A 32-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her primary care physician’s office with a chief complaint of excessive facial and arm hair. On further questioning, she reveals that in the past year, she has often gone more than 3 months without menstruating. On exam she is well-appearing; her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 60/min, and BMI is 30 kg/m^2. Labwork confirms the suspected diagnosis. What is the best initial treatment (Rx) for this disease AND what other comorbid conditions (CC) should be tested for at this time?
Q192
A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 0, at 8 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. The previous pregnancies ended in spontaneous abortion between the 8th and 10th week of gestation. She feels well but is worried about having another miscarriage. She has no history of serious illness. Previous gynecologic evaluations showed no abnormalities. The patient takes a daily prenatal multivitamin. Her temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 85/min, and blood pressure is 125/85 mm Hg. Examination shows a violaceous, reticular rash on the lower extremities.
Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 5,200/mm3
Platelet count 120,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 13 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time 49 seconds
Serum
Na+ 140 mEq/L
K+ 4.4 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 12 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
AST 20 U/L
ALT 15 U/L
Anti-beta 2 glycoprotein-1 antibody positive
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q193
A 56-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of progressive weakness. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a violaceous rash over her eyelids and flat-topped erythematous papules over the dorsal surface of interphalangeal joints. Muscle strength is 4/5 at the shoulders and hips but normal elsewhere. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following conditions?
Q194
A 23-year-old woman with a past medical history significant for cardiac palpitations and hypothyroidism presents with cyclical lower abdominal pain and pelvic pain. Upon further questioning, she endorses difficulty conceiving over the last 12 months. On a review of systems, she endorses occasional pain with intercourse, which has become more frequent over the last 6 months. On physical examination, her heart and lungs are clear to auscultation, her abdomen has mild tenderness in the lower quadrants, and she shows normal range of motion in her extremities. Given the patient’s desire to conceive, what is the most definitive treatment for her presumed condition?
Q195
A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 31 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department because of confusion. Three days ago, she developed diffuse abdominal pain, malaise, nausea, and vomiting. She has a 2-year history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Four months ago, she spent 2 weeks in Belize for her honeymoon. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by preeclampsia, which was terminated by induction of labor at 37 weeks' gestation. Her only medication is esomeprazole. She appears tired. Her temperature is 38°C (100°F), pulse is 82/min, respirations are 19/min, and blood pressure is 118/79 mm Hg. She responds to sound and communicates in short sentences. Examination shows yellowish discoloration of the sclera and abdominal distention. There is tenderness to palpation of the right upper quadrant. When she is asked to hold her hands in extension, there is a notable flapping tremor. Her uterus is consistent in size with a 31-week gestation. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 26%
Platelet count 90,000/mm3
Leukocyte count 10,500/mm3
Prothrombin time (PT) 34 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 48 seconds
Serum
Total protein 5.0 g/dL
Albumin 2.6 g/dL
Glucose 62 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.1 mg/dL
Bilirubin, total 9.2 mg/dL
Indirect 4.2 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase 445 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase 485 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase 36 U/L
Anti-HAV IgM antibody negative
Anti-HAV IgG antibody positive
HBsAG negative
Anti-HBs antibody positive
Anti-HBc antibody negative
Anti-HCV antibody negative
Urine studies show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q196
A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain. She has a history of tubal ligation 3 years ago and a history of chlamydia treated 15 years ago. She usually has very regular periods, but her last menstrual period was 10 weeks ago. On exam, she is afebrile, HR 117, blood pressure of 88/56 mmHg, and she has peritoneal signs including rebound tenderness. Urine Beta-hCG is positive. Hgb is 9.9 g/dL. What is the appropriate treatment?
Q197
A 58-year-old woman with a past medical history significant for major depressive disorder and generalized anxiety syndrome presents after having undergone menopause 3 years earlier. Today, she complains of intolerable hot flashes and irritability at work and at home. The remainder of the review of systems is negative. Physical examination reveals a grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex, clear breath sounds, and normal abdominal findings. Her vital signs are all within normal limits. She requests hormonal replacement therapy (HRT) for the relief of her symptoms. Which of the following additional pieces of past medical history would make HRT contraindicated in this patient?
