A 6-year-old female from a rural village in Afghanistan presents with her mother to a local health center complaining of leg weakness. Her mother also reports that the patient had a fever, fatigue, and headache a week prior that resolved. The patient has not received any immunizations since being born. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination reveals 1/5 strength in right hip and knee actions and 0/5 strength in left hip and knee actions. Tone is notably decreased in both lower extremities. Sensation to touch, temperature, and vibration is intact. Patellar and Achilles reflexes are absent bilaterally. The most likely cause of this patient’s condition has which of the following characteristics?
Q12
A 15-year-old girl presents to her primary care physician with her parents. She is complaining of fever and a sore throat for the past 4 days. She was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery and is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. Her boyfriend at school has the same symptoms including fever and sore throat. Today, her heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 17/min, blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, and temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F). Examination revealed cervical lymphadenopathy and mild hepatosplenomegaly. Oral exam reveals focal tonsillar exudate. A monospot test is positive. This patient is most likely infected with which of the following viruses?
Q13
A previously healthy 32-year-old male comes to the emergency department because of a high-grade fever and malaise for 3 days. He has severe generalized joint and body pains refractory to acetaminophen. He also has a severe stabbing pain behind his eyes. He returned from a trip to Taiwan 1 week ago. He is sexually active and uses condoms inconsistently. His temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F), pulse is 102/min, and blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg. Examination shows nontender inguinal lymphadenopathy. There is a maculopapular rash over the trunk and extremities with some sparing of the skin over his back and groin. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.3 g/dL
Leukocyte count 3,900/mm3
Platelet count 90,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
K+ 4.2 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 15 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Bilirubin
Total 0.4 mg/dL
Direct 0.1 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 40 U/L
AST 130 U/L
ALT 60 U/L
Urinalysis is normal. An ELISA test for HIV is negative. Which of the following measures is most likely to have prevented this patient’s condition?
Q14
A researcher is studying the mammalian immune response with an unknown virus. A group of mice are inoculated with the virus, and blood is subsequently drawn from these animals at various intervals to check immunoglobulin levels. Which of the following is a critical step in the endogenous pathway of antigen presentation for the virus model presented above?
Q15
A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room for altered mental status and rapid twitching of her left hand 3 hours ago. The patient is a poor historian given her current mental status, and her husband provided most of the history. He reports that the patient started demonstrating bizarre behavior about 2 weeks ago. She would be up until late into the night working on a “genius project” she had and had elaborate plans to double their joint investments. This morning, she began having speech difficulties, and her left hand jerked uncontrollably for the 10 minutes. He denies loss of consciousness, urinary incontinence, vision changes, or sick contacts. Her past medical history is significant for an adequately treated syphilis infection 10 years ago. Her temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 118/70 mmHg, pulse is 103/min, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. A physical examination demonstrates a lethargic individual with neck stiffness. A computed tomography of the head is unremarkable, and a cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) study is shown below.
Cell count: 760/mm3
Cell type: Lymphocytes
Glucose: 60 mg/dL
Pressure: 100 mmH2O
Proteins: 35 mg/dL
Erythrocytes: 130/mm^3
What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
Q16
A 16-year-old boy comes to the physician because of a painful lesion on the sole of his right foot for 1 month. It has become progressively larger and more painful, making it difficult for him to walk. He does not have any personal or family history of serious illness. Three years ago he was hospitalized for an ankle fracture that required open reduction and internal fixation. He has moderate facial acne for which he is not receiving any treatment right now. His immunizations are up-to-date. Examination shows a 1-cm lesion on the sole of his foot. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. A photograph of his sole is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the lesion?
Q17
A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 24 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department by her husband for lethargy, nausea, and vomiting for 4 days. She returned from a trip to South Asia 2 weeks ago. Her immunizations are up-to-date and she has never received blood products. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). She is not oriented to person, place, and time. Examination shows jaundice and mild asterixis. Her prothrombin time is 18 sec (INR=2.0), serum alanine aminotransferase is 3911 U/L, and serum aspartate aminotransferase is 3724 U/L. This patient's current condition is most likely associated with increased titers of which of the following serum studies?
