A 42-year-old man presents with unremitting diarrhea that has lasted for 2 weeks. He describes his bowel movements as watery, non-bloody, foul-smelling, and greasy. He also has cramping abdominal pain associated with the diarrhea. He says that his symptoms started right after he returned from a father-son camping trip to the mountains. His son has similar symptoms. His vital signs include: pulse 78/min, respiratory rate 15/min, temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F), and blood pressure 120/70 mm Hg. A stool sample is obtained and microscopic analysis is significant for the findings shown in the image below. Which of the following pathogens is most likely responsible for this patient’s condition?
Q12
A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fever, chills, headache, and nausea over the past 3 days. Nine months ago, she returned from a vacation in Indonesia where she had experienced similar symptoms and episodic fever. She was treated with chloroquine and recovered uneventfully. Her temperature is 39.1°C (102.4°F), pulse is 97/min, and blood pressure is 123/85 mm Hg. Physical examination shows scleral icterus. The abdomen is soft; bowel sounds are active. Neurologic examination is unremarkable. Her hemoglobin concentration is 10 g/dL. A photomicrograph of a peripheral blood smear is shown. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the recurrence of symptoms in this patient?
Q13
A 27-year-old previously healthy man presents to the clinic complaining of bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain. Sexual history reveals that he has sex with men and women and uses protection most of the time. He is febrile with all other vital signs within normal limits. Physical exam demonstrates tenderness to palpation of the right upper quadrant. Subsequent ultrasound shows a uniform cyst in the liver. In addition to draining the potential abscess and sending it for culture, appropriate medical therapy would involve which of the following?
Q14
A 37-year-old man makes an appointment with his primary care physician because he has been feeling tired and is no longer able to play on a recreational soccer team. He also says his coworkers have commented that he appears pale though he has not noticed any changes himself. He says that he has been generally healthy and that the only notable event that happened in the last year is that he went backpacking all over the world. Based on clinical suspicion, a series of blood tests are performed with partial results presented below:
Hemoglobin: 9.8 g/dL
Platelet count: 174,000/mm^3
Mean corpuscular volume: 72 µm^3 (normal: 80-100 µm^3)
Iron: 22 µg/dL (normal: 50-170 µg/dL)
Ferritin: 8 ng/mL (normal: 15-200 ng/mL)
Lactate dehydrogenase: 57 U/L (normal: 45-90 U/L)
Urine hemoglobin: absent
Infection with which of the following types of organisms could lead to this pattern of findings?
Q15
A 46-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of headache, muscle pain, and recurrent fever spikes that occur without a noticeable rhythm. Two weeks ago, he returned from a 5-week-long world trip during which he climbed several mountains in India, Africa, and Appalachia. Chemoprophylaxis with chloroquine was initiated one week prior to the trip. Physical examination shows jaundice. The spleen is palpated 2 cm below the left costal margin. His hemoglobin concentration is 10 g/dL. A photomicrograph of a peripheral blood smear is shown. Which of the following agents is the most likely cause of this patient's findings?
Q16
A 41-year-old male with a history of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is found to have multiple ring-enhancing lesions on brain CT. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's abnormal scan?
Q17
A 34-year-old man comes to the physician for a 2-month history of an itchy rash on his forearm. He feels well otherwise and has not had any fever or chills. He returned from an archaeological expedition to Guatemala 4 months ago. Skin examination shows a solitary, round, pink-colored plaque with central ulceration on the right wrist. There is right axillary lymphadenopathy. A photomicrograph of a biopsy specimen from the lesion is shown. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
Protozoa/Helminths US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: A 42-year-old man presents with unremitting diarrhea that has lasted for 2 weeks. He describes his bowel movements as watery, non-bloody, foul-smelling, and greasy. He also has cramping abdominal pain associated with the diarrhea. He says that his symptoms started right after he returned from a father-son camping trip to the mountains. His son has similar symptoms. His vital signs include: pulse 78/min, respiratory rate 15/min, temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F), and blood pressure 120/70 mm Hg. A stool sample is obtained and microscopic analysis is significant for the findings shown in the image below. Which of the following pathogens is most likely responsible for this patient’s condition?
