A 28-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation seeks evaluation at her obstetrician’s office with complaints of a severe headache, blurred vision, and vomiting for the past 2 days. Her pregnancy has been otherwise uneventful. The past medical history is unremarkable. The blood pressure is 195/150 mm Hg and the pulse is 88/min. On examination, moderate pitting edema is present in her ankles. The urinalysis is normal except for 3+ proteinuria. The obstetrician orders a complete blood count (CBC), liver function tests (LFTs), creatinine, and a coagulation profile. The obstetrician transfers her to the hospital by ambulance for expectant management. Which of the following medications would be most helpful for this patient?
Q202
A 32-year-old woman presents to clinic complaining of pelvic pain and heavy menstrual bleeding for the past 2 years. The patient reports that her last menstrual period was 1 week ago and she soaked through 1 tampon every 1-2 hours during that time. She does not take any medications and denies alcohol and cigarette use. She is currently trying to have a child with her husband. She works as a school teacher and exercises regularly. Her temperature is 97.0°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 122/80 mmHg, pulse is 93/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical examination reveals an enlarged, irregularly-shaped uterus palpable at the level of the umbilicus. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 9.0 g/dL
Hematocrit: 29%
MCV: 70 fL
Leukocyte count: 4,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 188,000/mm^3
Urine:
hCG: Negative
Blood: Negative
Leukocytes: Negative
Bacteria: Negative
Which of the following is the most effective treatment for this patient?
Q203
A 26-year-old primigravida presents to her physician’s office at 35 weeks gestation with new onset lower leg edema. The course of her pregnancy was uneventful up to the time of presentation and she has been compliant with the recommended prenatal care. She reports a 4 pack-year history of smoking prior to her pregnancy. She also used oral contraceptives for birth control before considering the pregnancy. Prior to pregnancy, she weighed 52 kg (114.6 lb). She gained 11 kg (24.3 lb) during the pregnancy thus far, and 2 kg (4.4 lb) during the last 2 weeks. Her height is 169 cm (5 ft 7 in). She has a family history of hypertension in her mother (diagnosed at 46 years of age) and aunt (diagnosed at 51 years of age). The blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg, the heart rate is 91/min, the respiratory rate is 15/min, and the temperature is 36.6℃ (97.9℉). The blood pressure is unchanged 15 minutes and 4 hours after the initial measurement. The fetal heart rate is 144/min. The examination is remarkable for 2+ pitting lower leg edema. The neurologic examination shows no focality. A urine dipstick test shows 2+ proteinuria. Which of the following factors is a risk factor for her condition?
Q204
A 27-year-old G1P0 presents to her obstetrician for her normal 30-week obstetric appointment. She reports that she feels well and has no complaints. Her past medical history is notable for intermittent asthma. Her only medications are prenatal vitamins. She has gained 10 pounds, more than expected given her current stage of pregnancy. Abdominal ultrasound reveals the presence of twins with separate amniotic sacs that share a common chorion and placenta. During which time interval following fertilization did embryonic division occur to result in this twin configuration?
Q205
A previously healthy 18-year-old woman comes to the emergency department for evaluation of intractable vomiting and uterine cramping. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. Serum β-human chorionic gonadotropin concentration is 170,000 mIU/mL. A transvaginal ultrasound shows a complex intrauterine mass with numerous anechoic spaces and multiple ovarian cysts. The patient undergoes dilation and curettage, which shows hydropic villi with diffuse, circumferential trophoblastic proliferation. Karyotype analysis of the specimen is most likely to show which of the following?