Q18
A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with diarrhea. Several days ago, he experienced a fever which has progressed to vomiting and diarrhea. He has had multiple episodes of non-bloody diarrhea and states that he feels fatigued. He is not up to date on his vaccinations and takes many different herbal supplements from his parents. His temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 100/55 mmHg, pulse is 111/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for dry mucous membranes and a fatigued appearing child. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient’s symptoms?
Q19
A 9-year-old boy with a history of acute lymphoblastic leukemia is brought to the clinic by his mother because of pruritic vesicles that appeared on the left side of his torso 12 hours ago. One day earlier, before the appearance of the vesicles, the patient's mother notes that he had been complaining of a burning sensation in that area. The boy has been receiving chemotherapy consisting of methotrexate, cytarabine, and cyclophosphamide for 1 month. He received the last treatment 2 days ago. He has no other past medical history. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Upon physical examination, painful vesicles are localized to the left C7 skin dermatome (see image). Which of the following is the most likely etiology of the skin lesions in this patient?
Q20
A scientist is studying the influenza A virus. He focuses on two strains – one from humans (H7N1) and one from horses (H3N8). He takes cells from chickens and coinfects these cells with both influenza strains. From these chicken cells, the scientist isolates a new strain and finds that this new strain can infect human cells. He further characterizes the new strain’s hemagglutinin and neuraminidase description as H7N8. What term best describes the process that underlies these experimental results?
Viruses US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: A 6-year-old female from a rural village in Afghanistan presents with her mother to a local health center complaining of leg weakness. Her mother also reports that the patient had a fever, fatigue, and headache a week prior that resolved. The patient has not received any immunizations since being born. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination reveals 1/5 strength in right hip and knee actions and 0/5 strength in left hip and knee actions. Tone is notably decreased in both lower extremities. Sensation to touch, temperature, and vibration is intact. Patellar and Achilles reflexes are absent bilaterally. The most likely cause of this patient’s condition has which of the following characteristics?
A. Non-enveloped (+) ssRNA virus (Correct Answer)
B. Enveloped (-) ssRNA virus
C. Enveloped (+) ssRNA virus
D. dsRNA virus
E. Non-enveloped (-) ssRNA virus
Explanation: ***Non-enveloped (+) ssRNA virus***
- This describes **Poliovirus**, the causative agent of polio, which is characterized by **acute flaccid paralysis** and absent reflexes due to damage to **anterior horn cells**.
- The patient's presentation with **unvaccinated status**, **acute onset of asymmetric flaccid paralysis** following a febrile illness, and **areflexia** is highly suggestive of poliomyelitis.
*Enveloped (-) ssRNA virus*
- This describes viruses such as **Measles**, **Mumps**, or **Rabies**, which cause different clinical syndromes and are not typically associated with acute flaccid paralysis.
- While these can cause neurological symptoms, they manifest differently (e.g., encephalitis, specific rashes) and are not the primary cause of the described motor deficits.
*Enveloped (+) ssRNA virus*
- This describes viruses like **Dengue**, **Zika**, or **Coronaviruses (SARS-CoV-2)**, which are associated with various fever syndromes, rashes, or respiratory illness, but not typically the specific flaccid paralysis seen here.
- While some can cause neurological complications (e.g., Guillain-Barré syndrome with Zika), the direct neuronal damage leading to areflexic flaccid paralysis as seen in polio is not characteristic.
*dsRNA virus*
- This describes viruses like **Rotavirus**, which primarily cause **gastroenteritis** (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea), or **Reoviruses**.
- They are not known to cause acute flaccid paralysis or the specific neurological findings described in the patient.
*Non-enveloped (-) ssRNA virus*
- This type of virus is less common, but the description does not fit the typical etiologies for acute flaccid paralysis. Most common medically relevant (-) ssRNA viruses are enveloped.
- This classification does not align with any known human pathogen that presents with the classic symptoms of poliomyelitis.
Question 12: A 15-year-old girl presents to her primary care physician with her parents. She is complaining of fever and a sore throat for the past 4 days. She was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery and is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. Her boyfriend at school has the same symptoms including fever and sore throat. Today, her heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 17/min, blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, and temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F). Examination revealed cervical lymphadenopathy and mild hepatosplenomegaly. Oral exam reveals focal tonsillar exudate. A monospot test is positive. This patient is most likely infected with which of the following viruses?
