia requires **urgent aggressive intervention** to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality.
*Intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin*
- **Antibiotics** (ampicillin and gentamicin) are used to treat suspected bacterial infections, particularly in cases of chorioamnionitis or postpartum endometritis.
- There are **no signs of infection** in this patient (no fever, no upper respiratory signs, no urinary incontinence), making antibiotics an inappropriate initial treatment.
*Intravenous infusion of oxytocin*
- **Oxytocin** is used to induce labor or augment uterine contractions and prevent postpartum hemorrhage.
- It is **not indicated** for the acute management of eclampsia or seizures, nor is it the immediate step even if delivery is planned, as maternal stabilization with magnesium sulfate comes first.
Question 256: A 31-year-old G1P0 woman at 26 weeks gestation presents to the clinic for evaluation of an abnormal glucose tolerance test. She denies any symptoms, but states that she was given 50 g of oral glucose 1 week earlier and demonstrated a subsequent venous plasma glucose level of 156 mg/dL 1 hour later. The vital signs are: blood pressure, 112/78 mm Hg; pulse, 81/min; and respiratory rate, 16/min. Physical examination is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Administer an oral, 3-hour 100 g glucose dose (Correct Answer)
B. Advise the patient to follow an American Diabetic Association diet plan
C. Repeat the 50 g oral glucose challenge
D. Begin insulin treatment
E. Order a fetal ultrasound examination
Explanation: ***Administer an oral, 3-hour 100 g glucose dose***
- This patient failed the initial **50 g, 1-hour glucose challenge test** (screen) because her plasma glucose was 156 mg/dL, which is above the typical threshold of 130-140 mg/dL.
- The next appropriate step for a failed screening test is to perform a **diagnostic 3-hour, 100 g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)** to confirm or rule out gestational diabetes.
*Advise the patient to follow an American Diabetic Association diet plan*
- While lifestyle modifications are important for managing gestational diabetes, this step is premature as the diagnosis has not yet been confirmed by the **diagnostic 3-hour OGTT**.
- Diet modification is part of the treatment for confirmed gestational diabetes, not the next diagnostic step.
*Repeat the 50 g oral glucose challenge*
- Repeating the screening test is not appropriate after a positive result; a diagnostic test is required to confirm the condition.
- The **50 g challenge** is a screening test with a high sensitivity but lower specificity, thus requiring a follow-up diagnostic test.
*Begin insulin treatment*
- **Insulin treatment** is reserved for patients officially diagnosed with gestational diabetes whose blood glucose levels cannot be controlled with diet and exercise alone.
- Prescribing insulin without a confirmed diagnosis is inappropriate and potentially harmful.
*Order a fetal ultrasound examination*
- A fetal ultrasound is used to monitor for complications of gestational diabetes like **macrosomia**, but it is not the next step in diagnosing the condition.
- While important for fetal surveillance in confirmed cases, it does not aid in the initial diagnosis of gestational diabetes itself.
Question 257: A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right lower quadrant abdominal pain and vaginal spotting. She denies diarrhea, constipation, or blood in the stool. The medical history is unremarkable. She does not use tobacco or drink alcohol. She is sexually active with her husband and uses an IUD for contraception. The temperature is 37.2 °C (99.0°F), the blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, the pulse is 80/min, and the respiratory rate is 12/min. The physical examination reveals localized tenderness in the right adnexa, but no masses are palpated. The LMP was 8 weeks ago. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient’s diagnosis?
A. Positive urinary beta-HCG and no intrauterine mass (Correct Answer)
B. Positive urinary beta-HCG and some products of conception in the uterus
C. Barium enema shows true diverticuli in the colon
D. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and tenderness at McBurney’s point
E. Abdominal x-ray shows free air under the diaphragm
Explanation: ***Positive urinary beta-HCG and no intrauterine mass***
- The patient's presentation with **right lower quadrant pain**, **vaginal spotting**, and a **missed period (LMP 8 weeks ago)** strongly suggests an ongoing pregnancy, making a **positive beta-HCG** likely.
- The localized adnexal tenderness and the use of an **IUD for contraception** increase the risk of an **ectopic pregnancy**, where a gestational sac is not visualized in the uterus.
*Positive urinary beta-HCG and some products of conception in the uterus*
- While a **positive beta-HCG** is consistent with pregnancy, the presence of **intrauterine products of conception** with symptoms of pain and spotting would suggest a threatened or incomplete miscarriage, not an ectopic pregnancy.