Q206
A 48-year-old woman presents to the emergency department because of increasingly severe right upper abdominal pain, fever, and non-bloody vomiting for the last 5 hours. The pain is dull, intermittent, and radiates to her right shoulder. During the past 3 months, she has had recurring abdominal discomfort after meals. The patient underwent an appendectomy more than 30 years ago. She has hypertension, diabetes mellitus type 2, and chronic back pain. She takes bisoprolol, metformin, and ibuprofen daily. She is 171 cm (5 ft 6 in) tall and weighs 99 kg (218 lb). Her BMI is 35.2 kg/m2. She appears uncomfortable and is clutching her abdomen. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 108/min, and blood pressure is 150/82 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows right upper quadrant abdominal tenderness and guarding. Upon deep palpation of the right upper quadrant, the patient pauses during inspiration. Laboratory studies show the following:
Blood
Hemoglobin 13.1 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,900/mm3
Platelet count 236,000/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 89/µm3
Serum
Urea nitrogen 28 mg/dL
Glucose 89 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.7 mg/dL
Bilirubin
Total 1.6 mg/dL
Direct 1.1 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 79 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 28 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 32 U/L
An X-ray of the abdomen shows no abnormalities. Further evaluation of the patient is most likely to reveal which of the following?
Q207
A 24-year-old female comes to the physician for evaluation of a delayed menstrual period and intermittent lower abdominal pain for 2 days. Menarche occurred at the age of 12 years, and menses have occurred at regular 28-day intervals. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. Two years ago, she was treated for chlamydia infection. Pelvic examination shows a soft, mildly enlarged uterus. Endometrial biopsy shows decidualization of the endometrium without chorionic villi. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q208
A 30-year-old woman presents to her new doctor at 27 weeks' gestation with her second pregnancy. Her blood type is B- and the father of the child is B+. Her first child had an Apgar score of 7 at 1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes and has a B+ blood type. The fetus has a heart rate of 130/min and blood pressure of 100/58 mm Hg. There is a concern that the fetus may develop erythroblastosis fetalis (EF). Which of the following statements is true about erythroblastosis fetalis?
Q209
A 31-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist to be evaluated for her inability to conceive. She is G1P0 who has a 28-day cycle and no menstrual abnormalities. Her single pregnancy terminated early with an elective abortion at the patient’s request. She had several sexual partners before meeting her husband 5 years ago. They have intercourse regularly without the use of contraception and have been tracking her ovulation cycle to try to become pregnant for at least 1 year. She reports a history of occasional malodorous vaginal discharge and mild lower abdominal pain after menses and sexual intercourse, but she notes no such symptoms recently. Her husband’s spermogram was normal. Her weight is 65 kg (143 lb) and the height is 160 cm (5 ft, 3 in). On examination, the patient’s vital signs are within normal limits. The physical examination is unremarkable. On pelvic examination, the adnexa are slightly tender to palpation bilaterally. Which of the following tests is the most reasonable to be performed next in this patient?
Q210
A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because she has not had a menstrual period for 3 months. Menarche occurred at the age of 12 years and menses occurred at regular 30-day intervals until they became irregular 1 year ago. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 85 kg (187 lb); BMI is 33.2 kg/m2. Physical exam shows nodules and pustules along the jaw line and dark hair growth around the umbilicus. Pelvic examination shows a normal-sized, retroverted uterus. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Without treatment, this patient is at greatest risk for which of the following?
High-risk pregnancies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 201: A 28-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation seeks evaluation at her obstetrician’s office with complaints of a severe headache, blurred vision, and vomiting for the past 2 days. Her pregnancy has been otherwise uneventful. The past medical history is unremarkable. The blood pressure is 195/150 mm Hg and the pulse is 88/min. On examination, moderate pitting edema is present in her ankles. The urinalysis is normal except for 3+ proteinuria. The obstetrician orders a complete blood count (CBC), liver function tests (LFTs), creatinine, and a coagulation profile. The obstetrician transfers her to the hospital by ambulance for expectant management. Which of the following medications would be most helpful for this patient?
A. Olmesartan
B. Lisinopril
C. Nifedipine (Correct Answer)
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
E. Metoprolol
Explanation: ***Nifedipine***
- The patient presents with **severe preeclampsia** (hypertension, proteinuria, and symptoms like headache and blurred vision), necessitating immediate **blood pressure reduction**. [1]
- **Nifedipine** is a **calcium channel blocker** that is effective and safe for acute blood pressure control in pregnancy, and is a first-line agent in this context. [1]
*Olmesartan*
- **Olmesartan** is an **angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)**, which is **contraindicated in pregnancy** due to the risk of fetal renal toxicity and other adverse outcomes.