A. Giardia lamblia (Correct Answer)
B. Yersinia enterocolitica
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Clostridium difficile
E. Campylobacter jejuni
Explanation: ***Giardia lamblia***
- The patient's symptoms of **watery, non-bloody, foul-smelling, greasy stools** (steatorrhea) with abdominal cramping after a camping trip are classic for giardiasis. The image shows a **trophozoite of Giardia lamblia**, characterized by its pear shape, multiple flagella, and two nuclei, often described as having an "old man's face" appearance.
- The **epidemiological context** (camping trip, son with similar symptoms) suggests exposure to contaminated water, a common source of *Giardia* infection.
*Yersinia enterocolitica*
- This pathogen typically causes **bloody diarrhea**, fever, and sometimes abdominal pain that can mimic appendicitis (*pseudoappendicitis*), which are not present in this case.
- It's mainly associated with consuming **undercooked pork** or contaminated milk products, not typically recreational water exposure.
*Bacillus cereus*
- This bacterium causes **food poisoning** with either an emetic form (vomiting) due to preformed toxins in **fried rice** or a diarrheal form (watery diarrhea) associated with meat and vegetable dishes.
- The incubation periods are usually short (1-6 hours for emetic, 6-15 hours for diarrheal), which does not fit the 2-week duration described.
*Clostridium difficile*
- *C. difficile* infection is characterized by **watery diarrhea** and **abdominal cramps**, often following **antibiotic use** or in healthcare settings, which are not mentioned here.
- While it can cause severe diarrhea, the stool is usually not described as greasy, and the image does not show *C. difficile* organisms or their toxins.
*Campylobacter jejuni*
- This bacterium is a common cause of **bacterial gastroenteritis**, typically presenting with **bloody diarrhea**, fever, and abdominal pain.
- It is often acquired from contaminated **poultry** or unpasteurized milk, and is associated with complications like **Guillain-Barré syndrome**, none of which are suggested by the clinical picture or image.
Question 12: A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fever, chills, headache, and nausea over the past 3 days. Nine months ago, she returned from a vacation in Indonesia where she had experienced similar symptoms and episodic fever. She was treated with chloroquine and recovered uneventfully. Her temperature is 39.1°C (102.4°F), pulse is 97/min, and blood pressure is 123/85 mm Hg. Physical examination shows scleral icterus. The abdomen is soft; bowel sounds are active. Neurologic examination is unremarkable. Her hemoglobin concentration is 10 g/dL. A photomicrograph of a peripheral blood smear is shown. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the recurrence of symptoms in this patient?
A. Decline in circulating antibodies
B. Dissemination within macrophages
C. Natural drug resistance
D. Reactivation of dormant liver stage (Correct Answer)
E. Reinfection by Anopheles mosquito
Explanation: ***Reactivation of dormant liver stage***
- The patient's history of **recurrent malaria-like symptoms** after a trip to Indonesia and previous successful treatment with chloroquine strongly suggests malaria caused by *Plasmodium vivax* or *P. ovale*, which are known for forming **dormant hypnozoites in the liver**.
- **Chloroquine** only targets the asexual erythrocytic stages and does not eliminate these dormant liver stages, leading to relapses when they reactivate and release merozoites into the bloodstream.
*Decline in circulating antibodies*
- While a decline in antibodies can increase susceptibility to reinfection, it is less likely to explain the specific pattern of **relapse malaria** seen with *P. vivax* or *P. ovale*.
- The primary mechanism for recurrence in these species is the **activation of hypnozoites**, not simply a waning immune response to new exposure.
*Dissemination within macrophages*
- This mechanism is characteristic of infections that can persist intracellularly within macrophages, such as certain bacterial or parasitic infections like **leishmaniasis**.
- It is not a typical mechanism for the recurrence of *Plasmodium* species responsible for malaria.
*Natural drug resistance*
- Although drug resistance to chloroquine exists, especially in *P. falciparum* and increasingly *P. vivax*, the term "natural" implies an inherent resistance in the organism from the outset.
- The patient initially responded to chloroquine, indicating it was effective against the erythrocytic stages, making **innate resistance** less probable as the sole cause of relapse.