A. Varicella virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Epstein-Barr virus (Correct Answer)
E. Variola virus
Explanation: ***Epstein-Barr virus***
- The symptoms of fever, sore throat, **cervical lymphadenopathy**, **hepatosplenomegaly**, and **tonsillar exudates** in an adolescent, coupled with a **positive Monospot test**, are highly characteristic of **infectious mononucleosis** caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
- The positive Monospot test detects **heterophile antibodies**, which are a hallmark of acute EBV infection and essentially confirms the diagnosis
*Varicella virus*
- Varicella virus (chickenpox) typically presents with a **pruritic vesicular rash** that progresses through different stages (macules → papules → vesicles → crusts), which is not described in this patient
- While fever can be present, the distinctive rash, rather than lymphadenopathy and tonsillar exudates, is the defining feature
*Cytomegalovirus*
- Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can cause a **mononucleosis-like syndrome** with similar clinical features
- However, CMV mononucleosis typically presents with **negative heterophile antibodies** (negative Monospot test), which distinguishes it from EBV
- This patient's positive Monospot test makes CMV unlikely as the primary cause
*Herpes simplex virus*
- Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections typically cause **oral ulcers** (cold sores), **gingivostomatitis**, or **genital lesions**
- While HSV can cause fever and sore throat, it would not typically lead to the diffuse lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and positive Monospot test seen in this case
*Variola virus*
- Variola virus (smallpox) is characterized by a **distinctive rash** of deep-seated pustules that begin on the face and extremities, often with systemic symptoms like high fever and malaise
- Smallpox has been **eradicated worldwide since 1980**, making this diagnosis impossible in contemporary practice
- The presentation is distinctly different from the symptoms described, especially with the absence of the characteristic rash
Question 13: A previously healthy 32-year-old male comes to the emergency department because of a high-grade fever and malaise for 3 days. He has severe generalized joint and body pains refractory to acetaminophen. He also has a severe stabbing pain behind his eyes. He returned from a trip to Taiwan 1 week ago. He is sexually active and uses condoms inconsistently. His temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F), pulse is 102/min, and blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg. Examination shows nontender inguinal lymphadenopathy. There is a maculopapular rash over the trunk and extremities with some sparing of the skin over his back and groin. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.3 g/dL
Leukocyte count 3,900/mm3
Platelet count 90,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
K+ 4.2 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 15 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Bilirubin
Total 0.4 mg/dL
Direct 0.1 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 40 U/L
AST 130 U/L
ALT 60 U/L
Urinalysis is normal. An ELISA test for HIV is negative. Which of the following measures is most likely to have prevented this patient’s condition?
A. Frequent hand washing
B. Prophylaxis with doxycycline
C. Vaccination
D. Safe sexual practices
E. Mosquito repellent (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Mosquito repellent***
- The patient's symptoms (high fever, severe body pains, retro-orbital pain, rash, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and recent travel to Taiwan) are highly suggestive of **Dengue fever**, which is a **mosquito-borne** illness.
- **Mosquito repellents** are the most effective method for preventing mosquito bites and, consequently, Dengue infection in endemic areas.
*Frequent hand washing*
- Frequent hand washing is crucial for preventing the spread of **fecal-oral pathogens** and **respiratory viruses**, but it does not protect against mosquito-borne diseases like Dengue.
- This practice is important for general hygiene but irrelevant to the transmission mechanism of the patient's likely condition.
*Prophylaxis with doxycycline*
- **Doxycycline** is used for prophylaxis against certain bacterial infections, such as **malaria** (though other drugs are preferred for some regions) and some rickettsial diseases.
- It is **ineffective** against viral infections like Dengue fever, which is the likely diagnosis in this case.
*Vaccination*
- While a **Dengue vaccine (Dengvaxia)** exists, it is approved for specific populations (individuals with confirmed prior Dengue infection) and has limitations.
