A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic for an annual check-up. She has no other complaints except for some weight gain over the past year. Her last menstrual period was 8 months ago. “I started eating less since I get full easily and exercising more but just can’t lose this belly fat,” she complains. She is sexually active with her husband and does not use any contraception since “I am old.” She denies vaginal dryness, hot flashes, fevers, abdominal pain, or abnormal vaginal bleeding but does endorse intermittent constipation for the past year. Physical examination is unremarkable except for some mild abdominal distension with fluid wave. Laboratory findings are as follows:
Serum:
Na+: 138 mEq/L
Cl-: 97 mEq/L
K+: 3.9 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 21 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Glucose: 120 mg/dL
B-hCG: negative
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Q102
A 37-year-old G4P3 presents to her physician at 20 weeks gestation for routine prenatal care. Currently, she has no complaints; however, in the first trimester she was hospitalized due to acute pyelonephritis and was treated with cefuroxime. All her past pregnancies required cesarean deliveries for medical indications. Her history is also significant for amenorrhea after weight loss at 19 years of age and a cervical polypectomy at 30 years of age. Today, her vital signs are within normal limits and a physical examination is unremarkable. A transabdominal ultrasound shows a normally developing male fetus without morphologic abnormalities, anterior placement of the placenta in the lower uterine segment, loss of the retroplacental hypoechoic zone, and visible lacunae within the myometrium. Which of the following factors present in this patient is a risk factor for the condition she has developed?
Q103
A 23-year-old primipara with no co-morbidities presents at 34 weeks gestation with edema and a moderate headache. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure, 147/90 mm Hg; heart rate, 82/min; respiratory rate, 16/min; and temperature, 36.6℃ (97.9℉). The physical examination is significant for a 2+ pitting edema. The dipstick test shows 2+ proteinuria. Laboratory testing showed the following findings:
Erythrocyte count 3.2 million/mm3
Hemoglobin 12.1 g/dL
Hematocrit 0.58
Reticulocyte count 0.3%
Leukocyte count 7,300/mm3
Thrombocyte count 190,000/mm3
Total bilirubin 3.3 mg/dL (56.4 µmol/L)
Conjugated bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL (20.5 µmol/L)
ALT 67 U/L
AST 78 U/L
Creatinine 0.91 mg/dL (80.4 µmol/L)
Which of the following laboratory parameters satisfies the criteria for severe preeclampsia in this patient?
Q104
A 29-year-old G2P1 in her 22nd week of pregnancy presents with a primary complaint of peripheral edema. Her first pregnancy was without any major complications. Evaluation reveals a blood pressure of 160/90 and urinalysis demonstrates elevated levels of protein; both of these values were within normal limits at the patient's last well check-up 1 year ago. Further progression of this patient’s condition would immediately place her at greatest risk for developing which of the following?
Q105
A 76-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of a 3-month history of vulvar itching and pain. She was diagnosed with lichen sclerosus 4 years ago. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. Physical examination shows a 2.5-cm nodular, ulcerative lesion on the vaginal introitus and left labia minora with surrounding erythema. Punch biopsy shows squamous cell carcinoma. A CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis shows enlarged lymph nodes concerning for metastatic disease. Which of the following lymph node regions is the most likely primary site of metastasis?
Q106
A 27-year-old woman with a past medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and severe anemia of chronic disease presents to the emergency department for nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that started this morning. She has been unable to tolerate oral intake during this time. Her blood pressure is 107/58 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for left lower quadrant abdominal pain upon palpation. A urine pregnancy test is positive, and a serum beta-hCG is 1,110 mIU/mL. A transvaginal ultrasound demonstrates no free fluid and is unable to identify an intrauterine pregnancy. The patient states that she intends to have children in the future. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q107
A 37-year-old woman presents to the clinic to discuss various options for contraception. The patient has a past medical history of hypertension, Wilson's disease, and constipation-dominant irritable bowel syndrome. The patient takes rivaroxaban and polyethylene glycol. The blood pressure is 152/98 mm Hg. On physical examination, the patient appears alert and oriented. The heart auscultation demonstrates regular rate and rhythm, and it is absent of murmurs. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally without wheezing. The first day of the last menstrual period was 12 days ago. The urine hCG is negative. Given the patient's history and physical examination, which of the following forms of contraception is the most appropriate?