Q198
A 34-year-old woman presents to the fertility clinic with her husband for infertility workup. The patient reports that they have been having unprotected intercourse for 14 months without any successful pregnancy. She is G1P1, with 1 child from a previous marriage. Her menstrual cycle is regular and without pain. Physical and pelvic examinations are unremarkable. The husband denies erectile dysfunction, decrease in libido, or other concerns. A physical examination of the husband demonstrates tall long extremities and bilateral hard nodules behind the areola. What abnormality would you most likely find in the husband?
Q199
A 28-year-old woman visits her physician with complaints of inability to become pregnant despite frequent unprotected sexual intercourse with her husband for over a year. She breastfed her only child until about 13 months ago, when the couple decided to have a second child. Over the past year, the patient has had only 4 episodes of menstrual bleeding. She reports occasional milk discharge from both breasts. Her only medication currently is daily pantoprazole, which she takes for dyspepsia. Her BMI is 29 kg/m2. Physical examination and vitals are normal. Pelvic examination indicates no abnormalities. The patient’s breast examination reveals full breasts and a few drops of milk can be expressed from both nipples. Estradiol, serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), testosterone, and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are within the normal range. Which of the following best explains these findings?
Q200
A 35-year-old G0P0000 presents to her gynecologist with complaints of irregular menstruation. She has had only two periods in the last year. She also endorses feeling flushed without provocation and experiencing occasional dyspareunia with post-coital spotting. In addition, she has also had more frequent headaches than usual. The patient has a past medical history of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and takes levothyroxine daily. Her mother has type I diabetes mellitus. At this visit, the patient’s temperature is 98.5°F (36.9°C), pulse is 70/min, blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, and respirations are 13/min. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal exams are unremarkable. The patient has Tanner V breasts and pubic hair. Pelvic exam reveals a normal cervix, anteverted uterus without tenderness, and no adnexal masses. The following laboratory studies are performed:
Serum:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH): 28 µIU/mL (9-30 µIU/mL)
Cycle day 3 follicle stimulating hormone (FSH): 49 mIU/mL (4.7-21.5 mIU/mL)
Cycle day 3 estradiol: 8 pg/mL (27-123 pg/mL)
Prolactin: 14 ng/mL (4-23 ng/mL)
Testosterone: 42 ng/dL (15-70 ng/dL)
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
High-risk pregnancies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: A 32-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her primary care physician’s office with a chief complaint of excessive facial and arm hair. On further questioning, she reveals that in the past year, she has often gone more than 3 months without menstruating. On exam she is well-appearing; her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 60/min, and BMI is 30 kg/m^2. Labwork confirms the suspected diagnosis. What is the best initial treatment (Rx) for this disease AND what other comorbid conditions (CC) should be tested for at this time?
A. Rx: Weight loss, CC: Infertility and insulin resistance
B. Rx: Combined oral contraceptives, CC: Infertility and insulin resistance
C. Rx: Weight loss, CC: Infertility and lipid dysfunction
D. Rx: Combined oral contraceptives, CC: Insulin resistance and lipid dysfunction
E. Rx: Weight loss, CC: Insulin resistance and lipid dysfunction (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Weight loss, CC: Insulin resistance and lipid dysfunction***
- This patient presents with symptoms consistent with **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)**: **hirsutism** (excessive facial and arm hair), **oligomenorrhea** (missing periods for 3 months), and **obesity** (BMI 30 kg/m^2).
- **Weight loss** is the first-line treatment for overweight and obese women with PCOS, as it can improve hormonal imbalances, menstrual regularity, and fertility, and it also addresses the associated metabolic complications like **insulin resistance** and **lipid dysfunction**, which should be tested for.
*Combined oral contraceptives, CC: Infertility and insulin resistance*
- **Combined oral contraceptives (COCs)** are a common treatment for PCOS, primarily to regulate menstrual cycles and reduce hirsutism, but **weight loss** is generally the initial recommendation, especially in obese patients.
- While **insulin resistance** is a key comorbidity, **infertility** is a consequence of PCOS, not a comorbidity to be tested for in the same way as metabolic conditions.
