A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and bloody vaginal discharge with clots. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. She does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. She was admitted to the hospital for a deep vein thrombosis about 1 year ago and was treated with heparin followed by warfarin. Therapy ended after 6 months and she has been monitored by her primary care provider since. She has been sexually active with a new partner for 3 months and uses condoms inconsistently. Her father has type II diabetes and takes insulin. Her mother died of a stroke when she was 50. Her sister had 2 spontaneous first trimester abortions. Temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, respirations are 16/min, and BMI is 22 kg/m2 (48.5 pounds). On examination, her lower abdomen is tender to palpation. Vaginal examination reveals an open cervical os with blood pooling in the vaginal vault.
Laboratory investigation:
Complete blood count
Hemoglobin 9.5 g/dl
Leucocytes 4,500/mm3
Platelets 90,000/mm3
Serum haptoglobin 25 mg/dl (30-200 mg/dl)
Bleeding time 5 minutes
APTT 60 seconds
Plasma fibrinogen 250 mg/dl (150-400 mg/dl)
VDRL positive
HbsAg negative
After a mixing study, her APTT fails to correct. Urine pregnancy test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q142
A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician because of hair loss on her frontal scalp over the past year. Menses have occurred at irregular 40- to 60-day intervals since menarche at the age of 17 years. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. She is 162 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 73 kg (158.7 lb); BMI is 28 kg/m2. Her pulse is 75/min and blood pressure 130/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows scattered pustules on her face and patches of velvety hyperpigmentation on her axilla and groin. Her morning serum cortisol concentration is 18 μg/dL. This patient's condition is most likely associated with increased stimulation of which of the following types of cells?
Q143
A 31-year-old G3P2 woman presents to labor and delivery triage because she has had bleeding over the last day. She is currently 5 months into her pregnancy and has had no concerns prior to this visit. She previously had a delivery through cesarean section and has otherwise had uncomplicated pregnancies. She denies fever, pain, and discomfort. On presentation, her temperature is 99.1°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 81/min, and respirations are 15/min. Physical exam reveals an alert woman with slow, painless, vaginal bleeding. Which of the following risk factors are associated with the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q144
A 21-year-old G2P1 woman presents to the clinic and is curious about contraception immediately after her baby is born. She is anxious about taking care of one child and does not believe that she can handle the responsibility of caring for another. She has no other questions or complaints today. Her past medical history consists of generalized anxiety disorder, antithrombin deficiency, and chronic deep vein thrombosis. She has been hospitalized for acute on chronic deep vein thrombosis. Her only medication is buspirone. Her blood pressure is 119/78 mm Hg and the heart rate is 78/min. BMI of the patient is 32 kg/m2. On physical examination, her fundal height is 21 cm from pubic symphysis. No ovarian masses are palpated during the bimanual examination. Ultrasound exhibits a monoamniotic, monochorionic fetus. Which of the following forms of contraception would be the most detrimental given her risk factors?
Q145
A 16-year-old female presents to your clinic concerned that she has not had her menstrual cycle in 5 months. She has not been sexually active and her urine pregnancy test is negative. She states that she has been extremely stressed as she is in the middle of her gymnastics season and trying to get recruited for a college scholarship. Physical exam is remarkable for a BMI of 16, dorsal hand calluses, and fine hair over her cheeks. What other finding is likely in this patient?
