A 30-year-old primigravid woman at 14 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit. She reports some nausea and fatigue. She takes lithium for bipolar disorder and completed a course of clindamycin for bacterial vaginosis 12 weeks ago. She works as a teacher at a local school. She smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 12 years but stopped after finding out that she was pregnant. She does not drink alcohol. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 14-week gestation. There is mild lower extremity edema bilaterally. Urinalysis is within normal limits. The patient's child is at increased risk for developing which of the following complications?
Q182
A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician with a 6-month history of breast tenderness and menstrual irregularities. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. An ultrasound of the pelvis shows a right adnexal mass. A laparoscopic right salpingo-oophorectomy is performed. Histologic examination of the adnexal mass shows small cuboidal cells arranged in clusters surrounding a central cavity with eosinophilic secretions. These cells resemble primordial follicles. Which of the following laboratory values was most likely increased in this patient at the time of presentation?
Q183
A 29-year-old woman presents to the fertility clinic due to an inability to conceive. She and her husband have been attempting to have children for over a year. She underwent menarche at 16 years of age and typically has menses every 29 days regularly. Her menstrual periods would last 6 days and are mildly painful. However, she reports that her last menstrual period was 3 months ago. Her medical history is non-contributory and she does not take any medications. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 125/76 mmHg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 15/min. Her body mass index is 26.3 kg/m^2. Physical examination is unremarkable. Urine hCG is negative, serum prolactin level is 75 ng/mL (normal < 20 ng/mL) and thyroid-stimulating hormone is 0.8 microU/mL. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient’s infertility?
Q184
A 31-year-old, G1P0 woman at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency room for a severe headache. She reports that she was washing the dishes 2 hours ago when a dull headache came on and progressively worsened. She also reports 2 episodes of intermittent blurred vision over the past hour that has since cleared. Nothing similar has ever happened before. She denies any precipitating events, trauma, mental status changes, abdominal pain, lightheadedness, fever, ulcers, or urinary changes. Her temperature is 98.9°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg, pulse is 98/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98%. A physical examination demonstrates a rash on her face that she attributes to a recent change in cosmetics. A urine test demonstrates the presence of protein. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
Q185
A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of oligomenorrhea and intermittent vaginal spotting for 5 months. Menses previously occurred at regular 28-day intervals and lasted for 5 days with normal flow. She has also noted increased hair growth on her chin. She is not sexually active. She takes no medications. Physical examination shows temporal hair recession and nodulocystic acne on her cheeks and forehead. There is coarse hair on the chin and the upper lip. Pelvic examination shows clitoral enlargement and a right adnexal mass. Laboratory studies show increased serum testosterone concentration; serum concentrations of androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone are within the reference ranges. Ultrasonography of the pelvis shows a 10-cm right ovarian tumor. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q186
A 23-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician due to amenorrhea. The patient states that historically she has her period once every three months but recently has not had it at all. Otherwise, she has no other complaints. The patient recently started college and is a varsity athlete for the track team. She works part time in a coffee shop and is doing well in school. The patient is not sexually active and does not drink alcohol, use illicit drugs, or smoke. She has no significant past medical history and occasionally takes ibuprofen for headaches. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 100/55 mmHg, pulse is 50/min, respirations are 10/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you note a young, lean, muscular woman in no acute distress. Which of the following is the most likely long-term outcome in this patient?
Q187
A 30-year-old woman came to her OBGYN for an infertility consultation. The patient reports having intercourse with her husband at least 3 times per week with increasing frequency during ovulation periods. The lab reports of her husband revealed an adequate sperm count. After the work-ups was complete, her OBGYN prescribed a medication similar to GnRH to be administered in a pulsatile manner. Which drug is prescribed to the patient?
Q188
A 29-year-old G2P1001 presents to her obstetrician’s office complaining of dyspareunia. She endorses ongoing vaginal dryness resulting in uncomfortable intercourse over the last month. In addition, she has noticed a gritty sensation in her eyes as well as difficulty tasting food and halitosis. She denies pain with urination and defecation. Her medications include a daily multivitamin, folic acid, and over-the-counter eye drops. The patient’s temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse is 70/min, blood pressure is 121/80 mmHg, and respirations are 13/min. Physical exam is notable for a well-appearing female with fullness in the bilateral cheeks and reduced salivary pool. For which of the following is the patient’s fetus at increased risk?