*Weight loss, CC: Infertility and lipid dysfunction*
- **Weight loss** is an appropriate initial treatment, addressing multiple aspects of PCOS.
- However, **infertility** is a symptom/consequence of PCOS rather than a comorbidity that is 'tested for' at diagnosis; **insulin resistance** is a more direct and prevalent metabolic comorbidity to screen for alongside lipid dysfunction.
*Combined oral contraceptives, CC: Insulin resistance and lipid dysfunction*
- While **COCs** are effective for managing menstrual irregularities and hirsutism in PCOS, **weight loss** is prioritized as the initial step, especially in obese individuals, due to its broader metabolic benefits.
- **Insulin resistance** and **lipid dysfunction** are critical comorbidities to screen for in PCOS patients.
*Rx: Weight loss, CC: Infertility and insulin resistance*
- **Weight loss** is the appropriate initial treatment.
- Similar to other incorrect options, **infertility** is a **consequence** of PCOS, not a separate comorbidity to be proactively screened for at the time of diagnosis in the same manner as metabolic issues like **insulin resistance**.
Question 192: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 0, at 8 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. The previous pregnancies ended in spontaneous abortion between the 8th and 10th week of gestation. She feels well but is worried about having another miscarriage. She has no history of serious illness. Previous gynecologic evaluations showed no abnormalities. The patient takes a daily prenatal multivitamin. Her temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 85/min, and blood pressure is 125/85 mm Hg. Examination shows a violaceous, reticular rash on the lower extremities.
Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 5,200/mm3
Platelet count 120,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 13 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time 49 seconds
Serum
Na+ 140 mEq/L
K+ 4.4 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 12 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
AST 20 U/L
ALT 15 U/L
Anti-beta 2 glycoprotein-1 antibody positive
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Heparin bridged to warfarin
B. Glucocorticoids and plasmapharesis
C. Aspirin and enoxaparin (Correct Answer)
D. Enoxaparin
E. Warfarin
Explanation: ***Aspirin and enoxaparin***
- The patient's history of recurrent **first-trimester miscarriages**, **thrombocytopenia**, **prolonged PTT**, and **positive anti-beta 2 glycoprotein-1 antibody** strongly indicate **antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)**.
- In pregnancy, APS is managed with a combination of **low-dose aspirin** and **low molecular weight heparin** (such as enoxaparin) to prevent thrombotic complications and improve pregnancy outcomes.
*Heparin bridged to warfarin*
- **Warfarin is teratogenic** and is contraindicated during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester, due to the risk of fetal malformations.
- While heparin is safe in pregnancy, bridging to warfarin is not appropriate in a pregnant patient with APS.
*Glucocorticoids and plasmapharesis*
- **Glucocorticoids** and **plasmapheresis** are generally reserved for severe or refractory cases of APS, such as catastrophic APS or thrombotic microangiopathy, rather than routine management of recurrent pregnancy loss in APS.
- These treatments carry significant risks and are not first-line therapy for preventing miscarriage in APS.
*Enoxaparin*
- While **enoxaparin (LMWH)** is a crucial component of APS management in pregnancy, current guidelines recommend combining it with **low-dose aspirin** for optimal prevention of pregnancy complications.
- Aspirin has additional antiplatelet effects that complement heparin's anticoagulant action.
*Warfarin*
- As mentioned, **warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy** due to its **teratogenic effects**, which include nasal hypoplasia, stippled epiphyses, and CNS abnormalities (warfarin embryopathy).
- It should not be used for thrombosis prevention in pregnant individuals.
Question 193: A 56-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of progressive weakness. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a violaceous rash over her eyelids and flat-topped erythematous papules over the dorsal surface of interphalangeal joints. Muscle strength is 4/5 at the shoulders and hips but normal elsewhere. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following conditions?
A. Hodgkin lymphoma
B. Ovarian adenocarcinoma (Correct Answer)
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Renal clear cell carcinoma
E. Oat cell lung cancer
Explanation: ***Ovarian adenocarcinoma***
- The patient's presentation with **progressive proximal muscle weakness**, a **heliotrope rash** (violaceous rash over eyelids), and **Gottron's papules** (flat-topped erythematous papules over interphalangeal joints) is highly suggestive of **dermatomyositis**.