- ARBs can cause **fetal growth restriction**, oligohydramnios, and neonatal renal failure during the second and third trimesters.
*Lisinopril*
- **Lisinopril** is an **ACE inhibitor**, which, like ARBs, is **contraindicated in pregnancy** due to its teratogenic effects, particularly in the second and third trimesters.
- It can lead to **fetal renal dysfunction**, oligohydramnios, and other severe birth defects.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- **Hydrochlorothiazide** is a **thiazide diuretic**; while sometimes used in chronic hypertension in pregnancy, it is **not appropriate for acute, severe hypertension** in preeclampsia.
- Diuretics can reduce maternal intravascular volume, which is already compromised in preeclampsia, potentially worsening placental perfusion and fetal well-being.
*Metoprolol*
- **Metoprolol** is a **beta-blocker** sometimes used for chronic hypertension in pregnancy, but it may not be the optimal choice for **acute, severe hypertension** in preeclampsia.
- While generally considered safe, it can be associated with **fetal growth restriction** and **neonatal bradycardia** or hypoglycemia, and other agents like nifedipine or labetalol are often preferred for acute management.
Question 202: A 32-year-old woman presents to clinic complaining of pelvic pain and heavy menstrual bleeding for the past 2 years. The patient reports that her last menstrual period was 1 week ago and she soaked through 1 tampon every 1-2 hours during that time. She does not take any medications and denies alcohol and cigarette use. She is currently trying to have a child with her husband. She works as a school teacher and exercises regularly. Her temperature is 97.0°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 122/80 mmHg, pulse is 93/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical examination reveals an enlarged, irregularly-shaped uterus palpable at the level of the umbilicus. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 9.0 g/dL
Hematocrit: 29%
MCV: 70 fL
Leukocyte count: 4,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 188,000/mm^3
Urine:
hCG: Negative
Blood: Negative
Leukocytes: Negative
Bacteria: Negative
Which of the following is the most effective treatment for this patient?
A. Iron
B. Hysterectomy
C. Folate
D. Oral contraceptive pills
E. Myomectomy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Myomectomy***
- The patient's presentation of **heavy menstrual bleeding**, an **enlarged, irregularly-shaped uterus**, and **iron-deficiency anemia** is consistent with **uterine leiomyomas (fibroids)**. Given her desire for future fertility, **myomectomy** is the most effective treatment as it removes the fibroids while preserving the uterus.
- This procedure directly addresses the cause of her symptoms (fibroids) and allows her to try for conception, unlike hysterectomy.
*Iron*
- While the patient has **iron-deficiency anemia** due to heavy bleeding, **iron supplementation alone** would only address the anemia symptomatically, not the underlying cause of the bleeding.
- Without treating the source of her heavy menstrual bleeding, the anemia would likely recur even with iron therapy.
*Hysterectomy*
- **Hysterectomy** would definitively stop the bleeding and treat the fibroids, but it is a **definitive surgical procedure** that removes the uterus, making future pregnancy impossible.
- This option is unsuitable for a patient who is actively trying to conceive.
*Folate*
- **Folate** is essential for red blood cell production, but the patient's anemia is classified as **microcytic (MCV 70 fL)**, which is characteristic of **iron deficiency**, not folate deficiency (which typically causes macrocytic anemia).
- Folate supplementation would not correct her iron-deficiency anemia or address the underlying uterine fibroids.
*Oral contraceptive pills*
- **Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)** can help reduce menstrual blood loss by thinning the endometrial lining and regulating the menstrual cycle.
- However, they are **less effective than surgical options** for large or symptomatic fibroids causing severe bleeding and would prevent conception while in use.
