High-risk pregnancies — MCQs

A 40-year-old pregnant woman presents to the clinic at her 12th week of gestation. She does not have any complaints during this visit but comes to discuss her lab reports from her last visit. Her blood test results are within normal limits, but the abdominal ultrasound reports nuchal thickening with a septated cystic hygroma. Chorionic villus sampling is performed for a suspected chromosomal anomaly. Which of the following features can be expected to be present at the time of birth of this fetus?

A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of irregular menstrual bleeding. Menarche occurred at the age of 12 years and menses have occurred at 45 to 90-day intervals. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. She is not sexually active. Serum studies show: Fasting glucose 178 mg/dL Fasting insulin 29 mcIU/mL (N = 2.6–24.9 mcIU/mL) Luteinizing hormone 160 mIU/mL Total testosterone 3.2 ng/dL (N = 0.06–1.06 ng/dL) Serum electrolytes are within the reference range. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?

A 63-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic complaining of severe vulvar itching. The pruritus started 1 year ago and became worse over the last several months. She has tried over-the-counter topical steroids without relief. She is not currently sexually active. Her medical history is notable for long-standing lichen sclerosus. The physical examination reveals an ulcerated small nodule on the right labium majus, as well as dry, thin, white lesions encircling the genital and perianal areas. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 27-year-old G2P1 woman is diagnosed with an HIV infection after undergoing routine prenatal blood work testing. Her estimated gestational age by first-trimester ultrasound is 12 weeks. Her CD4 count is 150 cells/mm^3 and her viral load is 126,000 copies/mL. She denies experiencing any symptoms of HIV infection. Which of the following is appropriate management of this patient's pregnancy?

A 36-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of pelvic discomfort and heavy menstrual bleeding. The pain is dull and pressure-like and occurs intermittently; the patient is asymptomatic between episodes. Menses occur at regular 30-day intervals and last 8 days with heavy flow. Her last menstrual period ended 5 days ago. She is sexually active and does not use contraception. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.8°F), pulse is 76/min, and blood pressure is 106/68 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows white cervical mucus and a firm, irregularly-shaped uterus consistent in size with a 5-week gestation. A spot urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A 16-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother for amenorrhea. The patient has never had a menstrual cycle and is worried as all her friends “have started to go through puberty.” She has been otherwise healthy with an uncomplicated birth history. “I told her not to worry since I also got my period late,” her mother reported during the encounter. Physical examination demonstrates Tanner stage 2 breasts, genital, and pubic hair. Temperature is 98.7 °F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 156/100mmHg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 12/min. What laboratory abnormalities would you expect to find in this patient?

A 24-year-old gravida 1 is admitted to the hospital after a tonic-clonic seizure at 37 weeks gestation. At the time of presentation, she complains of a severe headache, double vision, and nausea. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure, 165/90 mm Hg; heart rate, 91/min; respiratory rate, 9/min; and temperature, 37.0℃ (98.6℉). The rapid dipstick test performed on admission unit shows 3+ proteinuria. The fetal heart rate is 118/min. On examination, the patient is lethargic (GCS 12/15). There is 2+ pitting leg edema. The neurologic examination is significant for left eye deviation towards the nose, paralysis of the left conjugate gaze with a paralytic left eye, and right hemiplegia. Meningeal signs are negative. Which of the following findings would be expected if a head CT scan is performed?

A 14-year-old girl is brought to the physician because of a 10-day history of vaginal bleeding. The flow is heavy with the passage of clots. Since menarche 1 year ago, menses have occurred at irregular 26- to 32-day intervals and last 3 to 6 days. Her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 106/70 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows vaginal bleeding. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Her hemoglobin is 13.1 g/dL. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 36-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of upper abdominal discomfort, nausea, and malaise. She had a mild upper respiratory tract infection a week ago. She has a 10-year history of polycystic ovarian syndrome and a 3-year history of hypertension. Her medications include metformin, labetalol, folic acid, and a multivitamin. Her pulse is 92/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 147/84 mm Hg. Examination shows a nontender uterus consistent in size with a 34-week gestation. There is mild tenderness of the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. The fetal heart rate is reactive with no decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of vulvar itching and dryness. During this period, she has also had pain during sexual intercourse but no postcoital bleeding. Her last menstrual period was at the age of 51 years. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus and her only medication is metformin. Pelvic examination shows atrophic labial folds. There are excoriation marks and a well-demarcated, white plaque on the vulva. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. The results of biopsy rule out cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment for this patient's lesions?