- **Dermatomyositis** is a paraneoplastic syndrome, especially in older adults, and is frequently associated with **ovarian adenocarcinoma** as well as lung, gastrointestinal, and breast cancers.
*Hodgkin lymphoma*
- While Hodgkin lymphoma can be associated with paraneoplastic syndromes, it is less commonly linked to **dermatomyositis** compared to adenocarcinomas.
- Paraneoplastic syndromes in Hodgkin lymphoma often include **pruritus**, fevers, night sweats, or neurological syndromes like **cerebellar degeneration**.
*Pheochromocytoma*
- This is a neuroendocrine tumor that typically causes symptoms related to excessive **catecholamine release**, such as hypertension, palpitations, and headaches.
- It does not commonly present with **dermatomyositis** or its characteristic dermatological and muscular findings.
*Renal clear cell carcinoma*
- This malignancy can be associated with various paraneoplastic syndromes, including **polycythemia**, hypercalcemia, and Stauffer's syndrome affecting the liver.
- It is not a primary association for **dermatomyositis** compared to ovarian cancer.
*Oat cell lung cancer*
- Also known as **small cell lung cancer**, this type is strongly associated with paraneoplastic syndromes causing neurological dysfunction (e.g., **Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome**, cerebellar degeneration).
- While it can be associated with dermatomyositis, **ovarian adenocarcinoma** is a more prominent association, especially in women.
Question 194: A 23-year-old woman with a past medical history significant for cardiac palpitations and hypothyroidism presents with cyclical lower abdominal pain and pelvic pain. Upon further questioning, she endorses difficulty conceiving over the last 12 months. On a review of systems, she endorses occasional pain with intercourse, which has become more frequent over the last 6 months. On physical examination, her heart and lungs are clear to auscultation, her abdomen has mild tenderness in the lower quadrants, and she shows normal range of motion in her extremities. Given the patient’s desire to conceive, what is the most definitive treatment for her presumed condition?
A. NSAIDS
B. Laparoscopy and lesion ablation (Correct Answer)
C. Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH-BSO)
D. Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)
E. Leuprolide
Explanation: ***Laparoscopy and lesion ablation***
- This patient's symptoms of **cyclical lower abdominal and pelvic pain**, **dyspareunia**, and **infertility** are highly suggestive of **endometriosis**. Laparoscopic visualization and ablation or excision of endometrial implants is both diagnostic and therapeutic, making it the most definitive treatment, especially when fertility preservation is desired.
- Laparoscopy allows for direct visualization of the endometrial lesions and their removal, which can alleviate pain and improve the chances of **conception**.
*NSAIDS*
- **NSAIDs** are effective for **symptomatic pain relief** in endometriosis but do not treat the underlying disease or improve fertility outcomes.
- Their primary role is in pain management, not in resolving the endometrial implants or addressing **infertility**.
*Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH-BSO)*
- **TAH-BSO** is a definitive cure for endometriosis by removing the uterus and ovaries, but it is an **aggressive surgical option** that induces surgical menopause and eliminates the possibility of future conception.
- This option is typically reserved for severe, refractory cases in women who have completed childbearing or do not desire future pregnancies.
*Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)*
- **OCPs** can help manage endometriosis pain by suppressing ovarian function and reducing menstrual flow, but they do not treat existing endometrial implants or improve fertility while they are being used.
- They are used for **symptom control** and to prevent recurrence but are not a definitive treatment for existing lesions or for achieving pregnancy.
*Leuprolide*
- **Leuprolide**, a GnRH agonist, induces a temporary **menopausal state** by suppressing ovarian hormone production, which can shrink endometrial implants and alleviate pain.
- However, it causes significant side effects like hot flashes and bone loss, and its effects are temporary; symptoms often recur after discontinuation. It also prevents conception while in use (due to suppressed ovulation) and does not definitively remove implants.