Q108
A 25-year-old primigravida woman at 35 weeks estimated gestational age presents with a headache for the past 5 hours. She describes the headache as severe and incapacitating and showing no response to acetaminophen. In the emergency department, her blood pressure is found to be 150/100 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, respiratory rate is 30/min, and temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). Her records show that her blood pressure was the same yesterday during her regular antenatal visit. Chest auscultation reveals bilateral crackles along the lung base. Abdominal examination reveals a gravid uterus consistent with a gestational age of 32 weeks and a floating fetus in a cephalic presentation. Pelvic examination is performed which shows a closed firm cervix with no evidence of bleeding or discharge. Moderate pitting edema is noted and neurologic examination shows generalized hyperreflexia. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL
Platelets 185,000/μL
Serum creatinine 0.4 mg/dL
Spot urine creatinine 110 mg/dL
Spot urine protein 360 mg/dL
AST 40 IU/L
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q109
A G1P0 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of difficulty breathing and coughing up blood for 2 days. Past medical history is significant for molar pregnancy 6 months ago. The patient was lost to follow up as she was abruptly laid off and had to stay at a homeless shelter for the past few months. She endorses nausea and vomiting, abdominal discomfort, and “feeling hot all the time.” The patient is a past smoker of 1 pack per day for 10 years. Vital signs are within normal limits except for tachycardia. What is the disease process that most likely explains this patient’s symptoms?
Q110
A 38-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician concerned about her inability to get pregnant for the past year. She has regular menstrual cycles and has unprotected intercourse with her husband daily. She is an immigrant from Australia and her past medical history is not known. She is currently taking folic acid and multivitamins. The patient's husband has had a sperm count that was determined to be within the normal range twice. She is very concerned about her lack of pregnancy and that she is too old. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
High-risk pregnancies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic for an annual check-up. She has no other complaints except for some weight gain over the past year. Her last menstrual period was 8 months ago. “I started eating less since I get full easily and exercising more but just can’t lose this belly fat,” she complains. She is sexually active with her husband and does not use any contraception since “I am old.” She denies vaginal dryness, hot flashes, fevers, abdominal pain, or abnormal vaginal bleeding but does endorse intermittent constipation for the past year. Physical examination is unremarkable except for some mild abdominal distension with fluid wave. Laboratory findings are as follows:
Serum:
Na+: 138 mEq/L
Cl-: 97 mEq/L
K+: 3.9 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 21 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Glucose: 120 mg/dL
B-hCG: negative
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
A. Pregnancy
B. Ovarian cancer (Correct Answer)
C. Endometriosis
D. Normal aging
E. Menopause
Explanation: ***Ovarian cancer***
- The patient's symptoms, including **abdominal distension**, **early satiety**, **weight gain** (despite efforts to lose weight), and **new-onset constipation**, are classic subtle signs of **ovarian cancer**. The presence of a **fluid wave** indicates ascites, which is a common finding in advanced ovarian cancer.
- While other conditions might cause some of these symptoms, the constellation of these persistent, vague symptoms in a perimenopausal woman necessitates suspicion for ovarian malignancy, especially given that it is often diagnosed at later stages due to non-specific presentation.
*Pregnancy*
- **Negative B-hCG** test result definitively rules out pregnancy as the cause of her weight gain and abdominal distension.
- Although some symptoms like weight gain and abdominal distension can occur in pregnancy, the patient's age and recent menstrual history make it less likely, and the lab test confirms its absence.