- The most reliable and widely recommended preventive measure for travelers to Dengue-endemic areas remains **mosquito bite prevention**, which includes repellents.
*Safe sexual practices*
- Safe sexual practices, such as consistent condom use, prevent the transmission of **sexually transmitted infections (STIs)**, including HIV, syphilis, and gonorrhea.
- The patient's symptoms and travel history do not align with common STIs, and his HIV test was negative, making this measure irrelevant to his current condition.
Question 14: A researcher is studying the mammalian immune response with an unknown virus. A group of mice are inoculated with the virus, and blood is subsequently drawn from these animals at various intervals to check immunoglobulin levels. Which of the following is a critical step in the endogenous pathway of antigen presentation for the virus model presented above?
A. Translocation of the antigen into the endoplasmic reticulum via TAP proteins (Correct Answer)
B. Degradation of the antigen by the proteases in the phagolysosome
C. Binding of the peptide to MHC class II
D. Translocation of the antigen into endosome after phagocytosis
E. Interaction of the MHC class II complex with its target CD4+ T cell
Explanation: ***Translocation of the antigen into the endoplasmic reticulum via TAP proteins***
- The **endogenous pathway** processes **intracellular antigens**, such as those from viruses, presenting them on **MHC class I** molecules.
- After proteolytic degradation of viral proteins in the **cytosol** by the **proteasome**, the resulting peptides are transported into the **endoplasmic reticulum (ER)** by **TAP (transporter associated with antigen processing) proteins** to bind with MHC class I molecules.
*Degradation of the antigen by the proteases in the phagolysosome*
- This process describes the degradation of **extracellular antigens** within the **phagolysosome** for presentation via the **exogenous pathway (MHC class II)**.
- Viral antigens, being replicated *intracellularly*, are primarily handled by the endogenous pathway.
*Binding of the peptide to MHC class II*
- This step is characteristic of the **exogenous pathway** of antigen presentation, which primarily handles **extracellular antigens**.
- **MHC class II molecules** are typically loaded with peptides derived from endocytosed or phagocytosed antigens in **endosomal/lysosomal compartments.**
*Translocation of the antigen into endosome after phagocytosis*
- **Endosomes** and **phagocytosis** are key components of the **exogenous pathway** for presenting extracellular antigens.
- This mechanism is not typically associated with the processing and presentation of **intracellular viral antigens** for **MHC class I**.
*Interaction of the MHC class II complex with its target CD4+ T cell*
- This describes a downstream event of antigen presentation, specifically the interaction involving **MHC class II** and **CD4+ T cells**, which is part of the **exogenous pathway**.
- The question asks for a critical step in the *endogenous pathway* of antigen presentation.
Question 15: A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room for altered mental status and rapid twitching of her left hand 3 hours ago. The patient is a poor historian given her current mental status, and her husband provided most of the history. He reports that the patient started demonstrating bizarre behavior about 2 weeks ago. She would be up until late into the night working on a “genius project” she had and had elaborate plans to double their joint investments. This morning, she began having speech difficulties, and her left hand jerked uncontrollably for the 10 minutes. He denies loss of consciousness, urinary incontinence, vision changes, or sick contacts. Her past medical history is significant for an adequately treated syphilis infection 10 years ago. Her temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 118/70 mmHg, pulse is 103/min, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. A physical examination demonstrates a lethargic individual with neck stiffness. A computed tomography of the head is unremarkable, and a cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) study is shown below.
Cell count: 760/mm3
Cell type: Lymphocytes
Glucose: 60 mg/dL
Pressure: 100 mmH2O
Proteins: 35 mg/dL
Erythrocytes: 130/mm^3
What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
A. Brain abscess
B. Infection with herpes simplex virus (Correct Answer)
C. Neurosyphilis
D. Undiagnosed bipolar disorder
E. Infection with Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation: ***Infection with herpes simplex virus***
- The patient's presentation with **altered mental status**, focal neurological deficits (left hand twitching, speech difficulties), and **bizarre behavior** (mania-like symptoms) suggests **herpes simplex encephalitis**.