Question 195: A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 31 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department because of confusion. Three days ago, she developed diffuse abdominal pain, malaise, nausea, and vomiting. She has a 2-year history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Four months ago, she spent 2 weeks in Belize for her honeymoon. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by preeclampsia, which was terminated by induction of labor at 37 weeks' gestation. Her only medication is esomeprazole. She appears tired. Her temperature is 38°C (100°F), pulse is 82/min, respirations are 19/min, and blood pressure is 118/79 mm Hg. She responds to sound and communicates in short sentences. Examination shows yellowish discoloration of the sclera and abdominal distention. There is tenderness to palpation of the right upper quadrant. When she is asked to hold her hands in extension, there is a notable flapping tremor. Her uterus is consistent in size with a 31-week gestation. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 26%
Platelet count 90,000/mm3
Leukocyte count 10,500/mm3
Prothrombin time (PT) 34 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 48 seconds
Serum
Total protein 5.0 g/dL
Albumin 2.6 g/dL
Glucose 62 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.1 mg/dL
Bilirubin, total 9.2 mg/dL
Indirect 4.2 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase 445 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase 485 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase 36 U/L
Anti-HAV IgM antibody negative
Anti-HAV IgG antibody positive
HBsAG negative
Anti-HBs antibody positive
Anti-HBc antibody negative
Anti-HCV antibody negative
Urine studies show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Preeclampsia
B. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (Correct Answer)
C. HELLP syndrome
D. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
E. Acute viral hepatitis B
Explanation: ***Acute fatty liver of pregnancy***
- This patient presents with **liver dysfunction** (elevated AST, ALT, bilirubin, prolonged PT/PTT), **renal insufficiency** (creatinine 2.1 mg/dL), **hypoglycemia** (glucose 62 mg/dL), and signs of **encephalopathy** (confusion, flapping tremor). This constellation of symptoms, occurring in the third trimester of pregnancy, is classic for **acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP)**.
- While she has a history of preeclampsia, her current blood pressure is normal, and urinalysis is unremarkable, making preeclampsia less likely to be the primary diagnosis for her current severe liver and neurologic symptoms.
*Preeclampsia*
- Preeclampsia is characterized by **new-onset hypertension** and **proteinuria** after 20 weeks of gestation. This patient's blood pressure is normal (118/79 mm Hg), and her urine studies are normal, making severe preeclampsia less likely as the primary diagnosis.
- While a history of preeclampsia increases the risk for future pregnancy complications, the current symptoms, especially the severe liver dysfunction, hypoglycemia, and encephalopathy, point more specifically to AFLP.
*HELLP syndrome*
- **HELLP syndrome** is characterized by **Hemolysis**, **Elevated Liver enzymes**, and **Low Platelet count**. While the patient has elevated liver enzymes and low platelets (90,000/mm3), there is no evidence of hemolysis (e.g., elevated LDH, low haptoglobin, schistocytes on blood smear) provided.
- HELLP syndrome is often, but not always, associated with **hypertension and proteinuria**, which are absent in this case. The severe hypoglycemia and marked coagulopathy are also more characteristic of AFLP.
*Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy*
- This condition typically presents with **pruritus** (itching) and **elevated bile acids**, with or without mild elevation of liver enzymes and bilirubin.
- It does not usually cause **severe liver failure, coagulopathy, hypoglycemia, renal failure, or encephalopathy** as seen in this patient.
*Acute viral hepatitis B*
- While it can cause significant liver inflammation, the patient's serology (HBsAg negative, anti-HBs positive, anti-HBc negative) indicates either **vaccination or resolved infection with immunity**, not acute HBV infection.
- The rapid onset of severe multi-organ dysfunction, hypoglycemia, and encephalopathy in the third trimester is more typical of a pregnancy-specific liver disorder rather than acute viral hepatitis, especially given the negative serology for other common hepatitis viruses.
Question 196: A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain. She has a history of tubal ligation 3 years ago and a history of chlamydia treated 15 years ago. She usually has very regular periods, but her last menstrual period was 10 weeks ago. On exam, she is afebrile, HR 117, blood pressure of 88/56 mmHg, and she has peritoneal signs including rebound tenderness. Urine Beta-hCG is positive. Hgb is 9.9 g/dL. What is the appropriate treatment?
