A 34-year-old G3P2 undergoes colposcopy at 15 weeks gestation due to high-grade intraepithelial lesion detected on a Pap smear. She has no history of the gynecologic disease and had normal Pap smear results prior to the current pregnancy. The pelvic examination does not reveal any cervical lesions. Colposcopy shows a non-deformed cervix with a well-visualized transformation zone. Application of acetic acid reveals an area of acetowhite epithelium 2 cm in the largest diameter located at 6 o’clock with sharp irregular borders. A punch biopsy shows irregularly shaped tongues of pleomorphic squamous epithelium cells invading the stroma to a depth of 2 mm. Which of the following describes the proper management strategy for this patient?
Q222
A 17-year-old girl is brought to the physician because she has not had a menstrual period. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Examination shows normal breast development. Pubic hair is coarse and extends to the inner surface of the thighs. Pelvic examination shows a blind vaginal pouch. Ultrasonography shows ovaries, but no uterus. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q223
A 29-year-old G1P0 at 23 weeks of gestation presents to the ED for left flank pain migrating to the groin. The pain is sharp, causing her to have nausea and vomiting. She also endorses urinary frequency, but denies vaginal discharge. There have been no complications in her pregnancy thus far. Her abdominal exam is remarkable for left lower quadrant tenderness to palpation with pain radiating to the left groin, but no guarding. She also has tenderness to palpation of the left flank. Blood is visible on inspection of the perineal area.
Urinalysis:
Urine Color: Yellow
pH: 7.1
Specific gravity: 1.010
Blood: 3+
Bilirubin: Negative
Glucose: Negative
Ketones: Negative
Protein: Negative
Nitrite: Negative
Leukocyte esterase: Negative
Red blood cells: 291 cells/ul
White blood cells: 75 cells/ul
Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Q224
A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, comes to the physician because she had a positive pregnancy test at home. During the last two weeks, she has had nausea and two episodes of non-bloody vomiting. She also reports increased urinary frequency. Her pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. Last year, she had two episodes of grand-mal seizure. She is sexually active with her husband and they use condoms inconsistently. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She does not use illicit drugs. Current medications include valproic acid and a multivitamin. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is positive. The child is at increased risk for requiring which of the following interventions?
Q225
A 37-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a follow-up examination 2 days after an increased blood pressure measurement. She now reports having a headache and visual disturbances for the past 12 hours. Her only medication is a prenatal vitamin. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 164/80 mm Hg. Her blood pressure at her first-trimester prenatal visit was 110/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL
Platelet count 285,000/mm3
Serum
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Urine
Blood negative
Protein negative
Which of the following is the most likely primary component in the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
Q226
A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of intermittent bleeding from her vagina. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Pelvic ultrasound shows a thickened endometrial stripe and a left adnexal mass. Endometrial biopsy shows a well-differentiated adenocarcinoma. Laboratory studies show increased levels of inhibin B. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q227
A 70-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of loss of urine for the last several months. She loses small amounts of urine without warning after coughing or sneezing. She also sometimes forgets the names of her relatives. She is retired and lives at an assisted-living facility. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her older sister recently received a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Medications include metformin and enalapril. Vital signs are within normal limits. She walks without any problems. Sensation to pinprick and light touch is normal. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q228
A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She reports that she has had frequent headaches and dizziness recently. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 170/100 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 32-week gestation. Physical examination shows 2+ edema in the lower extremities. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 37%
Leukocyte count 9000/mm3
Platelet count 60,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 140 mEq/L
Cl- 104 mEq/L
K+ 4.4 mEq/L
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase 20 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase 20 U/L
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q229
A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician to discuss contraceptive options. She is currently sexually active with one male partner, and they have not been using any contraception. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 15 years. She is allergic to latex and copper. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following contraceptive methods is contraindicated in this patient?
Q230
A 21-year-old woman presents with irregular menses, acne, and increased body hair growth. She says her average menstrual cycle lasts 36 days and states that she has heavy menstrual bleeding. She had her menarche at the age of 13 years. Her blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 79/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F). Her body weight is 101.0 kg (222.7 lb) and height is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in). Physical examination shows papular acne on her forehead and cheeks. There are dark hairs present on her upper lip, periareolar region, linea alba, and hips, as well as darkening of the skin on the axilla and posterior neck. Which of the following endocrine abnormalities would also most likely be found in this patient?