- An **intrauterine pregnancy** would typically be visualized within the uterus on ultrasound, which would rule out an ectopic pregnancy if found to explain the symptoms.
*Barium enema shows true diverticuli in the colon*
- **Diverticuli** are typically found in the left colon and would present with pain, fever, and altered bowel habits, which are not described in this patient.
- A **barium enema** is not typically used for acute abdominal pain in a young woman of reproductive age or for suspected ectopic pregnancy.
*Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and tenderness at McBurney’s point*
- **Rebound tenderness** and **tenderness at McBurney's point** are classic signs of **appendicitis**, which often presents with nausea, vomiting, and migratory pain starting periumbilically.
- The patient's symptoms of vaginal spotting and a missed period are not typical for appendicitis, and the pain is described as localized adnexal tenderness.
*Abdominal x-ray shows free air under the diaphragm*
- The presence of **free air under the diaphragm** on an abdominal X-ray is a sign of a **perforated viscus**, such as a ruptured ulcer or diverticulum.
- This is a life-threatening condition associated with severe, generalized abdominal pain and peritonitis, which does not align with the patient's localized adnexal tenderness and vaginal spotting.
Question 258: A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of a 1-month history of dull lower abdominal pain, decreased appetite, and a 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Pelvic ultrasonography shows bilateral ovarian enlargement and free fluid in the rectouterine pouch. Biopsy specimens from the ovaries show multiple, round, mucin-filled cells with flat, peripheral nuclei. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Decreased TSH levels
B. Gastric wall thickening (Correct Answer)
C. Dark blue peritoneal spots
D. Increased testosterone levels
E. Elevated β-hCG levels
Explanation: ***Gastric wall thickening***
- The description of **bilateral ovarian enlargement** with **mucin-filled cells** and **flat, peripheral nuclei** (**signet ring cells**) on biopsy is characteristic of **Krukenberg tumors**, which are metastatic ovarian tumors.
- The most common primary site for **Krukenberg tumors** is the **stomach**, implying that further evaluation would likely reveal **gastric wall thickening** or a mass consistent with the primary gastric adenocarcinoma.
*Decreased TSH levels*
- **Decreased TSH levels** are associated with **hyperthyroidism**, which typically presents with symptoms like weight loss (often with increased appetite), heat intolerance, and palpitations, none of which are specifically indicated as primary symptoms or directly linked to the ovarian findings described.
- While weight loss is present, it's alongside **decreased appetite**, which is atypical for primary hyperthyroidism, and the ovarian pathology points to a metastatic malignancy rather than an endocrine disorder.
*Dark blue peritoneal spots*
- **Dark blue peritoneal spots** are characteristic of **endometriosis**, specifically **peritoneal endometriosis**, where endometrial tissue is found outside the uterus.
- This condition presents with pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and infertility, but does not involve mucin-filled **signet ring cells** in ovarian biopsies or typically cause significant systemic symptoms like unexplained weight loss and decreased appetite in the same manner as a metastatic malignancy.
*Increased testosterone levels*
- **Increased testosterone levels** can be seen in conditions like **polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)** or **androgen-producing ovarian tumors** (e.g., Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors).
- These conditions are not associated with the histological finding of **signet ring cells** in ovarian biopsies or the systemic symptoms of weight loss and decreased appetite described in this patient.
*Elevated β-hCG levels*
- **Elevated β-hCG levels** are primarily associated with **pregnancy** or **gestational trophoblastic disease** (e.g., hydatidiform mole, choriocarcinoma) and some germ cell tumors.
- While some ovarian tumors can produce β-hCG, the specific histological findings of **signet ring cells** point strongly towards a metastatic adenocarcinoma, not a condition typically characterized by β-hCG elevation.
Question 259: A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, comes to the physician for her initial prenatal visit at 18 weeks’ gestation. She is a recent immigrant from Thailand. Her history is significant for anemia since childhood that has not required any treatment. Her mother and husband have anemia, as well. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Fundal height measures at 22 weeks. Ultrasound shows polyhydramnios and pleural and peritoneal effusion in the fetus with fetal subcutaneous edema. Which of the following is the most likely clinical course for this fetus?