Q189
A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, comes to the physician because of difficulty conceiving for one year. She is sexually active with her husband 4–5 times a week. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child 3 years ago were uncomplicated. She returned to work as an event coordinator 12 months ago and has found the transition stressful. Menses previously occurred at 30-day intervals and lasted for 3–4 days with moderate flow. Her last menstrual period was three months ago. She has occasional vaginal dryness. The patient runs 5 to 10 miles every day. Her BMI is 19.0 kg/m2. Her pulse is 73/min and blood pressure is 125/70 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. Pelvic examination shows dry vaginal mucosa. A serum pregnancy test is negative. Serum studies show:
Prolactin 18 μg/L
Thyroid-stimulating hormone 2.5 mU/L
Follicle-stimulating hormone 3.6 U/L
Luteinizing hormone 2.3 U/L
Ultrasound of the pelvis shows no abnormalities. In addition to dietary and exercise counseling, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q190
A 22-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit at 10 weeks' gestation. She has no history of serious illness. She has been using cocaine for the past two years. Without cessation of cocaine use, which of the following complications is most likely to occur?
High-risk pregnancies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 181: A 30-year-old primigravid woman at 14 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit. She reports some nausea and fatigue. She takes lithium for bipolar disorder and completed a course of clindamycin for bacterial vaginosis 12 weeks ago. She works as a teacher at a local school. She smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 12 years but stopped after finding out that she was pregnant. She does not drink alcohol. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 14-week gestation. There is mild lower extremity edema bilaterally. Urinalysis is within normal limits. The patient's child is at increased risk for developing which of the following complications?
A. Chorioretinitis
B. Atrialized right ventricle (Correct Answer)
C. Ototoxicity and hearing loss
D. Bone damage
E. Fetal hydantoin syndrome
Explanation: ***Atrialized right ventricle***
- The patient is taking **lithium**, a medication for bipolar disorder, which is associated with an increased risk of **Ebstein anomaly** in the fetus.
- **Ebstein anomaly** is characterized by the apical displacement of the tricuspid valve leaflets, leading to an "atrialized" portion of the right ventricle and can cause **tricuspid regurgitation** and right heart failure.
*Chorioretinitis*
- **Chorioretinitis** is typically associated with congenital infections like **toxoplasmosis**, **CMV**, or **rubella**, for which there is no evidence in this patient.
- While the patient is a teacher, increasing exposure risk, there are no specific symptoms or history presented to suggest a TORCH infection.
*Ototoxicity and hearing loss*
- **Ototoxicity** and **hearing loss** in neonates are commonly associated with exposure to **aminoglycoside antibiotics** (e.g., gentamicin) in utero or in early life.
- The patient took clindamycin, which is not typically associated with fetal ototoxicity.
*Bone damage*
- **Bone damage** (e.g., skeletal abnormalities, growth restriction) in the fetus can be caused by various factors, including certain anticonvulsants (e.g., valproate) or severe maternal malnutrition.
- Lithium is not primarily associated with direct fetal bone damage.
*Fetal hydantoin syndrome*
- **Fetal hydantoin syndrome** is caused by in utero exposure to **phenytoin** (an anticonvulsant), characterized by facial dysmorphism, limb defects, and growth deficiencies.
- The patient is taking lithium, not phenytoin, so this diagnosis is incorrect.
Question 182: A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician with a 6-month history of breast tenderness and menstrual irregularities. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. An ultrasound of the pelvis shows a right adnexal mass. A laparoscopic right salpingo-oophorectomy is performed. Histologic examination of the adnexal mass shows small cuboidal cells arranged in clusters surrounding a central cavity with eosinophilic secretions. These cells resemble primordial follicles. Which of the following laboratory values was most likely increased in this patient at the time of presentation?
A. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. α-fetoprotein
D. Estradiol (Correct Answer)
E. β-human chorionic gonadotropin
Explanation: ***Estradiol***
- The description of the adnexal mass ("small cuboidal cells arranged in clusters surrounding a central cavity with eosinophilic secretions," resembling primordial follicles) is characteristic of a **granulosa cell tumor**.
- Granulosa cell tumors are **sex cord-stromal tumors** that often produce **estrogen**, leading to elevated estradiol levels and symptoms like breast tenderness and menstrual irregularities.
*Lactate dehydrogenase*
- **Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)** is a non-specific tumor marker. While it can be elevated in some ovarian germ cell tumors (like dysgerminomas), it is not typically associated with granulosa cell tumors or the specific symptoms described here.
- This elevation is not specific enough to point to the correct diagnosis given the histologic findings.
*Follicle stimulating hormone*
- **Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)** levels are typically suppressed by high estrogen levels. Since granulosa cell tumors produce estrogen, FSH levels would likely be decreased, not increased.
- Elevated FSH is usually seen in **ovarian failure** or **menopause**, not in the context of an estrogen-producing tumor.
*α-fetoprotein*
- **Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** is a tumor marker primarily associated with **yolk sac tumors** (endodermal sinus tumors) and is not typically elevated in granulosa cell tumors.
- The histologic description does not fit a yolk sac tumor.
*β-human chorionic gonadotropin*
- **Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG)** is a tumor marker associated with **choriocarcinoma** and some **dysgerminomas**.
- The histologic findings of the mass do not align with those types of tumors.
Question 183: A 29-year-old woman presents to the fertility clinic due to an inability to conceive. She and her husband have been attempting to have children for over a year. She underwent menarche at 16 years of age and typically has menses every 29 days regularly. Her menstrual periods would last 6 days and are mildly painful. However, she reports that her last menstrual period was 3 months ago. Her medical history is non-contributory and she does not take any medications. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 125/76 mmHg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 15/min. Her body mass index is 26.3 kg/m^2. Physical examination is unremarkable. Urine hCG is negative, serum prolactin level is 75 ng/mL (normal < 20 ng/mL) and thyroid-stimulating hormone is 0.8 microU/mL. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient’s infertility?
A. Cabergoline (Correct Answer)
B. Levothyroxine
C. Clomiphene
D. Letrozole
E. Metformin
Explanation: ***Cabergoline***
- The patient presents with **amenorrhea** and significantly **elevated prolactin levels** (75 ng/mL), indicating **hyperprolactinemia**.
- **Cabergoline** is a **dopamine agonist** that effectively lowers prolactin levels, restoring ovulation and fertility associated with hyperprolactinemia.
*Levothyroxine*
- This patient's **TSH** is **normal** (0.8 microU/mL), ruling out **hypothyroidism** as the cause of her amenorrhea and infertility.
- Levothyroxine is used to treat hypothyroidism and would not be beneficial in this case.
*Clomiphene*
- Clomiphene is a **selective estrogen receptor modulator** used to induce ovulation in patients with **PCOS** or **hypothalamic amenorrhea**.
- It would not be the primary treatment for hyperprolactinemia, as stimulating ovulation without addressing high prolactin would be ineffective.
*Letrozole*
- Letrozole is an **aromatase inhibitor** primarily used to induce ovulation in patients with **PCOS**, by reducing estrogen synthesis and increasing FSH.
- It is not indicated for hyperprolactinemia-induced anovulation.
*Metformin*
- Metformin is an **insulin sensitizer** used to treat **insulin resistance** and anovulation in patients with **PCOS**.
- The patient's presentation does not suggest PCOS, and metformin would not address her high prolactin levels.