Q146
A 42-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 3 comes to the physician because of a 14-month history of prolonged and heavy menstrual bleeding. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 7 days with heavy flow. She also feels fatigued. She is sexually active with her husband and does not use contraception. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a firm, irregularly-shaped uterus consistent in size with a 16-week gestation. Her hemoglobin concentration is 9 g/dL, hematocrit is 30%, and mean corpuscular volume is 92 μm3. Pelvic ultrasound shows multiple intramural masses in an irregularly enlarged uterus. The ovaries appear normal bilaterally. The patient has completed childbearing and would like definitive treatment for her symptoms. Operative treatment is scheduled. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q147
A 14-year-old girl comes to the physician for exertional leg pain. The pain began last week when she started jogging to lose weight. She is at the 5th percentile for height and 80th percentile for weight. Physical examination shows a broad neck with bilateral excess skin folds that extend to the shoulders, as well as a low-set hairline and ears. There is an increased carrying angle when she fully extends her arms at her sides. Pulses are palpable in all extremities; lower leg pulses are delayed. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
Q148
A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 33 weeks' gestation comes to her doctor for a routine visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has systemic lupus erythematosus and has had no flares during her pregnancy. She does not smoke cigarettes, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. Current medications include iron, vitamin supplements, and hydroxychloroquine. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 134/70 mm Hg. She appears well. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Ultrasound demonstrates fetal rhythmic breathing for > 30 seconds, amniotic fluid with deepest vertical pocket of 1 cm, one distinct fetal body movement over 30 minutes, and no episodes of extremity extension over 30 minutes. Nonstress test is reactive and reassuring. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Q149
A 24-year-old primigravida presents to her physician for regular prenatal care at 31 weeks gestation. She has no complaints and the antepartum course has been uncomplicated. Her pre-gestational history is significant for obesity (BMI = 30.5 kg/m2). She has gained a total of 10 kg (22.4 lb) during pregnancy, and 2 kg (4.48 lb) since her last visit 4 weeks ago. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure, 145/90 mm Hg; heart rate, 87/min; respiratory rate, 14/min; and temperature, 36.7℃ (98℉). The fetal heart rate is 153/min. The physical examination shows no edema and is only significant for a 2/6 systolic murmur best heard at the apex of the heart. A 24-hour urine is negative for protein. Which of the following options describe the best management strategy in this case?
Q150
A 39-year-old woman seeks evaluation from her gynecologist due to recent changes in her menstrual cycle. Her last menstrual period was greater than 12 months ago. She has 2 children and had regular menstrual periods in the past. She also complains of difficulty in falling and staying asleep, occasional hot flashes, vaginal dryness, and decreased libido. The physical examination is unremarkable, and the height and weight are 1.68 m (5 ft 6 in) and 70 kg (154 lb), respectively. She has the following hormonal panel from 2 months ago when she first sought help for her symptoms.
Hormonal panel results
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin 4 IU/L (0.8 - 7.3 IU/L)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone 2.5 mIU/L (0.4 - 4.2 mIU/L)
Prolactin 5 ng/mL (2-29 ng/mL)
Follicle Stimulating Hormone 45 mIU/mL (Follicular phase: 3.1-7.9 mIU/mL; Ovulation peak: 2.3-18.5 mIU/mL; Luteal phase: 1.4-5.5 mIU/mL)
Estradiol 5 pg/mL (Mid-follicular phase: 27-123 pg/mL; Periovulatory: 96-436 pg/mL; Mid-luteal phase: 49-294 pg/mL)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
High-risk pregnancies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 141: A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and bloody vaginal discharge with clots. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. She does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. She was admitted to the hospital for a deep vein thrombosis about 1 year ago and was treated with heparin followed by warfarin. Therapy ended after 6 months and she has been monitored by her primary care provider since. She has been sexually active with a new partner for 3 months and uses condoms inconsistently. Her father has type II diabetes and takes insulin. Her mother died of a stroke when she was 50. Her sister had 2 spontaneous first trimester abortions. Temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, respirations are 16/min, and BMI is 22 kg/m2 (48.5 pounds). On examination, her lower abdomen is tender to palpation. Vaginal examination reveals an open cervical os with blood pooling in the vaginal vault.
Laboratory investigation:
Complete blood count
Hemoglobin 9.5 g/dl
Leucocytes 4,500/mm3
Platelets 90,000/mm3
Serum haptoglobin 25 mg/dl (30-200 mg/dl)
Bleeding time 5 minutes
APTT 60 seconds
Plasma fibrinogen 250 mg/dl (150-400 mg/dl)
VDRL positive
HbsAg negative
After a mixing study, her APTT fails to correct. Urine pregnancy test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Factor V leiden
B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (Correct Answer)
C. Von Willebrand disease
D. Primary syphilis
E. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Explanation: ***Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APS)***
- The patient has a history of **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**, recurrent pregnancy loss (sister's spontaneous abortions might hint at a familial predisposition or shared genetic factor, though not directly applicable to her case), and **thrombocytopenia**, which are classic features of APS.