*Endometriosis*
- Endometriosis typically presents with **cyclic pelvic pain**, **dysmenorrhea**, **dyspareunia**, or **infertility**, which are not reported by the patient.
- While it can cause pelvic masses, severe abdominal distension with a fluid wave is less characteristic of uncomplicated endometriosis compared to ovarian cancer.
*Normal aging*
- While weight gain and changes in body composition can occur with aging, the specific symptoms of **early satiety**, **intermittent constipation**, and especially **abdominal distension with a fluid wave** are not normal physiological changes.
- These symptoms point towards an underlying pathological process rather than simply normal aging.
*Menopause*
- Menopause symptoms typically include **hot flashes**, **vaginal dryness**, and **irregular periods**, which the patient denies.
- While weight gain can be associated with menopause, the presence of **ascites** (indicated by fluid wave) and **early satiety** are not direct symptoms of menopause and suggest a more serious underlying condition.
Question 102: A 37-year-old G4P3 presents to her physician at 20 weeks gestation for routine prenatal care. Currently, she has no complaints; however, in the first trimester she was hospitalized due to acute pyelonephritis and was treated with cefuroxime. All her past pregnancies required cesarean deliveries for medical indications. Her history is also significant for amenorrhea after weight loss at 19 years of age and a cervical polypectomy at 30 years of age. Today, her vital signs are within normal limits and a physical examination is unremarkable. A transabdominal ultrasound shows a normally developing male fetus without morphologic abnormalities, anterior placement of the placenta in the lower uterine segment, loss of the retroplacental hypoechoic zone, and visible lacunae within the myometrium. Which of the following factors present in this patient is a risk factor for the condition she has developed?
A. A history of amenorrhea
B. Genitourinary infections during pregnancy
C. Multiple cesarean deliveries (Correct Answer)
D. Intake of antibiotics in the first trimester
E. Cervical surgery
Explanation: ***Multiple cesarean deliveries***
- The ultrasound findings of an **anterior low-lying placenta**, **loss of the retroplacental hypoechoic zone**, and **visible lacunae within the myometrium** are classic signs of **placenta accreta spectrum (PAS)**.
- Previous uterine surgeries, particularly **cesarean deliveries**, are the most significant risk factor for PAS, as they can cause defects in the uterine wall that allow the placenta to abnormally implant.
*A history of amenorrhea*
- **Amenorrhea** after weight loss at a young age suggests a potential history of **hypothalamic amenorrhea** or other ovulatory dysfunction, which is not a direct risk factor for placenta accreta.
- This condition primarily affects **fertility** and menstrual regularity, not placental implantation depth.
*Genitourinary infections during pregnancy*
- While **pyelonephritis** in pregnancy is a serious condition, it is an **infection** and does not directly cause abnormal placental implantation or placenta accreta.
- Infections can lead to other complications like **preterm labor** or sepsis, but not PAS.
*Intake of antibiotics in the first trimester*
- **Antibiotic use** for treating infections like pyelonephritis does not contribute to the development of placenta accreta.
- Antibiotics are used to resolve bacterial infections and have no known mechanistic link to placental adherence disorders.
*Cervical surgery*
- **Cervical polypectomy** is a minor surgical procedure involving the cervix, not the uterine corpus.
- While other uterine surgeries (e.g., myomectomy) can be risk factors for PAS, a cervical polypectomy typically does not affect the myometrium or increase the risk of abnormal placental adherence.
Question 103: A 23-year-old primipara with no co-morbidities presents at 34 weeks gestation with edema and a moderate headache. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure, 147/90 mm Hg; heart rate, 82/min; respiratory rate, 16/min; and temperature, 36.6℃ (97.9℉). The physical examination is significant for a 2+ pitting edema. The dipstick test shows 2+ proteinuria. Laboratory testing showed the following findings:
Erythrocyte count 3.2 million/mm3
Hemoglobin 12.1 g/dL
Hematocrit 0.58
Reticulocyte count 0.3%
Leukocyte count 7,300/mm3
Thrombocyte count 190,000/mm3
Total bilirubin 3.3 mg/dL (56.4 µmol/L)
Conjugated bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL (20.5 µmol/L)
ALT 67 U/L
AST 78 U/L
Creatinine 0.91 mg/dL (80.4 µmol/L)
Which of the following laboratory parameters satisfies the criteria for severe preeclampsia in this patient?