High-risk pregnancies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: A 34-year-old G3P2 undergoes colposcopy at 15 weeks gestation due to high-grade intraepithelial lesion detected on a Pap smear. She has no history of the gynecologic disease and had normal Pap smear results prior to the current pregnancy. The pelvic examination does not reveal any cervical lesions. Colposcopy shows a non-deformed cervix with a well-visualized transformation zone. Application of acetic acid reveals an area of acetowhite epithelium 2 cm in the largest diameter located at 6 o’clock with sharp irregular borders. A punch biopsy shows irregularly shaped tongues of pleomorphic squamous epithelium cells invading the stroma to a depth of 2 mm. Which of the following describes the proper management strategy for this patient?
A. Perform a diagnostic conization (Correct Answer)
B. Perform radical trachelectomy
C. Observe until 34 weeks of pregnancy
D. Schedule a diagnostic lymphadenectomy
E. Terminate the pregnancy and perform a radical hysterectomy
Explanation: ***Perform a diagnostic conization***
- The biopsy results indicate **squamous cell carcinoma** with a depth of invasion of 2 mm, which is considered **microinvasive cervical cancer** (depth <3-5 mm).
- A **diagnostic conization** (cold knife cone biopsy) is necessary to determine the full extent of invasion, assess margins, and rule out deeper invasion or metastatic disease before definitive treatment decisions can be made, especially in pregnancy.
*Perform radical trachelectomy*
- A **radical trachelectomy** is a surgical procedure to remove the cervix and surrounding tissue, preserving the uterus for future fertility. It is typically performed for early-stage cervical cancer (IB1 or select IA2) in women who desire to maintain fertility.
- However, in this case, the **depth of invasion** needs to be fully characterized first with a diagnostic conization, and the gestational age necessitates careful consideration due to the risk of preterm labor.
*Observe until 34 weeks of pregnancy*
- **Observation** is generally reserved for **high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL)** during pregnancy when invasive cancer has been ruled out.
- Given the biopsy findings of **microinvasive carcinoma**, observation is not appropriate as it could lead to progression of the disease.
*Schedule a diagnostic lymphadenectomy*
- A **lymphadenectomy** (removal of lymph nodes) is performed to stage the cancer and assess for metastatic spread.
- However, it is not the initial diagnostic step; a **diagnostic conization** is needed first to fully define the primary lesion and determine if lymph node involvement is likely or needs to be investigated.
*Terminate the pregnancy and perform a radical hysterectomy*
- Although **radical hysterectomy** is a definitive treatment for cervical cancer, **termination of pregnancy** and immediate radical hysterectomy would only be considered for more advanced stages or if the patient did not desire to continue the pregnancy.
- For **microinvasive cancer** in a desired pregnancy, a fertility-sparing approach is often attempted first, and the full extent of the disease needs to be confirmed with a conization before making such a drastic decision.
Question 222: A 17-year-old girl is brought to the physician because she has not had a menstrual period. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Examination shows normal breast development. Pubic hair is coarse and extends to the inner surface of the thighs. Pelvic examination shows a blind vaginal pouch. Ultrasonography shows ovaries, but no uterus. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Pure gonadal dysgenesis
B. Failure of Müllerian duct recanalization
C. Müllerian duct agenesis (Correct Answer)
D. Androgen insensitivity
E. 17-alpha-hydroxylase enzyme deficiency
Explanation: ***Müllerian duct agenesis***
- This condition, also known as **Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser (MRKH) syndrome**, presents with primary amenorrhea, **normal breast development** (indicating functioning ovaries), and a **blind vaginal pouch** due to the absence of a uterus and often the upper vagina.
- The presence of **normal pubic hair** confirms **normal androgen production** from the ovaries and adrenal glands, further differentiating it from other disorders of sexual development.
*Pure gonadal dysgenesis*
- This condition involves **streak gonads** and causes **primary amenorrhea** but would typically lead to **absent or delayed breast development** due to lack of estrogen production.
- The presence of ovaries in this patient makes pure gonadal dysgenesis unlikely.
*Failure of Müllerian duct recanalization*
- While this can lead to anomalies like a **transverse vaginal septum**, it doesn't typically result in the **complete absence of a uterus** as indicated by the ultrasonography findings.
- A transverse septum would still involve a functional uterus above the obstruction, which is not the case here.
*Androgen insensitivity*
- Patients with **complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (CAIS)** are typically **genotypically male (XY)** but phenotypically female, presenting with **primary amenorrhea** and a **blind vaginal pouch**.
- However, they would have **absent pubic and axillary hair** due to the inability of androgen receptors to respond to circulating androgens, which contrasts with this patient's normal pubic hair.