Question 203: A 26-year-old primigravida presents to her physician’s office at 35 weeks gestation with new onset lower leg edema. The course of her pregnancy was uneventful up to the time of presentation and she has been compliant with the recommended prenatal care. She reports a 4 pack-year history of smoking prior to her pregnancy. She also used oral contraceptives for birth control before considering the pregnancy. Prior to pregnancy, she weighed 52 kg (114.6 lb). She gained 11 kg (24.3 lb) during the pregnancy thus far, and 2 kg (4.4 lb) during the last 2 weeks. Her height is 169 cm (5 ft 7 in). She has a family history of hypertension in her mother (diagnosed at 46 years of age) and aunt (diagnosed at 51 years of age). The blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg, the heart rate is 91/min, the respiratory rate is 15/min, and the temperature is 36.6℃ (97.9℉). The blood pressure is unchanged 15 minutes and 4 hours after the initial measurement. The fetal heart rate is 144/min. The examination is remarkable for 2+ pitting lower leg edema. The neurologic examination shows no focality. A urine dipstick test shows 2+ proteinuria. Which of the following factors is a risk factor for her condition?
A. Primigravida (Correct Answer)
B. Oral contraceptives intake
C. BMI < 18.5 kg/m2 prior to pregnancy
D. Smoking prior to pregnancy
E. Family history of hypertension
Explanation: *Primigravida*
- **Nulliparity** (being a primigravida) is a significant risk factor for **preeclampsia**, the condition described by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation.
- The risk of **preeclampsia** is typically highest in women experiencing their first pregnancy.
*Oral contraceptives intake*
- Past use of **oral contraceptives** is not associated with an increased risk of developing **preeclampsia**.
- Some studies suggest that prior use of combined oral contraceptives might even be associated with a *reduced* risk of preeclampsia, though this is not a consistent finding.
*BMI < 18.5 kg/m2 prior to pregnancy*
- This patient's pre-pregnancy BMI is 18.2 kg/m², indicating she was **underweight** (BMI < 18.5 kg/m²).
- **Underweight** status prior to pregnancy is generally *not* considered a risk factor for preeclampsia; rather, **obesity** (BMI > 30 kg/m²) is a known risk factor.
*Smoking prior to pregnancy*
- Smoking is generally harmful during pregnancy, but surprisingly, current **smoking** has been associated with a *reduced* risk of preeclampsia.
- While the patient has a history of smoking, it was prior to pregnancy and she is not currently smoking, and even active smoking is protective rather than a risk factor for preeclampsia.
*Family history of hypertension*
- While a family history of **essential hypertension** (chronic hypertension) is present (mother at 46, aunt at 51), it is *not* a direct risk factor for **preeclampsia**.
- The main genetic risk factor for preeclampsia is a family history of preeclampsia itself, not general hypertension.
Question 204: A 27-year-old G1P0 presents to her obstetrician for her normal 30-week obstetric appointment. She reports that she feels well and has no complaints. Her past medical history is notable for intermittent asthma. Her only medications are prenatal vitamins. She has gained 10 pounds, more than expected given her current stage of pregnancy. Abdominal ultrasound reveals the presence of twins with separate amniotic sacs that share a common chorion and placenta. During which time interval following fertilization did embryonic division occur to result in this twin configuration?
A. Days 9-12
B. Days 4-8 (Correct Answer)
C. Days 13-15
D. Days 1-3
E. Day 16+
Explanation: ***Days 4-8***
- The ultrasound finding of **diamniotic, monochorionic (DiMo)** twins indicates that **embryonic division** occurred between days 4 and 8 after fertilization.
- At this stage, the **inner cell mass splits** after the **chorion has formed**, leading to two fetuses sharing a single chorion and placenta but having separate amniotic sacs.
*Days 9-12*
- Division during this period (days 9-12) would lead to **monoamniotic, monochorionic (MoMo) twins**, meaning both fetuses would share the same amniotic sac and chorion, which is not the case here.
- This late division carries a higher risk of complications such as **cord entanglement**.
*Days 13-15*
- Division after day 12 or 13 typically results in **conjoined twins**, due to incomplete separation of the embryonic disc.
- This rare outcome is distinctly different from the described **diamniotic-monochorionic** presentation.
*Days 1-3*
- Early division between days 1 and 3 after fertilization, usually at the **2-cell to morula stage**, results in **dichorionic, diamniotic (DiDi) twins**, where each twin has its own chorion, amnion, and placenta.