A. Neonatal death
B. Normal development with regular blood transfusion
C. Asymptomatic anemia
D. Intrauterine fetal demise (Correct Answer)
E. Carrier state
Explanation: ***Intrauterine fetal demise***
- The ultrasound findings of **polyhydramnios**, **pleural and peritoneal effusion**, and **fetal subcutaneous edema** are classic signs of **hydrops fetalis**.
- In a patient from Thailand with a history of lifelong anemia and a family history of anemia, these findings are highly suggestive of **alpha-thalassemia major (Hb Barts disease)**, which is almost always lethal in utero or shortly after birth.
*Neonatal death*
- While many cases of **hydrops fetalis** due to **alpha-thalassemia major** result in neonatal death, the severe findings often lead to **intrauterine fetal demise** before viability or at term.
- The combination of severe fetal compromise (multiple effusions, edema) and polyhydramnios often indicates a very poor prognosis and high likelihood of demise prior to full term delivery.
*Normal development with regular blood transfusion*
- This is typical for less severe forms of **thalassemia**, such as **beta-thalassemia major**, but not for **alpha-thalassemia major (Hb Barts disease)**, which is characterized by the complete absence of alpha-globin chains.
- **Hb Barts disease** is incompatible with life due to severe tissue hypoxia, as this hemoglobin has an extremely high affinity for oxygen and cannot release it to tissues effectively.
*Asymptomatic anemia*
- **Asymptomatic anemia** is generally associated with milder forms of anemia, such as alpha-thalassemia trait (two gene deletion) or beta-thalassemia minor.
- The severe manifestations of **hydrops fetalis** clearly indicate a profound, life-threatening condition for the fetus, not asymptomatic anemia.
*Carrier state*
- A **carrier state** (e.g., alpha-thalassemia trait) would typically involve mild or no anemia and would not cause **hydrops fetalis** in the fetus.
- The significant fetal pathology rules out a simple carrier state for the fetus; this fetus is severely affected by a major genetic disorder.
Question 260: A 54-year-old G2P2 presents to her gynecologist's office with complaints of frequent hot flashes, malaise, insomnia, and mild mood swings for 2 weeks. She has also noticed some pain with intercourse and vaginal dryness during this time. She is otherwise healthy besides hyperlipidemia, controlled on atorvastatin. Her surgical history includes a hysterectomy performed years ago due to postpartum hemorrhage. She is desiring of a medication to control her symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate short-term medical therapy in this patient for symptomatic relief?
A. Paroxetine
B. Gabapentin
C. Hormonal replacement therapy with combined estrogen/progesterone
D. Hormonal replacement therapy with estrogen alone (Correct Answer)
E. Hormonal replacement therapy with progesterone alone
Explanation: ***Hormonal replacement therapy with estrogen alone***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of **menopause**, including vasomotor symptoms (hot flashes), sleep disturbance, mood swings, and genitourinary symptoms (pain with intercourse, vaginal dryness). Her history of hysterectomy means she does not have a uterus, therefore, **estrogen alone** is appropriate for hormone replacement therapy (HRT).
- Administering estrogen without progesterone to a patient who has undergone a hysterectomy eliminates the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and cancer, which is a concern when estrogen is given alone to women with an intact uterus.
*Paroxetine*
- While **SSRIs like paroxetine** can be used to manage vasomotor symptoms in menopause, they do not address the genitourinary symptoms like vaginal dryness and dyspareunia.
- It is generally considered a second-line option for vasomotor symptoms when HRT is contraindicated or undesired.
*Gabapentin*
- **Gabapentin** can be effective for managing hot flashes, especially in women who cannot or do not wish to use hormonal therapy.
- However, like SSRIs, it does not alleviate the symptoms of **vaginal atrophy** and dryness, which are also significant concerns for this patient.
*Hormonal replacement therapy with combined estrogen/progesterone*
- **Combined estrogen/progesterone therapy** is indicated for menopausal women with an **intact uterus** to protect against endometrial hyperplasia and cancer.
- This patient has undergone a hysterectomy, making the progesterone component unnecessary and potentially adding unwanted side effects.
*Hormonal replacement therapy with progesterone alone*
- **Progesterone alone** is not used for primary menopausal symptom relief, as it does not address the estrogen deficiency responsible for vasomotor and genitourinary symptoms.
- Progesterone may be used in specific cases, such as for luteal phase support or contraception, but not for comprehensive menopausal symptom management.