- The **positive VDRL** (a test for syphilis that can also be positive in APS due to cross-reacting antibodies) and an **elevated APTT that fails to correct with a mixing study** (suggesting a lupus anticoagulant) strongly point towards APS, making this the most likely diagnosis.
*Factor V Leiden*
- This condition is a *prothrombotic state* causing an **increased risk of thrombosis**, which fits the patient's DVT history.
- However, Factor V Leiden would typically cause a **normal or shortened APTT**, not a prolonged one that fails to correct with a mixing study, and it doesn't explain the thrombocytopenia or positive VDRL.
*Von Willebrand disease*
- This is a *bleeding disorder* caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of **von Willebrand factor**, characterized by easy bruising, nosebleeds, and prolonged bleeding times.
- While the patient has bloody vaginal discharge and an open cervical os, suggesting bleeding, the **history of DVT** and laboratory findings (prolonged APTT, thrombocytopenia) are not consistent with von Willebrand disease.
*Primary syphilis*
- Primary syphilis presents as a **painless chancre** at the site of infection and can have a **positive VDRL**.
- However, it does **not explain the history of DVT**, the prolonged APTT that fails to correct, or the thrombocytopenia.
*Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)*
- DIC is a disorder characterized by widespread activation of coagulation, leading to **thrombosis and hemorrhage**, and consuming clotting factors and platelets.
- While it causes **thrombocytopenia** and can present with bleeding, her other lab values like **normal fibrinogen** and the history of DVT are not typical of DIC; DVT is also a chronic issue in this patient's history, while DIC is acute.
Question 142: A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician because of hair loss on her frontal scalp over the past year. Menses have occurred at irregular 40- to 60-day intervals since menarche at the age of 17 years. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. She is 162 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 73 kg (158.7 lb); BMI is 28 kg/m2. Her pulse is 75/min and blood pressure 130/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows scattered pustules on her face and patches of velvety hyperpigmentation on her axilla and groin. Her morning serum cortisol concentration is 18 μg/dL. This patient's condition is most likely associated with increased stimulation of which of the following types of cells?
A. Leydig cells
B. Follicular thyroid cells
C. Zona fasciculata cells
D. Granulosa cells
E. Theca interna cells (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Theca interna cells***
- This patient presents with symptoms consistent with **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)**, including **irregular menses**, **obesity**, **hirsutism** (implied by frontal hair loss and acne/pustules), and **acanthosis nigricans** (velvety hyperpigmentation).
- In PCOS, there is increased production of **androgens** (like testosterone) by the **theca interna cells** of the ovaries in response to elevated **luteinizing hormone (LH)** and hyperinsulinemia.
*Leydig cells*
- **Leydig cells** are found in the **testes** in males and are primarily responsible for producing **testosterone**.
- They are not typically found in the ovaries and are not implicated in the pathophysiology of PCOS in females.
*Follicular thyroid cells*
- **Follicular thyroid cells** produce **thyroid hormones (T3 and T4)**, which regulate metabolism.
- While thyroid dysfunction can cause menstrual irregularities, there are no other signs of thyroid disease, and their stimulation is not linked to the androgen excess seen in this patient.
*Zona fasciculata cells*
- **Zona fasciculata cells** are located in the **adrenal cortex** and produce **glucocorticoids**, primarily **cortisol**.
- While adrenal androgen excess can occur (e.g., in congenital adrenal hyperplasia), the normal morning cortisol level and the overall clinical picture point away from a primary adrenal cause of androgen excess.
*Granulosa cells*
- **Granulosa cells** are located in the **ovary** and are primarily responsible for converting **androgens to estrogens** under the influence of FSH.