A. Liver transaminases (Correct Answer)
B. Creatinine
C. Hemoglobin
D. Hematocrit
E. Total bilirubin
Explanation: ***Liver transaminases***
- **Elevated liver transaminases** (AST 78 U/L, ALT 67 U/L) that are at least **twice the upper limit of normal** or indicative of hepatocellular damage satisfy a criterion for severe preeclampsia. This suggests liver involvement due to the disease.
- While not explicitly stated as "twice the upper limit of normal" in the prompt, the values are significantly high enough in a clinical context to suggest liver involvement, especially considering normal AST/ALT are typically below 40-50 U/L. The presence of headache and edema further supports preeclampsia.
*Creatinine*
- A **creatinine** level of **0.91 mg/dL** is within the normal range for pregnancy and does not meet the criteria for severe preeclampsia, which typically requires a creatinine >1.1 mg/dL or a doubling of baseline in the absence of other renal disease.
- This value does not indicate **renal insufficiency**, which is a criterion for severe preeclampsia.
*Hemoglobin*
- A **hemoglobin** level of **12.1 g/dL** is within the normal range for a pregnant woman and does not indicate **hemolysis**, which is a criterion for severe preeclampsia (often suggested by an elevated total bilirubin, low haptoglobin, or schistocytes on smear, none of which primarily apply here based on hemoglobin alone).
- Hemoglobin levels are unlikely to be a primary indicator of severe preeclampsia unless there is evidence of **hemolytic anemia**.
*Hematocrit*
- A **hematocrit** of **0.58** (58%) is elevated and could suggest **hemoconcentration**, which might occur in preeclampsia due to plasma volume contraction. However, an elevated hematocrit alone is not a specific diagnostic criterion for severe preeclampsia.
- While reflecting a change in blood volume, it is not a direct marker of end-organ damage used in the diagnostic criteria for severe preeclampsia.
*Total bilirubin*
- A **total bilirubin** of **3.3 mg/dL** is elevated, which can be suggestive of **hemolysis** or liver dysfunction, both of which can occur in severe preeclampsia. However, the conjugated bilirubin is 1.2 mg/dL, leaving an unconjugated bilirubin of 2.1 mg/dL. While elevated, **bilirubin over 1.2 mg/dL** is a criterion for HELLP syndrome, a severe form of preeclampsia, but typically in conjunction with other HELLP features (low platelets, elevated liver enzymes).
- While this is an abnormal finding, the criteria for severe preeclampsia related to liver involvement primarily focus on **transaminase levels and severe symptoms**, or a very high bilirubin with other signs of hemolysis in the context of HELLP syndrome. The transaminases are a more direct and specific indicator in this scenario given the provided context.
Question 104: A 29-year-old G2P1 in her 22nd week of pregnancy presents with a primary complaint of peripheral edema. Her first pregnancy was without any major complications. Evaluation reveals a blood pressure of 160/90 and urinalysis demonstrates elevated levels of protein; both of these values were within normal limits at the patient's last well check-up 1 year ago. Further progression of this patient’s condition would immediately place her at greatest risk for developing which of the following?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Crohn's Disease
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Tubulointerstitial nephritis
E. Seizures (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Seizures***
- The patient presents with **new-onset hypertension** (160/90 mmHg) and **proteinuria** after 20 weeks of gestation, along with peripheral edema, which is diagnostic of **preeclampsia**.
- Progression of preeclampsia to include generalized tonic-clonic seizures is known as **eclampsia**, which is an immediate and severe risk.