*17-alpha-hydroxylase enzyme deficiency*
- This condition results in impaired synthesis of **cortisol** and **sex steroids**, leading to **primary amenorrhea** and **delayed or absent puberty** (including breast development).
- Patients typically present with **hypertension** and **hypokalemia** due to excess mineralocorticoid production, and would not have normal breast development.
Question 223: A 29-year-old G1P0 at 23 weeks of gestation presents to the ED for left flank pain migrating to the groin. The pain is sharp, causing her to have nausea and vomiting. She also endorses urinary frequency, but denies vaginal discharge. There have been no complications in her pregnancy thus far. Her abdominal exam is remarkable for left lower quadrant tenderness to palpation with pain radiating to the left groin, but no guarding. She also has tenderness to palpation of the left flank. Blood is visible on inspection of the perineal area.
Urinalysis:
Urine Color: Yellow
pH: 7.1
Specific gravity: 1.010
Blood: 3+
Bilirubin: Negative
Glucose: Negative
Ketones: Negative
Protein: Negative
Nitrite: Negative
Leukocyte esterase: Negative
Red blood cells: 291 cells/ul
White blood cells: 75 cells/ul
Which of the following is the next best step in management?
A. Intravenous pyelogram
B. Noncontrast CT scan of abdomen and pelvis
C. Exploratory laparoscopy
D. Renal radiograph
E. Renal ultrasound (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Renal ultrasound***
- A **renal ultrasound** is the most appropriate next step given the patient's pregnancy and symptoms consistent with **nephrolithiasis** (flank pain radiating to the groin, hematuria). It avoids radiation exposure.
- Ultrasound can assess for **hydronephrosis** and identify stones, particularly in the **renal pelvis** or **proximal ureter**.
*Intravenous pyelogram*
- An **intravenous pyelogram (IVP)** involves exposure to **ionizing radiation** and iodinated contrast, both of which are contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus.
- While effective for imaging the urinary tract, the risks outweigh the benefits in a pregnant patient.
*Noncontrast CT scan of abdomen and pelvis*
- A **noncontrast CT scan** is highly effective for detecting renal stones but delivers a significant dose of **ionizing radiation**, making it unsuitable for a pregnant patient unless absolutely necessary and other options are insufficient.
- The potential for **fetal harm** from radiation exposure is a major concern.
*Exploratory laparoscopy*
- **Exploratory laparoscopy** is an invasive surgical procedure used for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes, typically reserved for cases where other less invasive diagnostic methods have failed or surgical intervention is clearly indicated (e.g., appendicitis, ectopic pregnancy).
- It carries significant risks, such as **anesthetic complications**, **bleeding**, and **infection**, and is not the initial diagnostic step for suspected nephrolithiasis.
*Renal radiograph*
- A **renal radiograph** (plain film KUB) uses **ionizing radiation** and its sensitivity for detecting ureteral stones is relatively low, especially for non-calcified stones.
- The radiation exposure is not ideal for pregnancy, and the diagnostic yield is inferior to ultrasound for this presentation.
Question 224: A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, comes to the physician because she had a positive pregnancy test at home. During the last two weeks, she has had nausea and two episodes of non-bloody vomiting. She also reports increased urinary frequency. Her pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. Last year, she had two episodes of grand-mal seizure. She is sexually active with her husband and they use condoms inconsistently. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She does not use illicit drugs. Current medications include valproic acid and a multivitamin. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is positive. The child is at increased risk for requiring which of the following interventions?
A. Lower spinal surgery (Correct Answer)
B. Cochlear implantation
C. Kidney transplantation
D. Dental treatment
E. Respiratory support
Explanation: ***Lower spinal surgery***
- The patient is taking **valproic acid** which is associated with an increased risk of **neural tube defects** (NTDs), such as spina bifida, in the fetus.
- Infants with **spina bifida** often require surgical intervention to close the spinal defect and manage associated neurological complications such as hydrocephalus, which may consequently require a shunt.
*Cochlear implantation*
- **Cochlear implantation** is a treatment for severe hearing loss, and there is no direct link between maternal valproic acid use and an increased risk of congenital hearing impairment requiring this intervention.
- While some congenital syndromes can include hearing loss, it is not a hallmark teratogenic effect of **valproic acid**.
*Kidney transplantation*
- There is no strong evidence to suggest that maternal use of **valproic acid** significantly increases the risk of fetal renal malformations or end-stage renal disease requiring **kidney transplantation**.
- Issues requiring kidney transplantation are not a common outcome of valproic acid exposure.