- In PCOS, the ability of granulosa cells to aromatize androgens to estrogens is impaired, contributing to the elevated androgen levels rather than being the source of their increased stimulation.
Question 143: A 31-year-old G3P2 woman presents to labor and delivery triage because she has had bleeding over the last day. She is currently 5 months into her pregnancy and has had no concerns prior to this visit. She previously had a delivery through cesarean section and has otherwise had uncomplicated pregnancies. She denies fever, pain, and discomfort. On presentation, her temperature is 99.1°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 81/min, and respirations are 15/min. Physical exam reveals an alert woman with slow, painless, vaginal bleeding. Which of the following risk factors are associated with the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Smoking
B. Presence of uterine fibroids
C. Early menarche
D. Multiparity (Correct Answer)
E. Pelvic inflammatory disease
Explanation: ***Multiparity***
- The patient presents with **painless vaginal bleeding** in the second trimester, indicating **placenta previa**. Multiparity is a significant risk factor for placenta previa.
- Placenta previa is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies due to changes in the **endometrium** and previous uterine scarring.
*Smoking*
- While smoking is a risk factor for several pregnancy complications, including **placental abruption** and **preterm birth**, it is less strongly associated with placenta previa compared to other risk factors presented.
- Smoking can affect placental development and oxygenation but is not the primary risk factor for this specific presentation.
*Presence of uterine fibroids*
- Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas) can cause **bleeding in pregnancy** but are not a primary risk factor for placenta previa.
- Fibroids can interfere with placental implantation if they are submucosal or distort the uterine cavity, but the classic presentation here points more strongly to placenta previa.
*Early menarche*
- Early menarche is not a recognized risk factor for placenta previa.
- It is more commonly associated with conditions like **endometriosis** or increased lifetime exposure to estrogen, rather than placental implantation abnormalities.
*Pelvic inflammatory disease*
- PID is a risk factor for conditions such as **ectopic pregnancy** and **infertility** due to tubal damage.
- It does not directly increase the risk of placenta previa, which is a condition related to abnormal placental implantation in the uterus.
Question 144: A 21-year-old G2P1 woman presents to the clinic and is curious about contraception immediately after her baby is born. She is anxious about taking care of one child and does not believe that she can handle the responsibility of caring for another. She has no other questions or complaints today. Her past medical history consists of generalized anxiety disorder, antithrombin deficiency, and chronic deep vein thrombosis. She has been hospitalized for acute on chronic deep vein thrombosis. Her only medication is buspirone. Her blood pressure is 119/78 mm Hg and the heart rate is 78/min. BMI of the patient is 32 kg/m2. On physical examination, her fundal height is 21 cm from pubic symphysis. No ovarian masses are palpated during the bimanual examination. Ultrasound exhibits a monoamniotic, monochorionic fetus. Which of the following forms of contraception would be the most detrimental given her risk factors?
A. Copper IUD
B. Transdermal contraceptive patch (Correct Answer)
C. Norethindrone
D. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate
E. Levonorgestrel IUD
Explanation: ***Transdermal contraceptive patch***
- The transdermal contraceptive patch contains **estrogen**, which significantly increases the risk of **thromboembolism**. With a history of **antithrombin deficiency** and **recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**, estrogen-containing contraception is absolutely contraindicated due to the high risk of fatal clotting events.
- The patient's underlying **antithrombin deficiency** makes her particularly susceptible to prothrombotic effects, and combined hormonal contraceptives like the patch further exacerbate this risk.
*Copper IUD*
- The **copper IUD** is a **non-hormonal** contraceptive option, making it safe for individuals with a history of thromboembolism.
- Its mechanism of action involves creating a local inflammatory reaction in the uterus to prevent fertilization and implantation, thus posing no systemic clotting risk.
*Norethindrone*
- **Norethindrone** is a **progestin-only pill**, which does not contain estrogen and is generally considered safe for individuals with a history of thromboembolism.
- Progestin-only contraceptives avoid the estrogen-induced increase in clotting factors, making them a suitable option in this high-risk patient.
*Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate*
- **Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA)** is an injectable **progestin-only contraceptive** that is safe for patients with a history of **thromboembolism**.
- It works by suppressing ovulation and thickening cervical mucus and does not carry the same clotting risks as estrogen-containing methods.
*Levonorgestrel IUD*
- The **levonorgestrel IUD** is a **progestin-only** contraceptive that releases hormones locally within the uterus, with minimal systemic absorption.
- It is a safe and highly effective option for patients with a history of thromboembolism due to the absence of estrogen and limited systemic hormonal effects.
Question 145: A 16-year-old female presents to your clinic concerned that she has not had her menstrual cycle in 5 months. She has not been sexually active and her urine pregnancy test is negative. She states that she has been extremely stressed as she is in the middle of her gymnastics season and trying to get recruited for a college scholarship. Physical exam is remarkable for a BMI of 16, dorsal hand calluses, and fine hair over her cheeks. What other finding is likely in this patient?
A. Normal menstrual cycles
B. Elevated estrogen levels
C. Low bone density (Correct Answer)
D. Polycythemia
E. Elevated TSH
Explanation: ***Low bone density***
- The patient's presentation suggests **anorexia nervosa** or **bulimia nervosa**, characterized by a low BMI, amenorrhea, and signs of purging (calluses from induced vomiting).
- **Malnutrition**, particularly **estrogen deficiency** from amenorrhea, significantly impairs bone formation and increases bone resorption, leading to **osteopenia** or **osteoporosis**.
*Normal menstrual cycles*
- The patient has presented with **amenorrhea** (absence of menstrual cycles for 5 months), which is a key symptom indicating an underlying issue related to hormonal regulation due to stress and potential eating disorder.
- Normal menstrual cycles would contradict the primary complaint and the clinical picture suggesting significant physiological stress.
*Elevated estrogen levels*
- **Amenorrhea** in this context is typically caused by **hypothalamic dysfunction** and **low gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)**, leading to reduced LH and FSH secretion, and subsequently **low estrogen levels**.
- Elevated estrogen levels would likely result in regular menstrual cycles or other hormonal symptoms, which are not present here.
*Polycythemia*
- **Polycythemia** (an abnormally high concentration of hemoglobin in the blood) is not typically associated with eating disorders or amenorrhea.
- While dehydration from purging could _transiently_ increase hematocrit, it does not lead to _true_ polycythemia, and sustained polycythemia is not a common complication of this presentation.
*Elevated TSH*
- **Elevated TSH** indicates **hypothyroidism**, which can cause weight gain, fatigue, and sometimes menstrual irregularities, but typically not such a low BMI or the specific physical exam findings like dorsal hand calluses and fine hair (lanugo-like hair, seen in eating disorders).
- In eating disorders, the thyroid function is usually normal or shows **euthyroid sick syndrome** (low T3, normal TSH, normal T4), not primary hypothyroidism.
Question 146: A 42-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 3 comes to the physician because of a 14-month history of prolonged and heavy menstrual bleeding. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 7 days with heavy flow. She also feels fatigued. She is sexually active with her husband and does not use contraception. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a firm, irregularly-shaped uterus consistent in size with a 16-week gestation. Her hemoglobin concentration is 9 g/dL, hematocrit is 30%, and mean corpuscular volume is 92 μm3. Pelvic ultrasound shows multiple intramural masses in an irregularly enlarged uterus. The ovaries appear normal bilaterally. The patient has completed childbearing and would like definitive treatment for her symptoms. Operative treatment is scheduled. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Leuprolide (Correct Answer)
B. Progestin-only contraceptive pills
C. Tranexamic acid
D. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device
E. Estrogen-progestin contraceptive pills
Explanation: ***Leuprolide***
- **Leuprolide** is a **GnRH agonist** that creates a hypoestrogenic state, effectively reducing the size of **fibroids** and decreasing blood flow.
- Using leuprolide pre-operatively in this patient with **anemia** can improve her **hemoglobin levels**, reduce intraoperative blood loss, and potentially make surgery easier.