- This configuration is developmentally distinct from the **monochorionic** setup described in the question.
*Day 16+*
- Division very late in development, beyond day 15, is not compatible with the formation of viable twins and would instead lead to **severe developmental abnormalities** or **failed pregnancies**.
- The window for successful twin cleavage closes well before this stage.
Question 205: A previously healthy 18-year-old woman comes to the emergency department for evaluation of intractable vomiting and uterine cramping. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. Serum β-human chorionic gonadotropin concentration is 170,000 mIU/mL. A transvaginal ultrasound shows a complex intrauterine mass with numerous anechoic spaces and multiple ovarian cysts. The patient undergoes dilation and curettage, which shows hydropic villi with diffuse, circumferential trophoblastic proliferation. Karyotype analysis of the specimen is most likely to show which of the following?
A. 46,XY of both maternal and paternal origin
B. 69,XXY of paternal origin only
C. 46,XX of paternal origin only (Correct Answer)
D. 69,XYY of both maternal and paternal origin
E. 46,XX of maternal origin only
Explanation: ***46,XX of paternal origin only***
- The clinical presentation, including the **high β-hCG**, **intractable vomiting**, **uterine cramping**, and **ultrasound findings** of a complex intrauterine mass with anechoic spaces and ovarian cysts, is highly suggestive of a **complete hydatidiform mole**.
- **Complete hydatidiform moles** typically have a **46,XX karyotype** where both sets of chromosomes are derived solely from a single sperm (which duplicates its chromosomes) or two different sperm fertilizing an "empty" ovum, with the vast majority being **exclusively paternal in origin**.
*46,XY of both maternal and paternal origin*
- This karyotype would represent a normal male conception with both maternal and paternal genetic contributions.
- This is inconsistent with the presented clinical features of a molar pregnancy, which involves abnormal trophoblastic proliferation and fetal absence.
*69,XXY of paternal origin only*
- A 69,XXY karyotype is indicative of a **triploid pregnancy**, which could result in a partial hydatidiform mole, but would involve both maternal and paternal genetic contributions (often one ovum fertilized by two sperm).
- The description of "paternal origin only" for a triploid karyotype is inconsistent with the typical mechanism of triploidy.
*69,XYY of both maternal and paternal origin*
- This karyotype also represents a **triploid pregnancy**, often associated with a **partial hydatidiform mole**, where there is some fetal tissue alongside abnormal trophoblasts.
- The presented clinical findings (extremely high β-hCG, diffuse trophoblastic proliferation, no fetal parts) are more characteristic of a complete mole, not a partial mole or normal triploidy.
*46,XX of maternal origin only*
- A 46,XX karyotype of maternal origin only would result from **parthenogenesis**, where an ovum develops without fertilization.
- This scenario would typically not lead to a viable pregnancy or the development of a hydatidiform mole, which requires paternal genetic material for trophoblast development.
Question 206: A 48-year-old woman presents to the emergency department because of increasingly severe right upper abdominal pain, fever, and non-bloody vomiting for the last 5 hours. The pain is dull, intermittent, and radiates to her right shoulder. During the past 3 months, she has had recurring abdominal discomfort after meals. The patient underwent an appendectomy more than 30 years ago. She has hypertension, diabetes mellitus type 2, and chronic back pain. She takes bisoprolol, metformin, and ibuprofen daily. She is 171 cm (5 ft 6 in) tall and weighs 99 kg (218 lb). Her BMI is 35.2 kg/m2. She appears uncomfortable and is clutching her abdomen. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 108/min, and blood pressure is 150/82 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows right upper quadrant abdominal tenderness and guarding. Upon deep palpation of the right upper quadrant, the patient pauses during inspiration. Laboratory studies show the following:
Blood
Hemoglobin 13.1 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,900/mm3
Platelet count 236,000/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 89/µm3
Serum
Urea nitrogen 28 mg/dL
Glucose 89 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.7 mg/dL
Bilirubin
Total 1.6 mg/dL
Direct 1.1 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 79 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 28 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 32 U/L
An X-ray of the abdomen shows no abnormalities. Further evaluation of the patient is most likely to reveal which of the following?