*Dental treatment*
- Routine **dental treatment** is common in children, but there is no specific increased risk of severe dental anomalies or conditions requiring extensive early intervention directly attributable to maternal valproic acid use.
- While some medications can cause dental issues, **valproic acid** is not specifically noted for this teratogenic effect.
*Respiratory support*
- Although some birth defects can indirectly affect respiratory function, there is no direct and significant link between maternal **valproic acid** use and primary pulmonary hypoplasia or other severe respiratory conditions requiring **long-term respiratory support** in the newborn.
- **Neural tube defects** are the primary concern, and while they can have systemic effects, primary respiratory failure is not a direct result.
Question 225: A 37-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a follow-up examination 2 days after an increased blood pressure measurement. She now reports having a headache and visual disturbances for the past 12 hours. Her only medication is a prenatal vitamin. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 164/80 mm Hg. Her blood pressure at her first-trimester prenatal visit was 110/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL
Platelet count 285,000/mm3
Serum
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Urine
Blood negative
Protein negative
Which of the following is the most likely primary component in the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
A. Increase in circulating plasma volume
B. Vasogenic cerebral edema
C. Abnormal remodeling of spiral arteries (Correct Answer)
D. Hyperperfusion of placental tissue
E. Overactivation of the coagulation cascade
Explanation: ***Abnormal remodeling of spiral arteries***
- The patient's symptoms (headache, visual disturbances, new-onset hypertension at 32 weeks, and no proteinuria) are characteristic of **gestational hypertension** progressing towards **preeclampsia** (though proteinuria is currently absent, the symptoms suggest worsening disease). The fundamental cause of preeclampsia and related hypertensive disorders of pregnancy is thought to be inadequate placentation due to **abnormal remodeling of the spiral arteries** in the uterus.
- This abnormal remodeling leads to **reduced placental perfusion**, causing **placental ischemia** and the release of various antiangiogenic factors and inflammatory mediators into the maternal circulation, which then cause widespread endothelial dysfunction and the clinical manifestations of preeclampsia.
*Increase in circulating plasma volume*
- In normal pregnancy, there is a significant **increase in circulating plasma volume** to support the growing fetus and placenta.
- In contrast, women with preeclampsia often have a **reduced plasma volume** relative to normal pregnancy, contributing to hemoconcentration.
*Vasogenic cerebral edema*
- **Vasogenic cerebral edema** can occur in severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, causing symptoms like headaches and visual disturbances due to severe hypertension overcoming autoregulation.
- However, this is a consequence of the systemic endothelial dysfunction and hypertension, not the **primary initiating event** in the pathogenesis of the condition.
*Hyperperfusion of placental tissue*
- The underlying issue in preeclampsia is actually **hypoperfusion (reduced blood flow)** of the placental tissue due to the abnormal spiral artery remodeling, not hyperperfusion.
- This **placental ischemia** is what triggers the release of factors leading to maternal endothelial dysfunction.
*Overactivation of the coagulation cascade*
- While preeclampsia can involve activation of the **coagulation cascade** and platelet consumption (e.g., in **HELLP syndrome**), this is a secondary complication due to widespread endothelial damage.
- The initial pathogenesis primarily involves **placental dysfunction** and subsequent maternal systemic vascular response, with coagulation abnormalities being downstream effects.
Question 226: A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of intermittent bleeding from her vagina. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Pelvic ultrasound shows a thickened endometrial stripe and a left adnexal mass. Endometrial biopsy shows a well-differentiated adenocarcinoma. Laboratory studies show increased levels of inhibin B. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Yolk sac tumor
B. Granulosa cell tumor (Correct Answer)
C. Immature teratoma
D. Serous cystadenocarcinoma
E. Dysgerminoma
Explanation: ***Granulosa cell tumor***
- This tumor produces **estrogen**, which can lead to **endometrial hyperplasia** or **adenocarcinoma** and presents as postmenopausal bleeding.
- **Elevated inhibin B** is a characteristic tumor marker for granulosa cell tumors.
*Yolk sac tumor*
- This tumor primarily affects **younger women** and is associated with elevated **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)**, not inhibin B.
- It does not typically cause endometrial changes or postmenopausal bleeding through hormone production.
*Immature teratoma*
- Immature teratomas are **germ cell tumors** consisting of immature tissues (e.g., neural, cartilage) and usually occur in **younger patients**.
- While they can be large, they do not produce hormones like estrogen or inhibin B to cause endometrial adenocarcinoma.