*Progestin-only contraceptive pills*
- While progestins can help with abnormal uterine bleeding, they are generally **less effective** in significantly reducing the size of large **fibroids** like those described.
- They may not effectively address the **anemia** or the need for definitive surgical management.
*Tranexamic acid*
- **Tranexamic acid** is an **antifibrinolytic** that can reduce menstrual blood flow but does not affect the size of **fibroids** or address the underlying cause of heavy bleeding.
- It would provide symptomatic relief during menstruation but would not prepare the patient for definitive operative treatment or correct chronic **anemia**.
*Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device*
- A **levonorgestrel-releasing IUD** is effective at reducing menstrual bleeding by causing endometrial atrophy.
- However, it may be difficult to insert or less effective in a significantly enlarged and irregularly-shaped uterus due to multiple large **fibroids**, and it does not reduce fibroid size.
*Estrogen-progestin contraceptive pills*
- **Estrogen-progestin pills** can regulate menstrual cycles and reduce bleeding but are not typically used to shrink large **fibroids**.
- They may not be sufficient for severe bleeding or to prepare for surgery in a patient with significant **anemia** and large fibroids.
Question 147: A 14-year-old girl comes to the physician for exertional leg pain. The pain began last week when she started jogging to lose weight. She is at the 5th percentile for height and 80th percentile for weight. Physical examination shows a broad neck with bilateral excess skin folds that extend to the shoulders, as well as a low-set hairline and ears. There is an increased carrying angle when she fully extends her arms at her sides. Pulses are palpable in all extremities; lower leg pulses are delayed. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
A. Triphalangeal thumb
B. Absent uterus
C. Horseshoe adrenal gland
D. Ovarian dysgenesis (Correct Answer)
E. Mitral valve prolapse
Explanation: ***Ovarian dysgenesis***
- The patient's presentation with **short stature** (5th percentile for height), **webbed neck**, low-set hairline and ears, and increased carrying angle are classic features of **Turner syndrome (45,XO)**.
- **Ovarian dysgenesis (streak gonads)** is a hallmark of Turner syndrome, leading to **primary amenorrhea** and **infertility**, which would be a likely additional finding as she approaches puberty.
*Triphalangeal thumb*
- A triphalangeal thumb is a feature associated with conditions like **Fanconi anemia** or **Holt-Oram syndrome**, which have different constellations of anomalies (e.g., bone marrow failure, cardiac defects).
- These syndromes do not typically present with the specific phenotypic features of **webbed neck** or **increased carrying angle** seen in this patient.
*Absent uterus*
- An absent uterus, or **Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser (MRKH) syndrome**, presents with normal ovaries and female secondary sexual characteristics despite the lack of a uterus.
- This condition does not explain the patient's **short stature**, **webbed neck**, or **cardiovascular findings** (delayed lower leg pulses suggestive of coarctation of the aorta), which are classic for Turner syndrome.
*Horseshoe adrenal gland*
- A **horseshoe adrenal gland** is a rare congenital anomaly, often noted incidentally, and is not specifically associated with Turner syndrome or the patient's observed phenotypic features.
- While kidney anomalies (e.g., horseshoe kidney) are common in Turner syndrome, adrenal abnormalities generally are not a prominent feature.
*Mitral valve prolapse*
- Although **cardiac defects** are common in Turner syndrome, the most frequent are **bicuspid aortic valve** and **coarctation of the aorta**, suggested by the delayed lower leg pulses.
- While mitral valve prolapse can occur in the general population, it is not as specifically or commonly associated with Turner syndrome as **aortic anomalies**.