*Reinfection by *Anopheles* mosquito*
- While reinfection is possible if the patient returned to an endemic area and was bitten again, the presentation of a **relapse 9 months later** after initial treatment is a classic pattern for *P. vivax* or *P. ovale*, which can remain dormant and reactivate without new exposure.
- The symptoms occurred without a recent travel history back to an endemic region, making a new infection less likely than a relapse from dormant hypnozoites.
Question 13: A 27-year-old previously healthy man presents to the clinic complaining of bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain. Sexual history reveals that he has sex with men and women and uses protection most of the time. He is febrile with all other vital signs within normal limits. Physical exam demonstrates tenderness to palpation of the right upper quadrant. Subsequent ultrasound shows a uniform cyst in the liver. In addition to draining the potential abscess and sending it for culture, appropriate medical therapy would involve which of the following?
A. Supportive therapy
B. Metronidazole and iodoquinol (Correct Answer)
C. Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
D. Nifurtimox
E. Amphotericin
Explanation: ***Metronidazole and iodoquinol***
- The patient's symptoms (bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever, liver cyst) and risk factors (sexual activity with men and women) are highly suggestive of an **amoebic liver abscess** caused by *Entamoeba histolytica*.
- **Metronidazole** is the drug of choice for invasive amoebiasis (including liver abscess), while **iodoquinol** (or paromomycin) treats the intestinal luminal cysts to prevent recurrence and transmission.
*Supportive therapy*
- While supportive care is important for managing symptoms like fever and dehydration, it does not address the underlying **amoebic infection** or the liver abscess.
- Delaying specific antimicrobial therapy can lead to worsening of the abscess, potential rupture, and increased morbidity.
*Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine*
- This combination is the standard treatment for **toxoplasmosis**, a protozoal infection that typically affects immunocompromised individuals and can cause encephalitis or disseminated disease.
- It is not effective against *Entamoeba histolytica* and would not resolve an amoebic liver abscess.
*Nifurtimox*
- **Nifurtimox** is an antiparasitic medication specifically used to treat **Chagas disease**, caused by *Trypanosoma cruzi*.
- Chagas disease presents with different clinical manifestations and is transmitted by blood-sucking triatomine bugs, which does not fit the patient's presentation.
*Amphotericin*
- **Amphotericin B** is a broad-spectrum **antifungal agent** used to treat severe systemic fungal infections.
- It has no activity against *Entamoeba histolytica* or other protozoal infections causing similar symptoms.
Question 14: A 37-year-old man makes an appointment with his primary care physician because he has been feeling tired and is no longer able to play on a recreational soccer team. He also says his coworkers have commented that he appears pale though he has not noticed any changes himself. He says that he has been generally healthy and that the only notable event that happened in the last year is that he went backpacking all over the world. Based on clinical suspicion, a series of blood tests are performed with partial results presented below:
Hemoglobin: 9.8 g/dL
Platelet count: 174,000/mm^3
Mean corpuscular volume: 72 µm^3 (normal: 80-100 µm^3)
Iron: 22 µg/dL (normal: 50-170 µg/dL)
Ferritin: 8 ng/mL (normal: 15-200 ng/mL)
Lactate dehydrogenase: 57 U/L (normal: 45-90 U/L)
Urine hemoglobin: absent
Infection with which of the following types of organisms could lead to this pattern of findings?
A. Nematode (Correct Answer)
B. Mosquito-borne protozoa
C. Double-stranded virus
D. Single-stranded virus
E. Tick-borne protozoa
Explanation: ***Nematode***
- The patient's symptoms (fatigue, pallor) and lab results (**microcytic anemia** with **low hemoglobin**, **low MCV**, **low iron**, and **low ferritin**) are highly suggestive of **iron deficiency anemia**. The history of backpacking worldwide increases the suspicion of **hookworm infection**, which is a nematode that causes chronic gastrointestinal blood loss leading to iron deficiency.
- **Hookworms** (e.g., *Ancylostoma duodenale*, *Necator americanus*) attach to the intestinal wall, causing persistent blood loss as they feed, which depletes iron stores over time.
*Mosquito-borne protozoa*
- **Mosquito-borne protozoa** primarily refers to *Plasmodium* species which cause malaria. While malaria can cause anemia, it typically presents with **hemolytic anemia** (elevated LDH, jaundice), intermittent fevers, and splenomegaly, not the profound iron deficiency seen here.