Question 184: A 31-year-old, G1P0 woman at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency room for a severe headache. She reports that she was washing the dishes 2 hours ago when a dull headache came on and progressively worsened. She also reports 2 episodes of intermittent blurred vision over the past hour that has since cleared. Nothing similar has ever happened before. She denies any precipitating events, trauma, mental status changes, abdominal pain, lightheadedness, fever, ulcers, or urinary changes. Her temperature is 98.9°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg, pulse is 98/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98%. A physical examination demonstrates a rash on her face that she attributes to a recent change in cosmetics. A urine test demonstrates the presence of protein. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
A. Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall
B. Neoplasm of meningeal tissue
C. Rupture of an aneurysm
D. Abnormal placental spiral arteries (Correct Answer)
E. Production of pathogenic autoantibodies and tissue injury
Explanation: ***Abnormal placental spiral arteries***
- The patient's symptoms of **severe headache**, **blurred vision**, **hypertension** (160/110 mmHg), and **proteinuria** in the third trimester of pregnancy are classic signs of **preeclampsia**.
- Preeclampsia is pathologically linked to **abnormal remodeling of placental spiral arteries**, leading to poor placental perfusion and widespread maternal endothelial dysfunction.
*Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall*
- **Placental abruption** typically presents with sudden onset of **vaginal bleeding**, **abdominal pain**, uterine tenderness, and fetal distress.
- While preeclampsia is a risk factor for placental abruption, the absence of bleeding, abdominal pain, or fetal symptoms makes this less likely as the primary explanation for the current presentation.
*Neoplasm of meningeal tissue*
- A **brain tumor** or **meningioma** typically presents with a more gradual onset of symptoms, often accompanied by focal neurological deficits, seizures, or persistent, non-specific headaches.
- The acute onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and hypertension with proteinuria points away from a primary neurological neoplasm as the immediate cause.
*Rupture of an aneurysm*
- A **ruptured cerebral aneurysm** (subarachnoid hemorrhage) typically causes a **sudden, severe "thunderclap" headache**, often described as the "worst headache of my life," along with meningeal signs (neck stiffness) and altered mental status.
- While the headache is severe and acute, the presence of hypertension and proteinuria in a pregnant woman strongly suggests preeclampsia as the underlying cause, rather than primary cerebrovascular event.
*Production of pathogenic autoantibodies and tissue injury*
- This description is characteristic of **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** or other autoimmune diseases, which can cause hypertension and renal involvement (proteinuria).
- However, the acute onset of symptoms in the third trimester, without a prior history of autoimmune disease or other typical SLE manifestations (e.g., joint pain, malar rash, ulcers), makes preeclampsia a more likely diagnosis given the specific presentation in pregnancy.
Question 185: A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of oligomenorrhea and intermittent vaginal spotting for 5 months. Menses previously occurred at regular 28-day intervals and lasted for 5 days with normal flow. She has also noted increased hair growth on her chin. She is not sexually active. She takes no medications. Physical examination shows temporal hair recession and nodulocystic acne on her cheeks and forehead. There is coarse hair on the chin and the upper lip. Pelvic examination shows clitoral enlargement and a right adnexal mass. Laboratory studies show increased serum testosterone concentration; serum concentrations of androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone are within the reference ranges. Ultrasonography of the pelvis shows a 10-cm right ovarian tumor. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ovarian dysgerminoma
B. Serous cystadenoma
C. Ovarian thecoma
D. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor (Correct Answer)
E. Dermoid cyst
Explanation: ***Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor***
- The presentation of rapid onset **virilization** (hirsutism, temporal hair recession, nodulocystic acne, clitoral enlargement) and an adnexal mass with significantly elevated **testosterone** points strongly to a Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor.
- The **normal DHEA and androstenedione levels** help rule out adrenal sources of androgen overproduction, localizing the issue to the ovary.
*Ovarian dysgerminoma*
- Dysgerminomas are **germ cell tumors** and are typically not associated with androgen production or virilization.
- While they can present as an adnexal mass, they more commonly cause symptoms related to their size or production of **B-hCG** or **LDH**.
*Serous cystadenoma*
- Serous cystadenomas are **benign epithelial ovarian tumors** and do not produce hormones.
- They typically present with non-specific symptoms related to mass effect, such as bloating or pelvic pressure, and are not associated with virilization.
*Ovarian thecoma*
- Thecomas are **sex cord-stromal tumors** that are typically estrogen-producing and present with symptoms like abnormal uterine bleeding or postmenopausal bleeding.