Question 148: A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 33 weeks' gestation comes to her doctor for a routine visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has systemic lupus erythematosus and has had no flares during her pregnancy. She does not smoke cigarettes, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. Current medications include iron, vitamin supplements, and hydroxychloroquine. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 134/70 mm Hg. She appears well. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Ultrasound demonstrates fetal rhythmic breathing for > 30 seconds, amniotic fluid with deepest vertical pocket of 1 cm, one distinct fetal body movement over 30 minutes, and no episodes of extremity extension over 30 minutes. Nonstress test is reactive and reassuring. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
A. Administer corticosteroids and continue close monitoring (Correct Answer)
B. Perform cesarean delivery
C. Discontinue hydroxychloroquine and continue close monitoring
D. Induction of labor
E. Reassurance with expectant management
Explanation: ***Administer corticosteroids and continue close monitoring***
- The combination of a **nonreactive nonstress test (NST)** and an **amniotic fluid index (AFI) < 5 cm** (deepest vertical pocket of 1 cm) indicates **oligohydramnios** and potential fetal compromise, necessitating corticosteroid administration for lung maturity and close monitoring.
- While the NST is reassuring, the oligohydramnios is a significant concern that warrants intervention to optimize fetal outcomes and prepare for potential preterm delivery.
*Perform cesarean delivery*
- This step is **overly aggressive** given the reactive nonstress test and stable maternal condition.
- There are no immediate signs of **acute fetal distress** that would necessitate emergent delivery.
*Discontinue hydroxychloroquine and continue close monitoring*
- **Hydroxychloroquine** is safe and often continued during pregnancy for patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, as it helps prevent flares and is not associated with adverse fetal outcomes.
- Discontinuing it without a clear indication could lead to a **maternal SLE flare**, which could be detrimental to both mother and fetus.
*Induction of labor*
- Induction of labor is not indicated at this gestational age (33 weeks) unless there is clear evidence of **significant fetal distress** or maternal complications.
- While there is oligohydramnios, the **reactive NST** suggests sufficient fetal reserve to allow for corticosteroid administration to promote lung maturity first.
*Reassurance with expectant management*
- The finding of **oligohydramnios** (deepest vertical pocket of 1 cm) is a significant concern, as it is associated with increased risks of **cord compression**, fetal growth restriction, and adverse perinatal outcomes.
- Therefore, expectant management without intervention would be **inappropriate** given this finding.
Question 149: A 24-year-old primigravida presents to her physician for regular prenatal care at 31 weeks gestation. She has no complaints and the antepartum course has been uncomplicated. Her pre-gestational history is significant for obesity (BMI = 30.5 kg/m2). She has gained a total of 10 kg (22.4 lb) during pregnancy, and 2 kg (4.48 lb) since her last visit 4 weeks ago. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure, 145/90 mm Hg; heart rate, 87/min; respiratory rate, 14/min; and temperature, 36.7℃ (98℉). The fetal heart rate is 153/min. The physical examination shows no edema and is only significant for a 2/6 systolic murmur best heard at the apex of the heart. A 24-hour urine is negative for protein. Which of the following options describe the best management strategy in this case?
A. Treatment in outpatient settings with labetalol
B. Treatment in the outpatient settings with nifedipine
C. Observation in the outpatient settings (Correct Answer)
D. Treatment in the inpatient settings with methyldopa
E. Admission to hospital for observation
Explanation: ***Observation in the outpatient settings***
- The patient's blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, which meets the criteria for **gestational hypertension** according to ACOG (systolic BP ≥140 mmHg or diastolic BP ≥90 mmHg on two occasions at least 4 hours apart after 20 weeks gestation in a previously normotensive woman, without proteinuria).
- Since this is a single elevated blood pressure reading (not yet confirmed by a second reading after 4 hours) and there is no evidence of **proteinuria** or **severe features** (e.g., severe headache, visual disturbances, epigastric pain, elevated liver enzymes, thrombocytopenia, pulmonary edema), **close outpatient monitoring** is the appropriate initial step.
*Treatment in outpatient settings with labetalol*
- **Antihypertensive medication** is typically initiated for gestational hypertension if BP is consistently ≥160/110 mmHg, or if there are signs of severe features.
- While labetalol is a safe and common first-line agent, starting treatment based on a **single, non-severe elevated BP reading** without confirmed gestational hypertension or severe features is premature.