A. History of recent travel to Indonesia
B. Frequent, high-pitched bowel sounds on auscultation
C. History of multiple past pregnancies (Correct Answer)
D. Elevated carbohydrate-deficient transferrin
E. History of recurrent sexually transmitted infections
Explanation: ***History of multiple past pregnancies***
- This patient's symptoms (right upper quadrant pain radiating to the shoulder, guarding, positive Murphy's sign on deep palpation) along with fever and leukocytosis are highly suggestive of **acute cholecystitis**, likely due to gallstones.
- The "5 F's" risk factors for gallstones include **fat, female, forty, fertile (multiple pregnancies), and fair**, making a history of multiple pregnancies a highly relevant finding in this clinical context.
*History of recent travel to Indonesia*
- Recent travel to certain regions, including Indonesia, might increase the risk of certain **infectious diarrheal diseases** or **parasitic infections** that could cause abdominal pain.
- However, the classic symptoms and signs presented in the patient (RUQ pain, radiation to shoulder, positive Murphy's, fever, leukocytosis) are not typical for travel-related infections and point more strongly to biliary pathology.
*Frequent, high-pitched bowel sounds on auscultation*
- **High-pitched bowel sounds** are often associated with **bowel obstruction**, indicating hyperperistalsis above the obstruction point trying to push contents forward.
- This patient's presentation is consistent with acute cholecystitis, not bowel obstruction, and her abdominal X-ray was normal, making bowel obstruction less likely.
*Elevated carbohydrate-deficient transferrin*
- **Carbohydrate-deficient transferrin (CDT)** is a biomarker primarily used to detect **chronic excessive alcohol consumption**.
- While chronic alcohol use can contribute to various gastrointestinal issues (e.g., pancreatitis, liver disease), this patient's presentation is not typical of alcohol-related illness, and elevated CDT would not directly explain her acute cholecystitis symptoms.
*History of recurrent sexually transmitted infections*
- A history of recurrent sexually transmitted infections (STIs) might be relevant for conditions like **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)**, which can sometimes cause right upper quadrant pain if it leads to **Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome** (perihepatitis).
- However, the patient's presentation with classic signs of cholecystitis (Murphy's sign, radiation to shoulder, risk factors) along with elevated total and direct bilirubin, is much more indicative of biliary disease than an STI-related complication.
Question 207: A 24-year-old female comes to the physician for evaluation of a delayed menstrual period and intermittent lower abdominal pain for 2 days. Menarche occurred at the age of 12 years, and menses have occurred at regular 28-day intervals. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. Two years ago, she was treated for chlamydia infection. Pelvic examination shows a soft, mildly enlarged uterus. Endometrial biopsy shows decidualization of the endometrium without chorionic villi. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Empty ovum fertilized by two sperm
B. Fertilized ovum outside the uterus (Correct Answer)
C. Benign proliferation of myometrial smooth muscle
D. Endometrial infiltration by plasma cells
E. Ectopic endometrial tissue
Explanation: ***Fertilized ovum outside the uterus***
- This scenario points to an **ectopic pregnancy** due to the delayed menstrual period, intermittent abdominal pain, a history of **chlamydia infection** (a risk factor for tubal damage), and decidualization of the endometrium without chorionic villi.
- Endometrial decidualization without chorionic villi indicates a pregnancy has occurred, but the gestational sac is not within the uterus, confirming an extrauterine implantation.
*Empty ovum fertilized by two sperm*
- This describes a **partial hydatidiform mole**, which would typically feature **enlarged, edematous chorionic villi** mixed with fetal tissue, not mere decidualization without chorionic villi.
- Patients with partial moles usually present with a positive pregnancy test and uterine enlargement, sometimes larger than expected for gestational age.
*Benign proliferation of myometrial smooth muscle*
- This describes a **leiomyoma (fibroid)**, which is a benign uterine tumor and generally presents with heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic pressure, or infertility, not acute intermittent abdominal pain in the context of a delayed period and decidualized endometrium.
