High-risk pregnancies — MCQs

A 38-year-old G1P0 woman presents to her obstetrician for a prenatal visit. She reports feeling well and has no acute concerns. She is currently at 28 weeks gestation previously confirmed by ultrasound. She takes her folate supplements daily. She has a 10-pack-year smoking history and currently smokes half a pack per day. On physical exam, the uterus is soft and globular. The top of the uterine fundus is found around the level of the umbilicus. A fetal ultrasound demonstrates a reduced liver volume and subcutaneous fat with relative sparing of the head. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this patient's ultrasound findings?

A 52-year-old G3P3 presents to her gynecologist complaining of painful intercourse. She reports a 6-month history of intermittent dryness, itching, and burning during intercourse. Upon further questioning, she also reports poor sleep and occasional periods during which she feels very warm and sweats profusely. Her past medical history is significant for poorly controlled hypertension and a 10 pack-year smoking history. She takes hydrochlorothiazide and enalapril. Her temperature is 99.3°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. On examination, she is a healthy female in no distress. Pelvic examination reveals no adnexal or cervical motion tenderness. Which of the following sets of hormone levels are most likely to be found in this patient?

A 27-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a concern about her pregnancy. This is her first pregnancy, and she is currently at 33 weeks gestation. She states that she has experienced diffuse swelling of her ankles and legs and is concerned that it is abnormal. Otherwise, she has no concerns. The patient has a past medical history of obesity and diabetes. Her temperature is 98.5°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 147/92 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Physical exam reveals bilateral edema of the lower extremities. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 51-year-old woman presents to the primary care clinic complaining of trouble sleeping. She reports that she has episodes of "overheating" and "sweating" during the day and at night. The nightly episodes keep her from staying asleep. She also explains how embarrassing it is when she suddenly becomes hot and flushed during work meetings. The patient becomes visibly upset and states that she is worried about her marriage as well. She says she has been fighting with her husband about not going out because she is "too tired." They have not been able to have sex the past several months because "it hurts." Labs are drawn, as shown below: Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH): 62 mIU/mL Estradiol: 34 pg/mL Progesterone: 0.1 ng/mL Luteinizing hormone (LH): 46 mIU/mL Free testosterone: 2.1 ng/dL Which of the following contributes most to the production of estrogen in this patient?

A 27-year-old gravida 2, para 1 presents to her physician at 21 weeks gestation with decreased sensitivity, tingling, and pain in her right hand that is worse at night and is partially relieved by shaking her hand. She developed these symptoms gradually over the past month. She does not report any trauma to her extremities, neck, or spine. The physical examination shows a normal range of motion of the neck, spine, and extremities. On neurologic examination, the patient has 2+ biceps and triceps reflexes. She has decreased pressure and temperature sensitivity over the palmar surface of the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd fingers. Wrist flexion and tapping the skin over the flexor retinaculum trigger exacerbation of the symptoms. Which of the following statements about the patient’s condition is correct?

A 40-year-old, gravida 2, nulliparous woman, at 14 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of a 6-hour history of light vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal discomfort. Eight months ago she had a spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks' gestation. Her pulse is 92/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 134/76 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows no tenderness or masses; bowel sounds are normal. On pelvic examination, there is old blood in the vaginal vault and at the closed cervical os. The uterus is larger than expected for the length of gestation and there are bilateral adnexal masses. Serum β-hCG concentration is 120,000 mIU/ml. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 32-year-old primigravida at 35 weeks gestation seeks evaluation at the emergency department for swelling and redness of the left calf, which started 2 hours ago. She reports that the pain has worsened since the onset. The patient denies a history of insect bites or trauma. She has never experienced something like this in the past. Her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. She does not use alcohol, tobacco, or any illicit drugs. She does not take any medications other than prenatal vitamins. Her temperature is 36.8℃ (98.2℉), the blood pressure is 105/60 mm Hg, the pulse is 110/min, and the respirations are 15/min. The left calf is edematous with the presence of erythema. The skin feels warm and pain is elicited with passive dorsiflexion of the foot. The femoral, popliteal, and pedal pulses are palpable bilaterally. An abdominal examination reveals a fundal height consistent with the gestational age. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. The patient is admitted to the hospital and appropriate treatment is initiated. Which of the following hormones is most likely implicated in the development of this patient’s condition?

A 22-year-old primigravid woman at 12 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of several hours of abdominal cramping and passing of large vaginal blood clots. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.3°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg. The uterus is consistent in size with a 12-week gestation. Speculum exam shows an open cervical os and blood clots within the vaginal vault. Transvaginal ultrasound shows an empty gestational sac. The patient is worried about undergoing invasive procedures. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

a 34-year-old G2P2 woman presents to her obstetrician because of new onset discharge from her breast. She first noticed it in her bra a few days ago, but now she notes that at times she's soaking through to her blouse, which is mortifying. She was also concerned about being pregnant because she has not gotten her period in 3 months. In the office ß-HCG is negative. The patient's nipple discharge is guaiac negative. Which of the following therapies is most appropriate?

A 24-year-old G1P0 presents to her obstetrician at 26 weeks’ gestation complaining of worsening headaches and blurry vision. Her past medical history is notable for hypertension and diabetes mellitus. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 18/min. On physical exam, she is tender to palpation in her abdomen and has mild edema in her extremities. A urine dipstick demonstrates 3+ protein. The patient is immediately started on IV magnesium sulfate, diazepam, and a medication that affects both a- and ß-adrenergic receptors. Which of the following medications is most consistent with this mechanism of action?