*Myocardial infarction*
- While preeclampsia increases the long-term risk of cardiovascular disease, **acute myocardial infarction** is not typically the immediate complication of worsening preeclampsia in a 29-year-old.
- Myocardial infarction in this context would be rare, usually associated with pre-existing cardiac conditions or more severe manifestations of disease.
*Crohn's Disease*
- **Crohn's disease** is an inflammatory bowel disease and has no direct causative or immediate progressive link to preeclampsia.
- The symptoms described (hypertension, proteinuria, edema) are not indicative of an inflammatory bowel process.
*Diabetes mellitus*
- **Gestational diabetes** is a common pregnancy complication but is characterized by hyperglycemia, not hypertension and proteinuria.
- While some cases of preeclampsia can complicate diabetic pregnancies, the immediate progression of preeclampsia itself is not to new-onset diabetes.
*Tubulointerstitial nephritis*
- **Tubulointerstitial nephritis** is an inflammatory kidney condition, but it is not typically an immediate complication directly resulting from the progression of preeclampsia.
- Preeclampsia primarily causes glomerular and endothelial dysfunction, not directly tubulointerstitial inflammation as the next immediate severe step.
Question 105: A 76-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of a 3-month history of vulvar itching and pain. She was diagnosed with lichen sclerosus 4 years ago. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. Physical examination shows a 2.5-cm nodular, ulcerative lesion on the vaginal introitus and left labia minora with surrounding erythema. Punch biopsy shows squamous cell carcinoma. A CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis shows enlarged lymph nodes concerning for metastatic disease. Which of the following lymph node regions is the most likely primary site of metastasis?
A. Superficial inguinal (Correct Answer)
B. Internal iliac
C. External iliac
D. Inferior mesenteric
E. Para-aortic
Explanation: ***Superficial inguinal***
- The **vulva** drains primarily into the **superficial inguinal lymph nodes**, making them the most likely first site for metastatic spread from vulvar squamous cell carcinoma.
- The lesion's location on the **vaginal introitus** and **labia minora** directly correlates with this lymphatic drainage pathway.
*Internal iliac*
- **Internal iliac nodes** receive drainage mainly from deep pelvic structures like the cervix, upper vagina, and uterus, not directly from the vulva.
- Metastasis to these nodes usually occurs after involvement of more superficial nodes or in advanced disease with deeper invasion.
*External iliac*
- **External iliac nodes** generally drain the lower extremities and deeper pelvic structures (e.g., bladder, distal ureter), not the vulva as a primary site.
- Involvement here would typically indicate more advanced local spread or secondary metastasis from other pelvic nodes.
*Inferior mesenteric*
- **Inferior mesenteric nodes** drain the hindgut and its derivatives, including the distal colon and rectum, which are distant from the vulva.
- This region is not involved in the lymphatic drainage of the vulva.
*Para-aortic*
- **Para-aortic nodes** drain structures like the ovaries, fallopian tubes, and upper uterus; they are too superior for primary vulvar lymphatic drainage.
- Metastasis to these nodes from vulvar cancer would signify widespread, very advanced disease and not a primary site of spread.
Question 106: A 27-year-old woman with a past medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and severe anemia of chronic disease presents to the emergency department for nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that started this morning. She has been unable to tolerate oral intake during this time. Her blood pressure is 107/58 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for left lower quadrant abdominal pain upon palpation. A urine pregnancy test is positive, and a serum beta-hCG is 1,110 mIU/mL. A transvaginal ultrasound demonstrates no free fluid and is unable to identify an intrauterine pregnancy. The patient states that she intends to have children in the future. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Repeat beta-hCG in 2 days (Correct Answer)
B. CT scan of the abdomen
C. Methotrexate
D. Salpingostomy
E. Salpingectomy
Explanation: ***Repeat beta-hCG in 2 days***
- With a beta-hCG level of **1,110 mIU/mL** and no intrauterine pregnancy seen on ultrasound, a **repeat beta-hCG in 48 hours** is the most appropriate next step to assess the trend and differentiate between an early, viable intrauterine pregnancy, a non-viable pregnancy (miscarriage), or an ectopic pregnancy.
