Advanced maternal age — MCQs

A 39-year-old G3P0 woman presents for preconception counseling and evaluation. The patient’s past medical history reveals hypertension and type 1 diabetes. She is currently on an insulin pump and medications for hypertension including labetalol. Her blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg; pulse, 76/min; and BMI, 26 kg/m2. Her most recent HbA1c is 6.5%. Her previous pregnancies ended in spontaneous abortion during the 1st trimester despite adequate prenatal care. The patient intends to have a healthy pregnancy and desires to learn more about the risk factors that potentially trigger miscarriage. Which of the following maternal risk factors is most likely associated with early pregnancy loss?

Immediately following prolonged delivery of the placenta at 40 weeks gestation, a 32-year-old multiparous woman develops vaginal bleeding. Other than mild asthma, the patient’s pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has attended many prenatal appointments and followed the physician's advice about screening for diseases, laboratory testing, diet, and exercise. Previous pregnancies were uncomplicated. She has no history of a serious illness. She is currently on intravenous infusion of oxytocin. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 108/60 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 17/min. Uterine palpation reveals a soft enlarged fundus that extends above the umbilicus. Based on the assessment of the birth canal and placenta, which of the following options is the most appropriate initial step in patient management?

A 28-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 30 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of headache for the past 5 days. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date. Pregnancy and vaginal delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. The patient does not smoke or drink alcohol. She does not use illicit drugs. Medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 82/min, and blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 11.8 g/dL Platelet count 290,000/mm3 Urine pH 6.3 Protein 2+ WBC negative Bacteria occasional Nitrites negative The patient is at increased risk of developing which of the following complications?

A 35-year-old woman gravida 2, para 1, comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. She is not sure about the date of her last menstrual period. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 10-week gestation. An ultrasound examination confirms the gestational age and shows one fetus with no indication of multiple gestations. During counseling on pregnancy risks and possible screening and diagnostic tests, the patient states she would like to undergo screening for Down syndrome. She would prefer immediate and secure screening with a low risk to herself and the fetus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management at this time?

A 37-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician at 13 weeks' gestation for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Her only medication is folic acid. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 13-week gestation. Ultrasonography shows a nuchal translucency above the 99th percentile. Maternal serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein A is decreased and human chorionic gonadotropin concentrations are elevated to 2 times the median level. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 26 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department because of frequent contractions. The contractions are 40 seconds each, occurring every 2 minutes, and increasing in intensity. Her first child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of a nonreassuring fetal heart rate. Her current medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), heart rate is 88/min, and blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg. Contractions are felt on the abdomen. There is clear fluid in the vulva and the introitus. The cervix is dilated to 5 cm, 70% effaced, and station of the head is -2. A fetal ultrasound shows polyhydramnios, a median cleft lip, and fused thalami. The corpus callosum, 3rd ventricle, and lateral ventricles are absent. The spine shows no abnormalities and there is a four chamber heart. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 28 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F) and blood pressure is 163/105 mm Hg. Her blood pressure 10 weeks ago was 128/84 mm Hg. At her last visit two weeks ago, her blood pressure was 142/92 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 28-week gestation. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, creatinine, and hepatic transaminases are within the reference range. A urinalysis is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician at 36 weeks' gestation for her first prenatal visit. She confirmed the pregnancy with a home urine pregnancy kit a few months ago but has not yet followed up with a physician. She takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 36-week gestation. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 10.6 g/dL Serum Glucose 88 mg/dL Hepatitis B surface antigen negative Hepatitis C antibody negative HIV antibody positive HIV load 11,000 copies/mL (N < 1000 copies/mL) Ultrasonography shows an intrauterine fetus consistent in size with a 36-week gestation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

A 36-year-old G3P2002 presents to her obstetrician’s office for her first prenatal visit at ten weeks and two days gestation. She notes that she has felt nauseous the last several mornings and has been especially tired for a few weeks. Otherwise, she feels well. The patient has had two uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal deliveries at full term with her last child born six years ago. She is concerned about the risk of Down syndrome in this fetus, as her sister gave birth to an affected child at age 43. The patient has a history of generalized anxiety disorder, atopic dermatitis, and she is currently on escitalopram. At this visit, this patient’s temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse is 70/min, blood pressure is 121/67 mmHg, and respirations are 13/min. The patient appears anxious, but overall comfortable, and cardiopulmonary and abdominal exams are unremarkable. Pelvic exam reveals normal female external genitalia, a closed and slightly soft cervix, a ten-week-sized uterus, and no adnexal masses. Which of the following is the best next step for definitively determining whether this patient’s fetus has Down syndrome?

Six hours after giving birth to a healthy 3100 g (6 lb 13oz) girl, a 40-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1 suddenly has a tonic-clonic seizure for 2-minutes while on the ward. She had been complaining of headache, blurry vision, and abdominal pain for an hour before the incident. Her pregnancy was complicated by gestational hypertension and iron deficiency anemia. Her medications until birth included labetalol, iron supplements, and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.7°F), pulse is 95/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 152/100 mm Hg. The cranial nerves are intact. Muscle strength is normal. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ with a shortened relaxation phase. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?