- The CSF analysis showing **lymphocytic pleocytosis**, normal glucose, and a slightly elevated protein are consistent with **viral encephalitis**. The presence of **RBCs in the CSF** is also highly suggestive of HSV encephalitis due to its propensity to cause **hemorrhagic necrosis** in the temporal lobes.
*Brain abscess*
- A brain abscess typically presents with **fever**, **headache**, and **focal neurological deficits**, similar to viral encephalitis.
- However, brain abscesses often show **neutrophilic pleocytosis** in the CSF and may have a **ring-enhancing lesion** on CT/MRI, which was not described here (unremarkable CT).
*Infection with Streptococcus pneumoniae*
- Infection with *Streptococcus pneumoniae* would cause **bacterial meningitis**, which is characterized by a **high fever**, **neck stiffness**, and altered mental status.
- The CSF analysis for bacterial meningitis typically shows **neutrophilic predominance**, **low glucose**, and **significantly elevated protein**, which is not seen in this patient's CSF.
*Neurosyphilis*
- While the patient has a history of treated syphilis, **neurosyphilis** can present with myriad neurological and psychiatric symptoms, including altered mental status and behavioral changes.
- However, the rapid onset of focal neurological symptoms and the CSF findings (particularly the high cell count with relatively normal protein and glucose, and presence of RBCs) are *less typical* for neurosyphilis and more indicative of an acute viral encephalitis.
*Undiagnosed bipolar disorder*
- The patient's initial "bizarre behavior" and grandiosity (elaborate plans, "genius project") could suggest a **manic episode** consistent with bipolar disorder.
- However, the subsequent rapid decline in mental status, development of **focal neurological deficits** (twitching, speech difficulties), **fever**, and **abnormal CSF findings** rule out bipolar disorder as the sole explanation for her current presentation.
Question 16: A 16-year-old boy comes to the physician because of a painful lesion on the sole of his right foot for 1 month. It has become progressively larger and more painful, making it difficult for him to walk. He does not have any personal or family history of serious illness. Three years ago he was hospitalized for an ankle fracture that required open reduction and internal fixation. He has moderate facial acne for which he is not receiving any treatment right now. His immunizations are up-to-date. Examination shows a 1-cm lesion on the sole of his foot. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. A photograph of his sole is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the lesion?
A. Malignant transformation
B. Poxvirus
C. Trauma
D. Benign growth
E. Human papilloma virus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Human papilloma virus***
- The description of a **painful, progressively enlarging lesion** on the sole of the foot, making it difficult to walk, is classic for a **plantar wart** caused by **HPV**.
- Warts are a common **benign growth** in adolescents, often presenting as firm, rough papules with punctate black dots (thrombosed capillaries).
*Malignant transformation*
- While possible, **malignant transformation** of a solitary, rapidly growing foot lesion in a 16-year-old with no other risk factors is **highly unlikely**.
- **Melanoma** or squamous cell carcinoma would be considered in older patients or those with risk factors like sun exposure or immunosuppression.
*Poxvirus*
- **Poxviruses** primarily cause diseases like **molluscum contagiosum** or **smallpox**.
- **Molluscum contagiosum** presents as small, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication, which is not consistent with the described lesion.
*Trauma*
- While trauma can initiate lesion formation, the progressive growth and painful nature over a month suggest an **infectious or proliferative process** rather than a simple traumatic injury.
- A traumatic lesion would typically be more acute and show signs of healing rather than progressive enlargement.
*Benign growth*
- **Benign growth** is a broad term; while a plantar wart is technically a benign growth, this option is too general and less specific than **human papilloma virus (HPV)**.
- Specifying HPV as the cause provides the direct etiologic agent for the observed clinical features.
Question 17: A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 24 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department by her husband for lethargy, nausea, and vomiting for 4 days. She returned from a trip to South Asia 2 weeks ago. Her immunizations are up-to-date and she has never received blood products. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). She is not oriented to person, place, and time. Examination shows jaundice and mild asterixis. Her prothrombin time is 18 sec (INR=2.0), serum alanine aminotransferase is 3911 U/L, and serum aspartate aminotransferase is 3724 U/L. This patient's current condition is most likely associated with increased titers of which of the following serum studies?