A. Laparotomy (Correct Answer)
B. Methotrexate
C. Serial beta-hCG levels
D. Blood transfusion
E. Azithromycin
Explanation: ***Laparotomy***
- The patient presents with classic signs of a **ruptured ectopic pregnancy**, including abdominal pain, **peritoneal signs**, **hypotension** (88/56 mmHg), and **tachycardia** (HR 117), all indicative of hemodynamic instability and internal bleeding.
- Given the patient's hemodynamic instability, a **laparotomy** is the most urgent and appropriate treatment to directly visualize, control bleeding, and remove the ectopic pregnancy, as medical management or less invasive surgical options would be too slow and risky.
*Methotrexate*
- **Methotrexate** is a medical treatment for ectopic pregnancy, but it is contraindicated in cases of **hemodynamic instability**, suspected rupture, or significant intra-abdominal bleeding.
- The patient's **hypotension**, **tachycardia**, and **peritoneal signs** strongly suggest rupture and active bleeding, making methotrexate an inappropriate and dangerous choice.
*Serial beta-hCG levels*
- Monitoring **serial beta-hCG levels** is used to diagnose and follow the resolution of an ectopic pregnancy, especially if managed medically or watchfully.
- However, in a patient with signs of **hemodynamic instability** and presumed rupture, this diagnostic approach is too slow and does not address the immediate life-threatening bleeding.
*Blood transfusion*
- While the patient's hemoglobin (Hgb 9.9 g/dL) is slightly low, a **blood transfusion** alone does not address the underlying cause of the bleeding, which is a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
- Transfusion might be necessary as an adjunct to surgery, but it is not the primary treatment for stopping the hemorrhage.
*Azithromycin*
- **Azithromycin** is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, such as Chlamydia. While the patient has a history of chlamydia, there is no indication of an active infection requiring antibiotic treatment.
- Her current symptoms are indicative of an **ectopic pregnancy rupture**, not an infection.
Question 197: A 58-year-old woman with a past medical history significant for major depressive disorder and generalized anxiety syndrome presents after having undergone menopause 3 years earlier. Today, she complains of intolerable hot flashes and irritability at work and at home. The remainder of the review of systems is negative. Physical examination reveals a grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex, clear breath sounds, and normal abdominal findings. Her vital signs are all within normal limits. She requests hormonal replacement therapy (HRT) for the relief of her symptoms. Which of the following additional pieces of past medical history would make HRT contraindicated in this patient?
A. Family history of endometrial cancer
B. Failure of symptomatic control with SSRI/SNRI
C. Osteoporosis
D. Known or suspected personal history of breast cancer (Correct Answer)
E. Family history of breast cancer
Explanation: ***Known or suspected personal history of breast cancer***
- A personal history of **breast cancer** is a strong contraindication for **hormone replacement therapy (HRT)**, as estrogen can promote the growth of certain types of breast cancer.
- HRT would significantly increase the risk of recurrence or exacerbation of existing disease.
*Family history of endometrial cancer*
- A family history of **endometrial cancer** is not an absolute contraindication for HRT, especially if the patient uses **combined HRT** (estrogen and progestin), which protects the endometrium.
- The risk of endometrial cancer from estrogen-only HRT is primarily in women with an intact uterus.
*Failure of symptomatic control with SSRI/SNRI*
- The failure of **SSRI/SNRI** to control symptoms is not a contraindication to HRT; rather, it might make HRT a more appropriate alternative given the patient's severe symptoms.
- This indicates a need for exploring other effective treatment options, including HRT if otherwise safe.
*Osteoporosis*
- **Osteoporosis** is actually an indication for HRT in some postmenopausal women, as estrogen helps maintain bone density and reduces fracture risk.
- HRT can be used as a treatment for osteoporosis or as prevention in certain high-risk individuals.
*Family history of breast cancer*
- A first-degree **family history of breast cancer** is a relative contraindication or a factor requiring careful consideration, but it's not an absolute contraindication like a personal history.
- While it warrants a thorough discussion of risks, it does not automatically preclude HRT use.