- Fibroids do not cause decidual changes in the endometrium or mimic signs of pregnancy.
*Endometrial infiltration by plasma cells*
- This finding is characteristic of **chronic endometritis**, which could cause recurrent pregnancy loss or abnormal uterine bleeding, but it does not explain the delayed period, intermittent pain, and decidualization in this context.
- Chronic endometritis is typically associated with infections and inflammation of the endometrium.
*Ectopic endometrial tissue*
- This describes **endometriosis**, a condition where endometrial-like tissue grows outside the uterus, causing pelvic pain (often cyclic), dysmenorrhea, and infertility.
- While it can cause pelvic pain, it does not explain a delayed period with decidual changes consistent with an ongoing pregnancy.
Question 208: A 30-year-old woman presents to her new doctor at 27 weeks' gestation with her second pregnancy. Her blood type is B- and the father of the child is B+. Her first child had an Apgar score of 7 at 1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes and has a B+ blood type. The fetus has a heart rate of 130/min and blood pressure of 100/58 mm Hg. There is a concern that the fetus may develop erythroblastosis fetalis (EF). Which of the following statements is true about erythroblastosis fetalis?
A. The first child will always be affected, as well as all subsequent pregnancies.
B. The combination of an Rh-positive mother and an Rh-negative fetus will cause the condition.
C. Rho(D) immune globulin should be administered during the first trimester.
D. Can occur with an Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father. (Correct Answer)
E. In EF, IgM crosses the placenta and causes erythrocyte hemolysis in the fetus.
Explanation: ***Can occur with an Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father.***
- **Erythroblastosis fetalis (EF)**, also known as **hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)**, primarily occurs when an **Rh-negative mother** carries an **Rh-positive fetus**, leading to maternal alloimmunization.
- The Rh-positive father is the source of the Rh-positive antigen for the fetus, creating the incompatibility when combined with an Rh-negative mother.
*The first child will always be affected, as well as all subsequent pregnancies.*
- The **first pregnancy** with an Rh-positive fetus is typically **unaffected** because the mother's immune system usually hasn't had sufficient time to produce enough anti-Rh antibodies.
- Subsequent Rh-positive pregnancies are at risk if the mother has been sensitized, and not all subsequent pregnancies will necessarily be affected if proper prophylaxis is administered.
*The combination of an Rh-positive mother and an Rh-negative fetus will cause the condition.*
- This statement is incorrect; **EF** occurs when an **Rh-negative mother** is exposed to **Rh-positive fetal blood**, leading to an immune response.
- An Rh-positive mother carrying an Rh-negative fetus does not lead to this condition because the mother's immune system will not produce antibodies against the Rh-negative blood type.
*Rho(D) immune globulin should be administered during the first trimester.*
- **Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)** is typically administered around **28 weeks' gestation** in an Rh-negative pregnant woman, and again within **72 hours postpartum** if the infant is Rh-positive.
- Administration during the first trimester is generally not indicated unless there is a specific sensitizing event, such as an abortion or ectopic pregnancy.
*In EF, IgM crosses the placenta and causes erythrocyte hemolysis in the fetus.*
- **IgM antibodies** are **too large** to cross the placenta; instead, it is **IgG antibodies** (specifically anti-D IgG) produced by the sensitized mother that cross the placenta.
- These IgG antibodies then bind to the Rh-positive red blood cells of the fetus, leading to **hemolysis** and the symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis.
Question 209: A 31-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist to be evaluated for her inability to conceive. She is G1P0 who has a 28-day cycle and no menstrual abnormalities. Her single pregnancy terminated early with an elective abortion at the patient’s request. She had several sexual partners before meeting her husband 5 years ago. They have intercourse regularly without the use of contraception and have been tracking her ovulation cycle to try to become pregnant for at least 1 year. She reports a history of occasional malodorous vaginal discharge and mild lower abdominal pain after menses and sexual intercourse, but she notes no such symptoms recently. Her husband’s spermogram was normal. Her weight is 65 kg (143 lb) and the height is 160 cm (5 ft, 3 in). On examination, the patient’s vital signs are within normal limits. The physical examination is unremarkable. On pelvic examination, the adnexa are slightly tender to palpation bilaterally. Which of the following tests is the most reasonable to be performed next in this patient?