A. Anti-HAV IgM
B. Anti-HCV IgG
C. Anti-HEV IgM (Correct Answer)
D. Anti-HBc IgM
E. HBsAg
Explanation: ***Anti-HEV IgM***
- The patient's presentation with **acute liver failure** (jaundice, encephalopathy, coagulopathy, elevated aminotransferases) following a trip to South Asia, especially during pregnancy, is highly suggestive of **hepatitis E virus (HEV) infection**.
- **IgM antibodies** indicate an **acute infection**, and HEV can have a particularly severe course in pregnant women, leading to high mortality rates.
*Anti-HAV IgM*
- This would indicate an **acute hepatitis A virus (HAV) infection**, which is transmitted feco-orally and endemic in regions like South Asia.
- While HAV can cause acute hepatitis, it typically has a **milder course in adults** and is **not associated with the severe liver failure and high mortality** seen in pregnant women that is characteristic of HEV.
*Anti-HCV IgG*
- **IgG antibodies** to hepatitis C virus (HCV) indicate **past exposure or chronic infection**, not acute hepatitis.
- Acute HCV infection is often asymptomatic or mild and rarely causes the fulminant liver failure described here.
*Anti-HBc IgM*
- **IgM antibodies to hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg)** indicate **acute hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection**.
- While acute HBV can cause severe hepatitis, the combination of **pregnancy, travel to South Asia, and the rapid progression to liver failure** makes HEV a more likely culprit in this specific clinical context.
*HBsAg*
- **HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen)** is a marker of active HBV infection, either acute or chronic.
- While present in acute HBV, the clinical picture, particularly the travel history and pregnancy, points more strongly towards **HEV as the cause of fulminant hepatic failure** in this demographic.
Question 18: A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with diarrhea. Several days ago, he experienced a fever which has progressed to vomiting and diarrhea. He has had multiple episodes of non-bloody diarrhea and states that he feels fatigued. He is not up to date on his vaccinations and takes many different herbal supplements from his parents. His temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 100/55 mmHg, pulse is 111/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for dry mucous membranes and a fatigued appearing child. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient’s symptoms?
A. Rotavirus (Correct Answer)
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Norovirus
D. Vibrio cholerae
E. Adenovirus
Explanation: ***Rotavirus***
- The patient's age (4-year-old), symptoms of **fever, vomiting, and non-bloody diarrhea**, and being **unvaccinated** against rotavirus strongly point to this diagnosis.
- Rotavirus is a common cause of **severe gastroenteritis** in unvaccinated infants and young children, often leading to dehydration as evidenced by **dry mucous membranes**.
- The rotavirus vaccine has dramatically reduced cases in vaccinated populations, making unvaccinated children particularly vulnerable.
*Campylobacter jejuni*
- This typically causes **bloody diarrhea**, which is not seen in this patient's presentation.
- **Campylobacter jejuni** is often associated with consumption of raw poultry or contaminated water, and usually presents with more severe abdominal pain.
*Norovirus*
- While Norovirus can cause vomiting and non-bloody diarrhea, it typically affects individuals of **all ages** and often occurs in outbreaks in close-knit communities.
- Though possible, **rotavirus** is a more common cause of severe gastroenteritis in unvaccinated young children.
*Vibrio cholerae*
- **Cholera** is characterized by **profuse watery diarrhea** (rice-water stools) leading to rapid dehydration.
- It is typically seen in endemic areas or after exposure to contaminated water sources, and the patient's symptoms are not as extreme to suggest cholera.
*Adenovirus*
- While adenovirus can cause gastroenteritis in children, it typically presents with **respiratory symptoms** (pharyngitis, conjunctivitis) in addition to gastrointestinal symptoms.
- Adenovirus gastroenteritis is generally **less severe** than rotavirus and lacks the classic vaccine-preventable epidemiology that makes rotavirus more likely in this unvaccinated child.
Question 19: A 9-year-old boy with a history of acute lymphoblastic leukemia is brought to the clinic by his mother because of pruritic vesicles that appeared on the left side of his torso 12 hours ago. One day earlier, before the appearance of the vesicles, the patient's mother notes that he had been complaining of a burning sensation in that area. The boy has been receiving chemotherapy consisting of methotrexate, cytarabine, and cyclophosphamide for 1 month. He received the last treatment 2 days ago. He has no other past medical history. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Upon physical examination, painful vesicles are localized to the left C7 skin dermatome (see image). Which of the following is the most likely etiology of the skin lesions in this patient?
