Maternal cancer in pregnancy — MCQs

A 20-year-old woman presents with nausea, fatigue, and breast tenderness. She is sexually active with two partners and occasionally uses condoms during intercourse. A β-hCG urinary test is positive. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals an 8-week fetus in the uterine cavity. The patient is distressed by this news and requests an immediate abortion. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in management?

A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 12 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Pregnancy and vaginal delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. Five years ago, she was diagnosed with hypertension but reports that she has been noncompliant with her hypertension regimen. The patient does not smoke or drink alcohol. She does not use illicit drugs. Medications include methyldopa, folic acid, and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies, including serum glucose level, and thyroid-stimulating hormone concentration, are within normal limits. The patient is at increased risk of developing which of the following complications?

A 40-year-old, gravida 2, nulliparous woman, at 14 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of a 6-hour history of light vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal discomfort. Eight months ago she had a spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks' gestation. Her pulse is 92/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 134/76 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows no tenderness or masses; bowel sounds are normal. On pelvic examination, there is old blood in the vaginal vault and at the closed cervical os. The uterus is larger than expected for the length of gestation and there are bilateral adnexal masses. Serum β-hCG concentration is 120,000 mIU/ml. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 24-year-old primigravida presents at 36 weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding, mild abdominal pain, and uterine contractions that appeared after bumping into a handrail. The vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg, heart rate 79/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and temperature 36.5℃ (97.7℉). The fetal heart rate was 145/min. Uterine fundus is at the level of the xiphoid process. Slight uterine tenderness and contractions are noted on palpation. The perineum is bloody. The gynecologic examination shows no vaginal or cervical lesions. The cervix is long and closed. Streaks of bright red blood are passing through the cervix. A transabdominal ultrasound shows the placenta to be attached to the lateral uterine wall with a marginal retroplacental hematoma (an approximate volume of 150 ml). The maternal hematocrit is 36%. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?

An obese 34-year-old primigravid woman at 20 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a follow-up examination for a mass she found in her left breast 2 weeks ago. Until pregnancy, menses had occurred at 30- to 40-day intervals since the age of 11 years. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a 3.0-cm, non-mobile, firm, and nontender mass in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. There is no palpable axillary lymphadenopathy. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 20-week gestation. Mammography and core needle biopsy confirm an infiltrating lobular carcinoma. The pathological specimen is positive for estrogen and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) receptors and negative for progesterone receptors. Staging shows no distant metastatic disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician at 28 weeks' gestation for a prenatal visit. Over the past 2 months, she has developed a hoarse voice and facial hair. Her medications include iron and a multivitamin. The last fetal ultrasonography, performed at 21 weeks' gestation, was unremarkable. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows facial acne and hirsutism. Pelvic examination shows clitoromegaly. The uterus is consistent in size with a 28-week gestation. There are bilateral adnexal masses present on palpation. Ultrasonography shows a single live intrauterine pregnancy consistent with a 28-week gestation and bilateral 6-cm solid, multinodular ovarian masses. Serum androgen levels are increased. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 29-year-old woman presents to a medical office complaining of fatigue, nausea, and vomiting for 1 week. Recently, the smell of certain foods makes her nauseous. Her symptoms are more pronounced in the mornings. The emesis is clear-to-yellow without blood. She has had no recent travel out of the country. The medical history is significant for peptic ulcer, for which she takes pantoprazole. The blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, the pulse is 70/min, and the respiratory rate is 12/min. The physical examination reveals pale mucosa and conjunctiva, and bilateral breast tenderness. The LMP was 9 weeks ago. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A G1P0 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of difficulty breathing and coughing up blood for 2 days. Past medical history is significant for molar pregnancy 6 months ago. The patient was lost to follow up as she was abruptly laid off and had to stay at a homeless shelter for the past few months. She endorses nausea and vomiting, abdominal discomfort, and “feeling hot all the time.” The patient is a past smoker of 1 pack per day for 10 years. Vital signs are within normal limits except for tachycardia. What is the disease process that most likely explains this patient’s symptoms?

A 25-year-old woman presents to her physician with a missed mense and occasional morning nausea. Her menstrual cycles have previously been normal and on time. She has hypothyroidism resulting from Hashimoto thyroiditis diagnosed 2 years ago. She receives levothyroxine (50 mcg daily) and is euthyroid. She does not take any other medications, including birth control pills. At the time of presentation, her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate 68/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and temperature 36.5℃ (97.7℉). The physical examination shows slight breast engorgement and nipple hyperpigmentation. The gynecologic examination reveals cervical softening and increased mobility. The uterus is enlarged. There are no adnexal masses. The thyroid panel is as follows: Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.41 mU/L Total T4 111 nmol/L Free T4 20 pmol/L Which of the following adjustments should be made to the patient’s therapy?

A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 25 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of fever and right-sided flank pain. During this period, she also had chills, nausea, vomiting, and burning on urination. Her last prenatal visit was 10 weeks ago. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 39°C (102.2°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows costovertebral angle tenderness on the right. The abdomen is soft and nontender, and no contractions are felt. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 25-week gestation. Fetal heart rate is 170/min. Laboratory studies show: Leukocyte count 15,000/mm3 Urine Nitrite 2+ Protein 1+ Blood 1+ RBC 5/hpf WBC 500/hpf Blood and urine samples are obtained for culture and drug sensitivity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?