*Treatment in the outpatient settings with nifedipine*
- Similar to labetalol, **nifedipine** is an appropriate antihypertensive if medication is warranted for gestational hypertension.
- However, initiating medication is not the **first step** for an isolated, non-severe elevated blood pressure reading without confirmed diagnosis or severe features.
*Treatment in the inpatient settings with methyldopa*
- **Inpatient treatment** is reserved for patients with severe gestational hypertension, preeclampsia with severe features, or uncontrollable hypertension.
- While methyldopa is a safe antihypertensive in pregnancy, inpatient treatment is **not indicated** for this patient's presentation.
*Admission to hospital for observation*
- **Hospital admission** for observation is generally reserved for patients with more severe hypertension, suspected preeclampsia with severe features, or concerns about fetal well-being.
- Given the patient's **asymptomatic state**, normal fetal heart rate, and lack of proteinuria or severe features, inpatient admission is **unnecessary** at this stage.
Question 150: A 39-year-old woman seeks evaluation from her gynecologist due to recent changes in her menstrual cycle. Her last menstrual period was greater than 12 months ago. She has 2 children and had regular menstrual periods in the past. She also complains of difficulty in falling and staying asleep, occasional hot flashes, vaginal dryness, and decreased libido. The physical examination is unremarkable, and the height and weight are 1.68 m (5 ft 6 in) and 70 kg (154 lb), respectively. She has the following hormonal panel from 2 months ago when she first sought help for her symptoms.
Hormonal panel results
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin 4 IU/L (0.8 - 7.3 IU/L)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone 2.5 mIU/L (0.4 - 4.2 mIU/L)
Prolactin 5 ng/mL (2-29 ng/mL)
Follicle Stimulating Hormone 45 mIU/mL (Follicular phase: 3.1-7.9 mIU/mL; Ovulation peak: 2.3-18.5 mIU/mL; Luteal phase: 1.4-5.5 mIU/mL)
Estradiol 5 pg/mL (Mid-follicular phase: 27-123 pg/mL; Periovulatory: 96-436 pg/mL; Mid-luteal phase: 49-294 pg/mL)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Primary ovarian insufficiency (POI) (Correct Answer)
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Breast cancer
E. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation: ***Primary ovarian insufficiency (POI)***
- The patient's age (39 years old), amenorrhea (last menstrual period >12 months ago), and symptoms like hot flashes, vaginal dryness, and decreased libido are highly consistent with **menopause**.
- The hormonal panel showing **elevated FSH (45 mIU/mL)** and **low estradiol (5 pg/mL)** confirms ovarian failure, and given the patient's age (under 40), this points to **Primary Ovarian Insufficiency**.
*Pituitary adenoma*
- While pituitary adenomas can cause menstrual irregularities, they typically manifest with **galactorrhea** (if prolactin-secreting) and visual field defects, none of which are present.
- The hormonal profile in this patient (high FSH, low estradiol) is inconsistent with a pituitary adenoma, which would more commonly show **low FSH** and estradiol if it caused hypogonadism.
*Hyperthyroidism*
- Hyperthyroidism can cause menstrual irregularities, but typically presents with symptoms like **weight loss**, **tachycardia**, anxiety, and heat intolerance, which are not described.
- The patient's **TSH level is normal** (2.5 mIU/L), ruling out hyperthyroidism as the cause of her symptoms.
*Breast cancer*
- Breast cancer is a malignancy and does not directly cause the constellation of symptoms (amenorrhea, hot flashes, vaginal dryness) or the specific hormonal changes (high FSH, low estradiol) seen in this patient.
- While hormonal changes can influence breast cancer risk, breast cancer itself is not a diagnostic explanation for these endocrine findings.
*Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)*
- PCOS is characterized by chronic anovulation, **hyperandrogenism**, and polycystic ovaries; however, it typically presents with **oligomenorrhea** or amenorrhea but not usually total ovarian failure with very high FSH and low estradiol.
- In PCOS, FSH levels are typically normal or low, and estradiol levels can be normal or slightly elevated due to peripheral conversion of androgens, which contrasts sharply with this patient's findings.