- The patient is currently **hemodynamically stable**, which allows for expectant management and further diagnostic evaluation rather than immediate intervention.
*CT scan of the abdomen*
- A CT scan of the abdomen exposes the patient to **ionizing radiation**, which is generally avoided in pregnancy unless absolutely necessary.
- It would not provide the specific diagnostic information needed to evaluate for an **ectopic pregnancy** as effectively as serial beta-hCG levels and repeat ultrasound.
*Methotrexate*
- **Methotrexate** is a potential treatment for ectopic pregnancy, but it is not the first step in diagnosis and would only be considered after a definitive diagnosis.
- The patient's **hemodynamic stability** and desire for future fertility make a conservative approach involving more diagnostic steps preferable before initiating medical treatment.
*Salpingostomy*
- **Salpingostomy** is a surgical procedure to remove an ectopic pregnancy while preserving the fallopian tube, but it is a definitive treatment and not a diagnostic step.
- It would be considered for a **confirmed ectopic pregnancy** in a stable patient who desires future fertility, but only after further diagnostic evaluation.
*Salpingectomy*
- **Salpingectomy**, the surgical removal of the fallopian tube, is a treatment for ectopic pregnancy, most often reserved for cases of **rupture**, significant tubal damage, or patients who do not desire future fertility from that tube.
- This patient is **hemodynamically stable** and desires future fertility, making salpingectomy an inappropriate initial choice.
Question 107: A 37-year-old woman presents to the clinic to discuss various options for contraception. The patient has a past medical history of hypertension, Wilson's disease, and constipation-dominant irritable bowel syndrome. The patient takes rivaroxaban and polyethylene glycol. The blood pressure is 152/98 mm Hg. On physical examination, the patient appears alert and oriented. The heart auscultation demonstrates regular rate and rhythm, and it is absent of murmurs. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally without wheezing. The first day of the last menstrual period was 12 days ago. The urine hCG is negative. Given the patient's history and physical examination, which of the following forms of contraception is the most appropriate?
A. Levonorgestrel (Correct Answer)
B. levonorgestrel/ethinyl estradiol
C. Depot-medroxyprogesterone acetate
D. Ethinyl estradiol
E. Copper IUD
Explanation: ***Levonorgestrel***
- This patient has **hypertension** that is not well-controlled given her blood pressure of 152/98 mm Hg, as well as a history of **rivaroxaban** use, indicating a risk for **thromboembolic events.**
- **Progestin-only** contraception, such as a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (IUD) or implant, is generally considered safe and effective in patients with these risk factors because it avoids the estrogenic effects associated with increased risk of **thrombosis** and worsening hypertension.
*Levonorgestrel/ethinyl estradiol*
- This is a **combined hormonal contraceptive** containing both estrogen and progestin.
- The **estrogen component** significantly increases the risk of **thromboembolic events**, which is contraindicated in patients with a history of hypertension and those on anticoagulants like rivaroxaban.
*Depot-medroroxyprogesterone acetate*
- While it is a **progestin-only method** and does not carry the same thromboembolic risks as estrogen, it has been associated with **bone density loss** with long-term use.
- Given the patient's existing medical conditions and the availability of other equally effective progestin-only options without this side effect profile, it may not be the most appropriate first-line choice.
*Ethinyl estradiol*
- This is a form of **estrogen** and would be used in a combined hormonal contraceptive.
- As discussed, the **estrogen component** significantly increases the risk of **thromboembolic events**, which is contraindicated in this patient due to her hypertension and rivaroxaban use.
*Copper IUD*
- The copper IUD is a **non-hormonal** option, making it safe for patients with cardiovascular risk factors or those on anticoagulants.
- However, for patients with **constipation-dominant IBS**, there is a theoretical concern that the insertion and presence of an IUD could exacerbate gastrointestinal symptoms, though this is not a strong contraindication compared to the risks associated with estrogen.