- The anemia in malaria is usually **normocytic or macrocytic** due to increased erythropoiesis, and profound iron deficiency is not the primary mechanism.
*Double-stranded virus*
- **Double-stranded viruses** (e.g., adenoviruses, herpesviruses, some papillomaviruses) typically cause acute infections, and while some can lead to anemia through bone marrow suppression or chronic inflammation, they do not directly cause **iron deficiency anemia** with this specific lab profile.
- The clinical picture of chronic fatigue and iron depletion after travel is not characteristic of common viral infections caused by double-stranded viruses.
*Single-stranded virus*
- **Single-stranded viruses** (e.g., influenza, measles, HIV, dengue, enteroviruses) cause a wide range of illnesses. While some can lead to anemia, often through **bone marrow suppression** or chronic inflammation, they are not typically associated with the profound **iron deficiency** and microcytic anemia seen in this patient.
- Travel history can be relevant for some single-stranded viral infections (e.g., HIV, dengue), but the specific laboratory findings point away from a primary viral etiology for the anemia.
*Tick-borne protozoa*
- **Tick-borne protozoa** most commonly refers to *Babesia* species, which cause babesiosis. This disease primarily leads to **hemolytic anemia** (intravascular hemolysis, elevated LDH), fever, chills, and fatigue, which is distinct from the **iron deficiency anemia** presented in the case.
- **Babesiosis** would typically present with signs of hemolysis, such as elevated LDH and sometimes hemoglobinuria, which are absent in this patient.
Question 15: A 46-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of headache, muscle pain, and recurrent fever spikes that occur without a noticeable rhythm. Two weeks ago, he returned from a 5-week-long world trip during which he climbed several mountains in India, Africa, and Appalachia. Chemoprophylaxis with chloroquine was initiated one week prior to the trip. Physical examination shows jaundice. The spleen is palpated 2 cm below the left costal margin. His hemoglobin concentration is 10 g/dL. A photomicrograph of a peripheral blood smear is shown. Which of the following agents is the most likely cause of this patient's findings?
A. Chikungunya virus
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Leishmania donovani
D. Plasmodium falciparum (Correct Answer)
E. Trypanosoma brucei
Explanation: **Plasmodium falciparum**
- The image shows **multiple ring forms** and **applique forms** within red blood cells, which are characteristic of *Plasmodium falciparum* malaria. The clinical presentation of **headache, muscle pain, recurrent fever spikes without a noticeable rhythm, jaundice, splenomegaly, and anemia (Hb 10 g/dL)** in a traveler returning from India and Africa is highly consistent with malaria, especially given the chloroquine chemoprophylaxis which is often ineffective against chloroquine-resistant strains of *P. falciparum*.
- *P. falciparum* can cause severe disease, including **anemia** due to red blood cell destruction and **jaundice** due to hemolysis and liver involvement, and is notorious for its **irregular fever patterns** early in the infection cycle.
*Chikungunya virus*
- Chikungunya typically presents with **high fever, severe polyarthralgia**, and rash, but does not cause the parasitemia or specific red blood cell morphology seen in the image.
- While present in endemic regions like India and Africa, it does not lead to **anemia, splenomegaly, or jaundice** to the extent seen in this patient, nor does it appear on a blood smear as intracellular parasites.
*Trypanosoma cruzi*
- *Trypanosoma cruzi* causes **Chagas disease**, which is endemic to **Central and South America**, not India or Africa.
- While it can be found in blood smears during the acute phase (trypomastigotes), its morphology differs significantly from the ring forms seen, and the overall clinical picture of **fever, jaundice, and marked splenomegaly with characteristic RBC parasites** does not fit Chagas disease.
*Leishmania donovani*
- *Leishmania donovani* causes **visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)**, characterized by **prolonged fever, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, pancytopenia**, and weight loss.
- While present in India and Africa, the parasites (**amastigotes**) are typically found within **macrophages** in bone marrow, spleen, or liver aspirates, not as ring forms within red blood cells on a peripheral blood smear.
*Trypanosoma brucei*
- *Trypanosoma brucei* causes **African sleeping sickness**, which involves **fever, headache, joint pain, neurological symptoms**, and lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom's sign).