*Serous cystadenocarcinoma*
- This is a common **epithelial ovarian cancer** that can present with an adnexal mass but is not typically associated with hormone production leading to endometrial hyperplasia or elevated inhibin B.
- Symptoms often include abdominal bloating, pressure, and pain, not primarily postmenopausal bleeding due to estrogen.
*Dysgerminoma*
- This is another **germ cell tumor** that typically presents in **younger individuals** and is often associated with elevated **lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)** and sometimes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), but not inhibin B or estrogen effects.
- It does not cause endometrial adenocarcinoma.
Question 227: A 70-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of loss of urine for the last several months. She loses small amounts of urine without warning after coughing or sneezing. She also sometimes forgets the names of her relatives. She is retired and lives at an assisted-living facility. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her older sister recently received a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Medications include metformin and enalapril. Vital signs are within normal limits. She walks without any problems. Sensation to pinprick and light touch is normal. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Detrusor overactivity
B. Urethral hypermobility
C. Decreased cerebrospinal fluid absorption (Correct Answer)
D. Loss of sphincter control
E. Bacterial infection of the urinary tract
Explanation: ***Decreased cerebrospinal fluid absorption***
- The patient's symptoms of **urinary incontinence** (losing urine without warning after coughing/sneezing) and **cognitive impairment** (forgetting names of relatives) in an older adult, especially with a family history of **ventriculoperitoneal shunt** (suggesting hydrocephalus), are highly suggestive of **Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)**.
- Reduced reabsorption of CSF leads to ventricular enlargement and the classic NPH triad: **gait disturbance**, **urinary incontinence**, and **dementia**.
*Detrusor overactivity*
- This typically presents as **urge incontinence**, characterized by a sudden, strong need to urinate followed by involuntary urine loss, often with large volumes.
- While it causes incontinence, it does not explain the co-occurring **cognitive deficits**.
*Urethral hypermobility*
- This is a common cause of **stress incontinence**, where urine leakage occurs with increased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g., coughing, sneezing).
- However, **urethral hypermobility** does not account for the patient's **cognitive symptoms**.
*Loss of sphincter control*
- This can be a feature of **stress incontinence** or intrinsic sphincter deficiency, leading to urine leakage with exertion.
- Similar to urethral hypermobility, it does not explain the presence of **cognitive decline** in this patient.
*Bacterial infection of the urinary tract*
- A **urinary tract infection (UTI)** can cause new-onset incontinence, dysuria, urgency, and sometimes altered mental status in older adults.
- However, the patient's long-standing symptoms over "several months" and the presence of **memory loss** make a simple UTI less likely as the primary underlying cause; UTIs are typically acute.
Question 228: A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She reports that she has had frequent headaches and dizziness recently. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 170/100 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 32-week gestation. Physical examination shows 2+ edema in the lower extremities. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 37%
Leukocyte count 9000/mm3
Platelet count 60,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 140 mEq/L
Cl- 104 mEq/L
K+ 4.4 mEq/L
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase 20 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase 20 U/L
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Magnesium sulfate and labetalol therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Lisinopril therapy
C. Platelet transfusion
D. Perform C-section
E. Admit the patient to the ICU
Explanation: ***Magnesium sulfate and labetalol therapy***
- This patient presents with **severe preeclampsia** (new-onset hypertension with systolic BP ≥160 or diastolic BP ≥110, or hypertension with proteinuria and features of end-organ damage such as headache, vision changes, thrombocytopenia, and elevated liver enzymes).
- **Magnesium sulfate** is crucial for **seizure prophylaxis** in severe preeclampsia, while **labetalol** is an appropriate **antihypertensive** to manage the dangerously high blood pressure.
*Lisinopril therapy*
- **ACE inhibitors** like lisinopril are **contraindicated in pregnancy** due to their potential for serious fetal adverse effects, including renal dysfunction and oligohydramnios.
- While it lowers blood pressure, its use in pregnancy would be harmful to the fetus.
*Platelet transfusion*
- Although the patient has **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 60,000/mm3), a transfusion is generally **not indicated acutely** unless there is active bleeding or the platelet count is critically low (e.g., <10,000-20,000/mm3) or before an invasive procedure.
- The primary issue is the underlying severe preeclampsia, which needs to be addressed first.
*Perform C-section*
- While **delivery** is the definitive treatment for severe preeclampsia, the patient is at **32 weeks' gestation**, and immediate C-section might not be necessary if the condition can be stabilized.