- While rare cases of androgen-producing thecomas exist, the classic presentation with marked testosterone elevation and virilization is less common compared to Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors.
*Dermoid cyst*
- Dermoid cysts (mature cystic teratomas) are **germ cell tumors** that can contain various tissues but are generally hormonally inert.
- They do not typically cause virilization, and elevated testosterone levels would not be expected.
Question 186: A 23-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician due to amenorrhea. The patient states that historically she has her period once every three months but recently has not had it at all. Otherwise, she has no other complaints. The patient recently started college and is a varsity athlete for the track team. She works part time in a coffee shop and is doing well in school. The patient is not sexually active and does not drink alcohol, use illicit drugs, or smoke. She has no significant past medical history and occasionally takes ibuprofen for headaches. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 100/55 mmHg, pulse is 50/min, respirations are 10/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you note a young, lean, muscular woman in no acute distress. Which of the following is the most likely long-term outcome in this patient?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Infertility
C. Endometrial cancer
D. Anorexia nervosa
E. Osteoporosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Osteoporosis***
- This patient likely has **functional hypothalamic amenorrhea (FHA)** due to her athletic activity, low body weight, and stress, leading to low **estrogen** levels.
- **Chronic hypoestrogenism** is a significant risk factor for **decreased bone mineral density** and subsequent **osteoporosis** and stress fractures.
*Osteoarthritis*
- **Osteoarthritis** is a degenerative joint disease typically associated with aging, obesity, or joint injury, none of which are primary features in this patient's presentation.
- While intense athletic activity can contribute to joint wear over time, it is not a direct long-term consequence of the amenorrhea and hypoestrogenic state.
*Infertility*
- While **functional hypothalamic amenorrhea (FHA)** can cause temporary infertility as long as menstruation is suppressed, ovulation can resume once the underlying causes (e.g., intense exercise, low body weight, stress) are addressed.
- Therefore, infertility is not necessarily a permanent long-term outcome if the condition is managed.
*Endometrial cancer*
- Amenorrhea, particularly **anovulatory cycles** with prolonged estrogen exposure *without* progesterone withdrawal (as seen in PCOS), can increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and cancer.
- However, in **functional hypothalamic amenorrhea (FHA)**, low estrogen levels typically lead to a **thinner endometrium**, which *reduces* rather than increases the risk of endometrial cancer.
*Anorexia nervosa*
- Although **anorexia nervosa** can cause amenorrhea due to extremely low body weight and nutritional deficiencies, this patient's history and physical exam do not suggest an eating disorder.
- She is described as lean and muscular from athletic activity, not emaciated or exhibiting other signs of anorexia nervosa.
Question 187: A 30-year-old woman came to her OBGYN for an infertility consultation. The patient reports having intercourse with her husband at least 3 times per week with increasing frequency during ovulation periods. The lab reports of her husband revealed an adequate sperm count. After the work-ups was complete, her OBGYN prescribed a medication similar to GnRH to be administered in a pulsatile manner. Which drug is prescribed to the patient?
A. Clomiphene (Correct Answer)
B. Gonadorelin
C. Danazol
D. Leuprolide
E. Anastrazole
Explanation: ***Clomiphene***
- This medication is an **estrogen receptor modulator** which competes with estrogen for binding at the hypothalamus, preventing negative feedback and increasing **GnRH pulsatile secretion**.
- This increased GnRH pulsatility leads to elevated **FSH and LH levels**, stimulating follicular development and ovulation, making it suitable for infertility due to anovulation.
*Gonadorelin*
- **Gonadorelin** is a synthetic form of **GnRH** itself. While it would directly stimulate ovarian activity, it is often administered **continuously** to achieve **desensitization** and suppress gonadal function, which is not the goal for ovulation induction.
- For ovulation induction, GnRH needs to be administered in a **pulsatile fashion** to mimic the physiological release, which clomiphene can indirectly achieve by modulating endogenous GnRH release.
*Danazol*
- **Danazol** is an **androgen derivative** with anti-estrogenic and anti-progestational effects, primarily used in conditions like **endometriosis** and **fibrocystic breast disease**.