A. Viral infection of the skin
B. Bacterial infection of the skin
C. Reactivation of the varicella zoster virus (VZV) due to congenital immunodeficiency
D. Chickenpox
E. Reactivation of VZV due to immunodeficiency caused by chemotherapy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Reactivation of VZV due to immunodeficiency caused by chemotherapy***
- The patient's history of **acute lymphoblastic leukemia** and recent **chemotherapy** (methotrexate, cytarabine, cyclophosphamide) indicates an **immunocompromised state**, which is a significant predisposing factor for VZV reactivation (shingles).
- The clinical presentation of **pruritic vesicles** preceded by a **burning sensation**, localized to a **single dermatome (C7)**, is highly characteristic of **herpes zoster** (shingles), which is caused by the reactivation of VZV.
*Viral infection of the skin*
- While shingles is a viral infection, this option is too broad and does not specify the **underlying cause** or the **specific virus**, which is crucial for a complete diagnosis in this clinical context.
- It fails to address the unique features of **dermatomal distribution** and the patient's **immunocompromised status**.
*Bacterial infection of the skin*
- **Bacterial skin infections** (e.g., impetigo, folliculitis, cellulitis) typically present with different features like **pustules**, **crusting**, **erythema**, and often spread beyond a single dermatome.
- The initial **burning sensation** and the characteristic **vesicular rash** in a dermatomal pattern are not typical of common bacterial skin infections.
*Reactivation of the varicella zoster virus (VZV) due to congenital immunodeficiency*
- There is no mention of a **congenital immunodeficiency** in the patient's history; his immunodeficiency is clearly attributed to **chemotherapy** for acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
- While VZV reactivation is correct, attributing it to a congenital cause when an obvious iatrogenic cause exists is incorrect.
*Chickenpox*
- **Chickenpox** (primary VZV infection) typically presents as a generalized, widespread rash with vesicles in different stages of healing.
- This patient's rash is **localized to a single dermatome** and is preceded by a burning sensation, which is classic for shingles (reactivated VZV), not primary chickenpox.
Question 20: A scientist is studying the influenza A virus. He focuses on two strains – one from humans (H7N1) and one from horses (H3N8). He takes cells from chickens and coinfects these cells with both influenza strains. From these chicken cells, the scientist isolates a new strain and finds that this new strain can infect human cells. He further characterizes the new strain’s hemagglutinin and neuraminidase description as H7N8. What term best describes the process that underlies these experimental results?
A. Transduction
B. Antigenic drift
C. Transformation
D. Conjugation
E. Antigenic shift (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Antigenic shift***
- **Antigenic shift** in influenza viruses refers to the process where two different influenza strains **coinfect** the same host cell, leading to a **reassortment** of their segmented genomes.
- This reassortment creates a novel viral strain with a new combination of hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N) antigens (e.g., H7N1 + H3N8 → H7N8), which can lead to pandemics.
*Transduction*
- **Transduction** is a process where foreign DNA is introduced into a cell by a virus or viral vector, primarily seen in bacteria.
- It involves the transfer of genetic material via **bacteriophages** and does not describe the reassortment of influenza virus segments.
*Antigenic drift*
- **Antigenic drift** involves small, gradual changes in the H and N antigens of influenza viruses due to **point mutations** during replication.
- These slow mutations lead to seasonal epidemics, but not the creation of a completely new subtype as described.
*Transformation*
- **Transformation** is the process by which a cell takes up naked DNA from its environment, incorporating it into its own genome.
- This mechanism is common in bacteria for acquiring new genetic traits and is not applicable to the reassortment of viral segments within a coinfected host cell.
*Conjugation*
- **Conjugation** is a process of genetic material transfer between bacteria through direct cell-to-cell contact, typically via a **pilus**.
- This mechanism is distinct from viral genetic reassortment and does not involve the coinfection of a host cell by different viral strains.