Question 198: A 34-year-old woman presents to the fertility clinic with her husband for infertility workup. The patient reports that they have been having unprotected intercourse for 14 months without any successful pregnancy. She is G1P1, with 1 child from a previous marriage. Her menstrual cycle is regular and without pain. Physical and pelvic examinations are unremarkable. The husband denies erectile dysfunction, decrease in libido, or other concerns. A physical examination of the husband demonstrates tall long extremities and bilateral hard nodules behind the areola. What abnormality would you most likely find in the husband?
A. Decreased luteinizing hormone (LH) levels
B. Elevated aromatase levels (Correct Answer)
C. Defective fibrillin
D. Elevated homocysteine levels
E. Elevated testosterone levels
Explanation: ***Elevated aromatase levels***
- The husband's presentation with **tall long extremities** and **gynecomastia** (bilateral hard nodules behind the areola) is characteristic of **Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY)**.
- In Klinefelter syndrome, the extra X chromosome leads to **gonadal dysgenesis**, resulting in primary testicular failure. This causes increased **aromatase activity** within the Leydig cells, converting androgens to estrogens, contributing to gynecomastia and hypogonadism.
*Decreased luteinizing hormone (LH) levels*
- Klinefelter syndrome typically presents with **hypergonadotropic hypogonadism**, meaning high levels of **LH and FSH** due to primary testicular failure.
- Low LH would suggest a central (hypothalamic or pituitary) cause of hypogonadism, which is not indicated here.
*Defective fibrillin*
- **Defective fibrillin** is associated with **Marfan syndrome**, which also presents with tall stature and long extremities.
- However, Marfan syndrome does not typically cause **gynecomastia** or infertility due to gonadal dysfunction, and it is primarily a connective tissue disorder with cardiovascular and ocular manifestations.
*Elevated homocysteine levels*
- **Elevated homocysteine levels** are associated with various conditions, including **cardiovascular disease** and certain **genetic disorders** (e.g., homocystinuria).
- It is not a characteristic feature of Klinefelter syndrome and does not explain the presented symptoms.
*Elevated testosterone levels*
- In Klinefelter syndrome, the dysfunctional Leydig cells lead to **reduced testosterone production**, causing **hypogonadism**.
- Elevated testosterone levels would contradict the clinical picture of primary testicular failure and gynecomastia.
Question 199: A 28-year-old woman visits her physician with complaints of inability to become pregnant despite frequent unprotected sexual intercourse with her husband for over a year. She breastfed her only child until about 13 months ago, when the couple decided to have a second child. Over the past year, the patient has had only 4 episodes of menstrual bleeding. She reports occasional milk discharge from both breasts. Her only medication currently is daily pantoprazole, which she takes for dyspepsia. Her BMI is 29 kg/m2. Physical examination and vitals are normal. Pelvic examination indicates no abnormalities. The patient’s breast examination reveals full breasts and a few drops of milk can be expressed from both nipples. Estradiol, serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), testosterone, and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are within the normal range. Which of the following best explains these findings?
A. Prolactinoma (Correct Answer)
B. Pantoprazole
C. Primary ovarian insufficiency
D. Normal findings
E. Sheehan’s syndrome
Explanation: ***Prolactinoma***
- The patient's symptoms of **galactorrhea** (milk discharge from breasts) and **oligomenorrhea** (infrequent menstrual bleeding), leading to **infertility**, are classic signs of hyperprolactinemia.
- Given that other hormonal levels like FSH, estradiol, and TSH are normal, a **prolactinoma** (a pituitary tumor secreting prolactin) is the most likely cause of elevated prolactin.
*Pantoprazole*
- While **proton pump inhibitors** like pantoprazole can cause hyperprolactinemia, this is a less common and typically milder side effect compared to the profound symptoms described, especially with sustained galactorrhea and significant menstrual irregularities.
- The severity and chronicity of symptoms, including infertility, make **prolactinoma** a more probable diagnosis than drug-induced hyperprolactinemia.
*Primary ovarian insufficiency*
- **Primary ovarian insufficiency (POI)** is characterized by elevated FSH and low estradiol levels, as the ovaries are no longer responding to FSH stimulation.
- The patient's **normal FSH and estradiol levels** effectively rule out primary ovarian insufficiency as the cause of her symptoms.