- It works by suppressing the **pituitary-ovarian axis**, which would hinder ovulation rather than induce it.
*Leuprolide*
- **Leuprolide** is a **GnRH agonist** that, when administered continuously, causes initial stimulation followed by **downregulation** and desensitization of GnRH receptors.
- This leads to a profound **suppression of gonadotropin release** (FSH and LH), effectively inducing a temporary menopausal state, not ovulation.
*Anastrozole*
- **Anastrozole** is an **aromatase inhibitor** that blocks the conversion of androgens to estrogens, thereby lowering estrogen levels.
- While it can be used for ovulation induction, it works by **reducing estrogen** to remove negative feedback, similar to clomiphene, but it is not a direct GnRH analogue administered in a pulsatile manner.
Question 188: A 29-year-old G2P1001 presents to her obstetrician’s office complaining of dyspareunia. She endorses ongoing vaginal dryness resulting in uncomfortable intercourse over the last month. In addition, she has noticed a gritty sensation in her eyes as well as difficulty tasting food and halitosis. She denies pain with urination and defecation. Her medications include a daily multivitamin, folic acid, and over-the-counter eye drops. The patient’s temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse is 70/min, blood pressure is 121/80 mmHg, and respirations are 13/min. Physical exam is notable for a well-appearing female with fullness in the bilateral cheeks and reduced salivary pool. For which of the following is the patient’s fetus at increased risk?
A. Macrosomia
B. Heart block (Correct Answer)
C. Neonatal hypoglycemia
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Meconium aspiration
Explanation: ***Heart block***
- The patient's symptoms of **vaginal dryness**, **dyspareunia**, **gritty eyes**, and **difficulty tasting food** are consistent with **Sjögren's syndrome**, an autoimmune disease characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of exocrine glands, such as salivary and lacrimal glands.
- Sjögren's syndrome is often associated with **anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La antibodies**. These maternal autoantibodies can cross the placenta and cause **congenital heart block** in the fetus.
*Macrosomia*
- **Macrosomia** is typically associated with maternal conditions such as **pre-existing or gestational diabetes**, which is not indicated by the patient's symptoms or physical exam findings.
- While an immune response can affect fetal growth, there's no direct pathogenic link between Sjögren's antibodies and macrosomia.
*Neonatal hypoglycemia*
- **Neonatal hypoglycemia** is primarily linked to maternal **diabetes mellitus** or conditions like **maternal use of beta-blockers** or certain genetic disorders, which are not suggested by the clinical picture.
- Sjögren's syndrome and its associated antibodies do not directly cause fetal or neonatal hypoglycemia.
*Pulmonary hypertension*
- **Pulmonary hypertension** in the neonate can be associated with premature birth, meconium aspiration syndrome, or congenital heart defects, among other conditions.
- There is no direct link between maternal Sjögren's syndrome and fetal or neonatal pulmonary hypertension.
*Meconium aspiration*
- **Meconium aspiration** is typically associated with fetal distress, post-term pregnancy, or intrauterine growth restriction, none of which are suggested by the provided information.
- Maternal autoimmune conditions like Sjögren's syndrome are not a recognized risk factor for meconium aspiration.
Question 189: A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, comes to the physician because of difficulty conceiving for one year. She is sexually active with her husband 4–5 times a week. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child 3 years ago were uncomplicated. She returned to work as an event coordinator 12 months ago and has found the transition stressful. Menses previously occurred at 30-day intervals and lasted for 3–4 days with moderate flow. Her last menstrual period was three months ago. She has occasional vaginal dryness. The patient runs 5 to 10 miles every day. Her BMI is 19.0 kg/m2. Her pulse is 73/min and blood pressure is 125/70 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. Pelvic examination shows dry vaginal mucosa. A serum pregnancy test is negative. Serum studies show:
Prolactin 18 μg/L
Thyroid-stimulating hormone 2.5 mU/L
Follicle-stimulating hormone 3.6 U/L
Luteinizing hormone 2.3 U/L
Ultrasound of the pelvis shows no abnormalities. In addition to dietary and exercise counseling, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Obtain MRI of the pituitary gland
B. Offer pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone therapy (Correct Answer)
C. Offer in vitro fertilization
D. Offer human chorionic gonadotropin therapy
E. Offer clomiphene citrate therapy
Explanation: ***Offer pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone therapy***
- This patient presents with **hypothalamic amenorrhea** (secondary amenorrhea, low BMI, high-intensity exercise, stress), characterized by low FSH and LH, indicating impaired GnRH release.