- The parasites (trypomastigotes) are observed extracellularly in the blood, lymph, or CSF, and have a distinct **elongated, flagellated morphology** that is completely different from the intracellular ring forms seen in the provided image.
Question 16: A 41-year-old male with a history of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is found to have multiple ring-enhancing lesions on brain CT. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's abnormal scan?
A. Protozoa (Correct Answer)
B. Virus
C. Neoplasm
D. Bacteria
E. Prion
Explanation: ***Protozoa***
- The patient's history of **Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia** (PJP) suggests an **immunocompromised state**, likely due to HIV/AIDS.
- In such patients, **ring-enhancing brain lesions** are highly characteristic of **cerebral toxoplasmosis**, an opportunistic infection caused by the protozoan *Toxoplasma gondii*.
*Virus*
- While viruses like **CMV** or **JC virus** (causing PML) can affect the brain in immunocompromised patients, they typically present with different imaging features (e.g., non-enhancing lesions in PML) and are less likely to cause multiple ring-enhancing lesions.
- Though HIV can cause **HIV encephalopathy**, it typically involves **diffuse atrophy** and **white matter changes**, rather than distinct ring-enhancing lesions.
*Neoplasm*
- **Primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL)** can present with ring-enhancing lesions, especially in HIV-positive individuals.
- However, given the association with PJP, **infectious etiologies** like toxoplasmosis are generally more common as the initial diagnosis for multiple ring-enhancing lesions in this patient population.
*Bacteria*
- **Bacterial brain abscesses** can cause ring-enhancing lesions but are less common in disseminated opportunistic infections in HIV/AIDS compared to protozoal or fungal infections.
- They also typically present with a more **acute inflammatory picture** and may be preceded by a source of bacterial infection (e.g., endocarditis, sinusitis) not mentioned here.
*Prion*
- **Prion diseases** (e.g., Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease) cause rapidly progressive dementia and characteristic EEG and MRI findings (e.g., cortical ribboning, basal ganglia hyperintensity) that do not typically include multiple ring-enhancing lesions.
- They are also not associated with the immunocompromised state indicated by PJP.
Question 17: A 34-year-old man comes to the physician for a 2-month history of an itchy rash on his forearm. He feels well otherwise and has not had any fever or chills. He returned from an archaeological expedition to Guatemala 4 months ago. Skin examination shows a solitary, round, pink-colored plaque with central ulceration on the right wrist. There is right axillary lymphadenopathy. A photomicrograph of a biopsy specimen from the lesion is shown. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Borrelia burgdorferi
C. Trypanosoma brucei
D. Ancylostoma duodenale
E. Leishmania braziliensis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Leishmania braziliensis***
- The patient's history of travel to **Guatemala**, a region endemic for **cutaneous leishmaniasis**, along with the characteristic skin lesion (**solitary, round, pink plaque with central ulceration**) and **axillary lymphadenopathy**, is highly suggestive of infection with *Leishmania braziliensis*.
- The microscopic image would typically show **amastigotes** within **macrophages**, which are pathognomonic for leishmaniasis.
*Treponema pallidum*
- This bacterium causes **syphilis**, which can present with a **chancre** (painless ulcer) in its primary stage.
- However, the chancre is typically firm, solitary, and non-itchy, and the patient's travel history and specific lesion morphology are more consistent with leishmaniasis.
*Borrelia burgdorferi*
- This spirochete causes **Lyme disease**, characterized by **erythema migrans** (a migrating rash with central clearing) in its early stage.
- The rash seen in this case does not resemble erythema migrans, and regional lymphadenopathy is less prominent compared to leishmaniasis.
*Trypanosoma brucei*
- This protozoan causes **African sleeping sickness**, which is endemic to **sub-Saharan Africa**, not Central America.
- Initial symptoms may include a **trypanosomal chancre** at the bite site, followed by systemic symptoms and neurological involvement, which are not described here.
*Ancylostoma duodenale*
- This is a type of **hookworm** that causes parasitic infection, primarily affecting the **gastrointestinal tract**, leading to **anemia**.
- Skin manifestations are typically **pruritic larvae currens** (creeping eruption) due to larval migration, which is different from the described ulcerated plaque.