A. Test for anti-Mullerian hormone
B. Post-coital testing of cervical mucus
C. Hysterosalpingography (Correct Answer)
D. Pelvic MRI
E. Exploratory laparoscopy
Explanation: ***Hysterosalpingography***
- The patient's history of **pelvic inflammatory-like symptoms** (vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain after menses and intercourse) in the past, combined with bilateral adnexal tenderness, strongly suggests potential **tubal factor infertility**.
- **Hysterosalpingography (HSG)** is the gold standard for evaluating **tubal patency** and assessing the uterine cavity, making it the most reasonable next step given the suspicion of tubal damage.
*Test for anti-Mullerian hormone*
- **Anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH)** levels are used to assess **ovarian reserve**, which is important in infertility workups.
- However, given the patient's regular 28-day cycle and lack of other symptoms suggesting ovarian dysfunction, direct evaluation of tubal patency is more immediately indicated.
*Post-coital testing of cervical mucus*
- **Post-coital testing** evaluates the interaction between sperm and cervical mucus shortly after intercourse.
- This test is largely considered **obsolete** in current infertility guidelines due to its limited predictive value and the availability of more reliable diagnostic methods.
*Pelvic MRI*
- A **pelvic MRI** provides detailed anatomical imaging of the pelvic organs.
- While it can identify structural abnormalities, it is **not the primary diagnostic test for tubal patency** and is typically reserved for more complex cases or when other imaging is inconclusive.
*Exploratory laparoscopy*
- **Exploratory laparoscopy** is an invasive surgical procedure that allows direct visualization of pelvic organs and can diagnose and treat conditions like endometriosis or adhesions affecting the fallopian tubes.
- It is typically considered a **later step** in the infertility workup, after less invasive tests like HSG have failed to provide a diagnosis or when there's a strong suspicion of conditions like endometriosis not picked up by other means.
Question 210: A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because she has not had a menstrual period for 3 months. Menarche occurred at the age of 12 years and menses occurred at regular 30-day intervals until they became irregular 1 year ago. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 85 kg (187 lb); BMI is 33.2 kg/m2. Physical exam shows nodules and pustules along the jaw line and dark hair growth around the umbilicus. Pelvic examination shows a normal-sized, retroverted uterus. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Without treatment, this patient is at greatest risk for which of the following?
A. Choriocarcinoma
B. Mature cystic teratoma
C. Endometrial carcinoma (Correct Answer)
D. Endometrioma
E. Cervical carcinoma
Explanation: ***Endometrial carcinoma***
- The patient's presentation including **amenorrhea**, **obesity** (BMI 33.2 kg/m²), **hirsutism** (dark hair around the umbilicus), and **acne** (nodules and pustules along the jawline) strongly suggests **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)**.
- In PCOS, chronic anovulation leads to unopposed **estrogen stimulation** of the endometrium, increasing the risk of **endometrial hyperplasia** and subsequently **endometrial carcinoma**.
*Choriocarcinoma*
- This is a rare, aggressive form of **gestational trophoblastic disease** that typically develops after a **hydatidiform mole** or pregnancy.
- The patient's negative pregnancy test and lack of prior abnormal pregnancy rule out this condition.
*Mature cystic teratoma*
- This is a common **benign ovarian tumor** that contains mature tissues from all three germ layers.
- It does not typically cause **amenorrhea** or symptoms of **hyperandrogenism** like those described.
*Endometrioma*
- This is a type of **endometriosis** where endometrial tissue grows on the ovaries, forming blood-filled "chocolate cysts."
- While it can cause pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea, it is not associated with **amenorrhea** or the **hyperandrogenic** features seen in this patient.
*Cervical carcinoma*
- This type of cancer is primarily caused by **Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection** and is usually diagnosed through Pap smears.
- The patient's symptoms are not characteristic of cervical cancer, which typically presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding or postcoital bleeding.