- **Pulsatile GnRH therapy** directly mimics the physiological release of GnRH from the hypothalamus, stimulating the pituitary to secrete FSH and LH, which in turn promotes follicular development and ovulation.
*Obtain MRI of the pituitary gland*
- An MRI of the pituitary gland is typically reserved for cases with **elevated prolactin levels** or other clinical signs of a pituitary tumor (e.g., visual field defects, headaches).
- This patient's prolactin level (18 μg/L) is within the normal range, making a pituitary adenoma unlikely as the cause of her amenorrhea.
*Offer in vitro fertilization*
- **IVF** is an advanced and more invasive fertility treatment generally considered for cases where less aggressive methods have failed, or for specific conditions like severe tubal factor infertility, severe male factor infertility, or advanced maternal age.
- Given that the patient's primary issue appears to be anovulation due to hypothalamic dysfunction, direct stimulation of ovulation with pulsatile GnRH or gonadotropins is a more appropriate initial step.
*Offer human chorionic gonadotropin therapy*
- **hCG therapy** is used to trigger ovulation in cycles where follicles have already matured, often after stimulation with other medications like clomiphene or gonadotropins.
- It does not address the underlying hypothalamic dysfunction leading to low FSH and LH levels and would not be effective as a primary monotherapy for this patient's anovulation.
*Offer clomiphene citrate therapy*
- **Clomiphene citrate** works by blocking estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, thereby increasing GnRH, FSH, and LH release, primarily used in patients with **PCOS** (polycystic ovary syndrome) who have sufficient endogenous estrogen and LH to respond.
- This patient has low gonadotropin levels (low FSH and LH), indicating **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism**, so clomiphene, which relies on an intact hypothalamic-pituitary axis, would likely be ineffective.
Question 190: A 22-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit at 10 weeks' gestation. She has no history of serious illness. She has been using cocaine for the past two years. Without cessation of cocaine use, which of the following complications is most likely to occur?
A. Neural tube defects
B. Congenital heart defect
C. Polyhydramnios
D. Premature delivery (Correct Answer)
E. Obstructed labor
Explanation: ***Premature delivery***
- **Cocaine use** during pregnancy causes **vasoconstriction** and **maternal hypertension**, leading to **uterine contractions** and **placental abruption**, which significantly increase the risk of premature delivery.
- Additionally, cocaine can disrupt fetal development and growth, contributing to **intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)** and precipitating earlier deliveries.
*Neural tube defects*
- While certain substances can cause **neural tube defects**, cocaine is not primarily associated with this type of malformation.
- **Folic acid deficiency** and certain **antiepileptic drugs** are more common causes of neural tube defects.
*Congenital heart defect*
- Although cocaine can cause **fetal ischemia** and potentially contribute to some congenital anomalies, **cardiac defects** are not the most likely or prominent complication linked to its use.
- Other factors, such as **genetic predispositions** and exposure to specific teratogens like **alcohol** or certain **medications**, are more strongly associated with congenital heart defects.
*Polyhydramnios*
- **Polyhydramnios** (excess amniotic fluid) is typically associated with conditions like **gestational diabetes**, **esophageal atresia**, or **hydrops fetalis**, which impair fetal swallowing or increase fetal urination.
- Cocaine use does not directly cause polyhydramnios; rather, it's more likely to be linked to **oligohydramnios** due to placental insufficiency.
*Obstructed labor*
- **Obstructed labor** occurs when there is a physical barrier to delivery, such as **cephalopelvic disproportion** or a **large fetal size**, or abnormal fetal presentation.
- Cocaine use itself does not typically cause anatomical issues that would lead to obstructed labor, although it can lead to **preterm birth** where the fetus is smaller.