*Normal findings*
- The patient's symptoms of **infertility, galactorrhea, and oligomenorrhea** are clearly abnormal and warrant investigation.
- A healthy reproductive system would not present with these combined features, especially after a year of unprotected intercourse with a desire for pregnancy.
*Sheehan’s syndrome*
- **Sheehan's syndrome** typically occurs after severe postpartum hemorrhage, leading to pituitary necrosis and subsequent **panhypopituitarism**, presenting with amenorrhea, lactation failure (not galactorrhea), and often symptoms of adrenal or thyroid insufficiency.
- The patient's **galactorrhea**, normal TSH, and the absence of a history of postpartum hemorrhage do not align with Sheehan's syndrome.
Question 200: A 35-year-old G0P0000 presents to her gynecologist with complaints of irregular menstruation. She has had only two periods in the last year. She also endorses feeling flushed without provocation and experiencing occasional dyspareunia with post-coital spotting. In addition, she has also had more frequent headaches than usual. The patient has a past medical history of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and takes levothyroxine daily. Her mother has type I diabetes mellitus. At this visit, the patient’s temperature is 98.5°F (36.9°C), pulse is 70/min, blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, and respirations are 13/min. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal exams are unremarkable. The patient has Tanner V breasts and pubic hair. Pelvic exam reveals a normal cervix, anteverted uterus without tenderness, and no adnexal masses. The following laboratory studies are performed:
Serum:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH): 28 µIU/mL (9-30 µIU/mL)
Cycle day 3 follicle stimulating hormone (FSH): 49 mIU/mL (4.7-21.5 mIU/mL)
Cycle day 3 estradiol: 8 pg/mL (27-123 pg/mL)
Prolactin: 14 ng/mL (4-23 ng/mL)
Testosterone: 42 ng/dL (15-70 ng/dL)
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Estradiol patch with oral medroxyprogesterone (Correct Answer)
B. Brain MRI
C. Vaginal estradiol gel
D. Combined oral contraceptive
E. Increase levothyroxine dose
Explanation: ***Estradiol patch with oral medroxyprogesterone***
- The patient's symptoms (oligomenorrhea, hot flashes, dyspareunia), elevated **FSH (49 mIU/mL)**, and very low **estradiol (8 pg/mL)**, along with a normal prolactin and TSH (indicating her Hashimoto's is likely controlled), are classic for **primary ovarian insufficiency (POI)**.
- **Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)** with estrogen (e.g., estradiol patch) and progestin (e.g., oral medroxyprogesterone) is the cornerstone of management to alleviate symptoms, protect bone density, and reduce cardiovascular risk in POI patients until the average age of natural menopause (around 51 years).
*Brain MRI*
- A brain MRI is typically indicated if there is suspicion of a **pituitary adenoma**, particularly if **prolactin levels are elevated** or if there are visual field defects; neither is present here.
- While hyperprolactinemia can cause amenorrhea, this patient's prolactin is normal, ruling out this specific cause for amenorrhea and the need for imaging.
*Vaginal estradiol gel*
- **Vaginal estradiol** is used primarily for localized symptoms of **vaginal atrophy** and dyspareunia, but it does not provide systemic estrogen replacement needed to protect against **bone loss**, cardiovascular disease, or to regulate menstrual cycles in POI.
- This patient requires systemic estrogen to address the broad range of symptoms and long-term health risks associated with her hypestrogenic state.
*Combined oral contraceptive*
- While combined oral contraceptives could regulate her periods and provide some estrogen, the **estrogen dose** may be insufficient for optimal bone and cardiovascular protection in a patient with POI.
- **HRT regimens**, tailored to provide physiological hormone levels, are generally preferred for managing POI until the typical age of menopause.
*Increase levothyroxine dose*
- Her **TSH is within the normal range** (9-30 µIU/mL, assuming this is the laboratory's reference range for TSH for this patient's age and condition, though typical ranges are often narrower like 0.4-4 mIU/L), indicating her Hashimoto's thyroiditis is currently well-controlled with her existing levothyroxine dose.
- Therefore, adjusting her thyroid medication is unwarranted and would not address her primary issue of ovarian insufficiency.