Question 108: A 25-year-old primigravida woman at 35 weeks estimated gestational age presents with a headache for the past 5 hours. She describes the headache as severe and incapacitating and showing no response to acetaminophen. In the emergency department, her blood pressure is found to be 150/100 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, respiratory rate is 30/min, and temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). Her records show that her blood pressure was the same yesterday during her regular antenatal visit. Chest auscultation reveals bilateral crackles along the lung base. Abdominal examination reveals a gravid uterus consistent with a gestational age of 32 weeks and a floating fetus in a cephalic presentation. Pelvic examination is performed which shows a closed firm cervix with no evidence of bleeding or discharge. Moderate pitting edema is noted and neurologic examination shows generalized hyperreflexia. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL
Platelets 185,000/μL
Serum creatinine 0.4 mg/dL
Spot urine creatinine 110 mg/dL
Spot urine protein 360 mg/dL
AST 40 IU/L
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Eclampsia
C. Preeclampsia without severe features
D. HELLP syndrome
E. Preeclampsia with severe features (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Preeclampsia with severe features***
- This patient meets criteria for preeclampsia with severe features based on a **blood pressure ≥160/110 mm Hg** (or ≥140/90 mm Hg with severe features), **new-onset proteinuria**, and symptoms such as **severe headache**, **pulmonary edema** (bilateral crackles), and **hyperreflexia**. The blood pressure was 150/100, which is elevated. The proteinuria is significant, and the **spot urine protein-to-creatinine ratio is 3.27**, which is greater than 0.3.
- The severe headache, pulmonary edema, and hyperreflexia are all indicative of severe features, requiring prompt management to prevent complications like eclampsia.
*Gestational hypertension*
- **Gestational hypertension** is diagnosed when there is persistent hypertension (BP ≥140/90 mmHg) after 20 weeks of gestation **without proteinuria** or other signs of end-organ damage.
- This patient has significant proteinuria and symptoms of end-organ compromise (headache, pulmonary edema, hyperreflexia), which rules out gestational hypertension.
*Eclampsia*
- **Eclampsia** is characterized by the onset of **seizures** in a woman with preeclampsia, which is not described in this case.
- While the patient has severe features of preeclampsia and is at high risk for eclampsia, she has not yet experienced a seizure.
*Preeclampsia without severe features*
- **Preeclampsia without severe features** involves hypertension and proteinuria **without** any of the severe signs or symptoms.
- This patient presents with a **severe headache**, **pulmonary edema**, and **hyperreflexia**, all of which are defining characteristics of preeclampsia with severe features.
*HELLP syndrome*
- **HELLP syndrome** is a severe form of preeclampsia characterized by **Hemolysis**, **Elevated Liver enzymes**, and **Low Platelet count**.
- This patient's laboratory results show **normal platelets (185,000/μL)** and **normal AST (40 IU/L)**, ruling out HELLP syndrome.
Question 109: A G1P0 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of difficulty breathing and coughing up blood for 2 days. Past medical history is significant for molar pregnancy 6 months ago. The patient was lost to follow up as she was abruptly laid off and had to stay at a homeless shelter for the past few months. She endorses nausea and vomiting, abdominal discomfort, and “feeling hot all the time.” The patient is a past smoker of 1 pack per day for 10 years. Vital signs are within normal limits except for tachycardia. What is the disease process that most likely explains this patient’s symptoms?
A. Malignant proliferation of trophoblastic tissue (Correct Answer)
B. Malignant proliferation of squamous cells in the lung
C. Acute infection with campylobacter jejuni
D. Infectious process by mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Excessive production of thyroid hormone
Explanation: **Malignant proliferation of trophoblastic tissue**
- This patient's history of a **molar pregnancy** 6 months ago, followed by symptoms of **hemoptysis**, **difficulty breathing**, **nausea/vomiting**, and **abdominal discomfort**, is highly suggestive of **metastatic gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN)**.