- The priority is to **magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis** and **control the blood pressure** before considering the timing and mode of delivery, which would typically be after stabilization and potentially a course of corticosteroids for fetal lung maturity if time permits.
*Admit the patient to the ICU*
- Although severe preeclampsia warrants close monitoring, **initial management often occurs on a labor and delivery unit** with appropriate nursing and medical staff experienced in obstetric emergencies.
- ICU admission might be considered for cases with more severe complications or multi-organ failure, but the immediate next step is to initiate specific therapies for preeclampsia.
Question 229: A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician to discuss contraceptive options. She is currently sexually active with one male partner, and they have not been using any contraception. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 15 years. She is allergic to latex and copper. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following contraceptive methods is contraindicated in this patient?
A. Diaphragm with spermicide
B. Condoms
C. Progestin-only pill
D. Combined oral contraceptive pill (Correct Answer)
E. Intrauterine device
Explanation: ***Combined oral contraceptive pill***
- This patient, a 36-year-old woman, smokes one pack of cigarettes daily, which puts her at increased risk for **cardiovascular events** if she uses combined oral contraceptives.
- The risk of **thrombosis**, **myocardial infarction**, and **stroke** associated with combined hormonal contraceptives is significantly elevated in women over 35 who smoke.
*Diaphragm with spermicide*
- A diaphragm with spermicide is a **barrier method** that can be used by women of any age and smoking status.
- It does not contain hormones and therefore does not increase the risk of **cardiovascular events** in smokers.
*Condoms*
- The patient has a **latex allergy**, which would contraindicate the use of standard latex condoms.
- However, there are non-latex condom alternatives (e.g., polyurethane, polyisoprene) that would be safe and effective for this patient.
*Progestin-only pill*
- The **progestin-only pill** does not carry the same cardiovascular risks as combined oral contraceptives for smokers.
- It works by thickening cervical mucus and thinning the endometrium, and is often a safe option for women with contraindications to estrogen.
*Intrauterine device*
- The patient has a **copper allergy**, which would contraindicate the use of a copper IUD.
- However, a **hormonal IUD** (e.g., levonorgestrel-releasing IUD) would be a safe and effective option as it does not contain copper or estrogen.
Question 230: A 21-year-old woman presents with irregular menses, acne, and increased body hair growth. She says her average menstrual cycle lasts 36 days and states that she has heavy menstrual bleeding. She had her menarche at the age of 13 years. Her blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 79/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F). Her body weight is 101.0 kg (222.7 lb) and height is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in). Physical examination shows papular acne on her forehead and cheeks. There are dark hairs present on her upper lip, periareolar region, linea alba, and hips, as well as darkening of the skin on the axilla and posterior neck. Which of the following endocrine abnormalities would also most likely be found in this patient?
A. Aldosterone hyperproduction
B. Adrenaline hypersecretion
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Insulin resistance (Correct Answer)
E. Hypoestrogenism
Explanation: ***Insulin resistance***
- The patient exhibits several features suggestive of **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)**, including **irregular menses (oligomenorrhea)**, **acne**, **hirsutism** (increased body hair), and **obesity** (BMI 34.9 kg/m2).
- Insulin resistance is a central pathophysiological feature of PCOS, leading to **hyperinsulinemia** which stimulates ovarian androgen production, exacerbating symptoms like hirsutism and acne.
*Aldosterone hyperproduction*
- **Aldosterone hyperproduction**, as seen in primary hyperaldosteronism, primarily causes **hypertension** and **hypokalemia**, none of which are explicitly indicated in this patient's presentation.
- The patient's blood pressure is within a normal range, and there are no symptoms or signs pointing to electrolyte imbalances.
*Adrenaline hypersecretion*
- **Adrenaline hypersecretion** (e.g., in pheochromocytoma) typically presents with paroxysmal **hypertension**, **tachycardia**, palpitations, and anxiety.
- These signs are absent in the patient, whose vital signs are stable and blood pressure is normal.
*Hypothyroidism*
- **Hypothyroidism** can cause irregular menses and weight gain, but it is typically associated with **cold intolerance**, fatigue, and dry skin, not acne or hirsutism.
- The patient's presentation of androgen excess (acne, hirsutism) is inconsistent with hypothyroidism.
*Hypoestrogenism*
- **Hypoestrogenism** would typically present with symptoms such as **hot flashes**, vaginal dryness, and bone loss, and it would usually lead to oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea.
- In PCOS, while estrogen levels can be dynamic, the primary issue is **androgen excess**, and estrogen levels are often normal or even elevated due to peripheral conversion of androgens.