- GTN, particularly **choriocarcinoma**, can spread aggressively, most commonly to the lungs, presenting with respiratory symptoms and hemoptysis, and can also cause widespread systemic symptoms due to elevated **hCG** and distant metastases.
*Malignant proliferation of squamous cells in the lung*
- While **smoking** is a risk factor for **squamous cell carcinoma of the lung**, the patient's specific history of a **molar pregnancy** and the constellation of symptoms (nausea, vomiting, abdominal discomfort, "feeling hot") points more strongly towards GTN.
- Lung cancer typically doesn't present with symptoms like persistent nausea, vomiting, or abdominal discomfort unless there is advanced metastatic disease in those areas, which doesn't fit the primary cause here.
*Acute infection with campylobacter jejuni*
- **Campylobacter jejuni** causes acute **gastroenteritis**, characterized by diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever, and sometimes bloody stools, but it does not cause hemoptysis or relate to a past molar pregnancy.
- The presented symptoms are more systemic and involve respiratory compromise not typical of isolated gastrointestinal infection.
*Infectious process by mycobacterium tuberculosis*
- **Mycobacterium tuberculosis** can cause **hemoptysis** and respiratory symptoms, especially in individuals with compromised living situations, but it does not explain the history of molar pregnancy or the systemic symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal discomfort in this context.
- The rapid onset of symptoms and the specific obstetric history make tuberculosis less likely as the primary diagnosis.
*Excessive production of thyroid hormone*
- **Hyperthyroidism** can cause tachycardia and a sensation of "feeling hot," but it would not explain the **hemoptysis**, **difficulty breathing**, **nausea**, **vomiting**, or **abdominal discomfort** described in this patient.
- While gestational trophoblastic disease can sometimes lead to transient hyperthyroidism due to high hCG levels mimicking TSH, it is a secondary effect and not the primary disease process causing all symptoms.
Question 110: A 38-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician concerned about her inability to get pregnant for the past year. She has regular menstrual cycles and has unprotected intercourse with her husband daily. She is an immigrant from Australia and her past medical history is not known. She is currently taking folic acid and multivitamins. The patient's husband has had a sperm count that was determined to be within the normal range twice. She is very concerned about her lack of pregnancy and that she is too old. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
A. Repeat semen count
B. Assess ovulation with an ovulation calendar
C. Perform hysterosalpingogram (Correct Answer)
D. Advise against pregnancy given the patient's age
E. Continue regular intercourse for 1 year
Explanation: ***Perform hysterosalpingogram***
- Given the patient’s age and duration of infertility (1 year at age 38, typically evaluation starts earlier for those over 35), assessing **tubal patency** with a **hysterosalpingogram (HSG)** is an essential step in the infertility workup.
- HSG can identify structural abnormalities like **blocked fallopian tubes** or **uterine anomalies**, which are common causes of infertility.
*Repeat semen count*
- The husband has already had **two normal semen analyses**, making further repeated testing at this stage less likely to yield new information or be the most appropriate next step.
- While male factor infertility is common, it has been reasonably excluded here, shifting the focus to female factors.
*Assess ovulation with an ovulation calendar*
- The patient reports having **regular menstrual cycles**, which strongly suggests she is **ovulating regularly**.
- Ovulation calendars are often used to identify the fertile window but are less useful for confirming ovulation in someone with regular cycles when investigating infertility causes.
*Advise against pregnancy given the patient's age*
- While **fertility declines with age**, advising against pregnancy is inappropriate and **premature** without a proper infertility workup.
- Many women in their late 30s and early 40s successfully conceive with appropriate management and intervention.
*Continue regular intercourse for 1 year*
- For women aged 35 or older, an infertility evaluation is typically initiated after **6 months of unprotected intercourse** without conception.
- The patient is 38 and has been trying for a year, so further delay is not recommended; an immediate workup is warranted.