A 48-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of an intensely pruritic skin rash on his arms and legs for 12 hours. Two days ago, he returned from an annual camping trip with his son. The patient takes no medications. A photograph of the skin lesions on his left hand is shown. Activation of which of the following cell types is the most likely cause of this patient's skin findings?
Q22
A 27-year-old female presents to her primary care physician because she is concerned about lighter colored patches on her skin. She recently went sunbathing and noticed that these areas also did not tan. Her doctor explains that she has a fungal infection of the skin that damages melanocytes by producing acids. She is prescribed selenium sulfide and told to follow-up in one month. Which of the following describes the appearance of the most likely infectious organism under microscopy?
Q23
A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician because of episodic abdominal pain and fullness for 1 month. She works as an assistant at an animal shelter and helps to feed and bathe the animals. Physical examination shows hepatomegaly. Abdominal ultrasound shows a 4-cm calcified cyst with several daughter cysts in the liver. She undergoes CT-guided percutaneous aspiration under general anesthesia. Several minutes into the procedure, one liver cyst spills, and the patient's oxygen saturation decreases from 95% to 64%. Her pulse is 136/min, and blood pressure is 86/58 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism of this patient's condition?
Q24
A 4-year-old girl presents with recurrent abdominal pain and a low-grade fever for the past 2 months. The patient’s mother says that she has lost her appetite which has caused some recent weight loss. She adds that the patient frequently plays outdoors with their pet dog. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, conjunctival pallor is present. Abdominal examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen and significant hepatomegaly. There is also a solid mass palpable in the right upper quadrant measuring about 3 x 4 cm. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin (Hb%) 9.9 g/dL
Total count (WBC) 26,300/µL
Differential count
Neutrophils 36%
Lymphocytes 16%
Eosinophils 46%
Platelets 200,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 56 mm/h
C-reactive protein 2 mg/L
Serum globulins 5 g/dL
Laparoscopic resection of the mass is performed, and a tissue sample is sent for histopathology. Which of the following is the organism most likely responsible for this patient’s condition?
Q25
A 65-year-old woman who lives in New York City presents with headache, fever, and neck stiffness. She received a diagnosis of HIV infection 3 years ago and has been inconsistent with her antiretroviral medications. Recent interferon-gamma release assay testing for latent tuberculosis was negative. A computed tomography of her head is normal. A lumbar puncture shows a white blood cell count of 45/mm3 with a mononuclear predominance, the glucose level of 30 mg/dL, and a protein level of 60 mg/dL. A preparation of her cerebrospinal fluid is shown. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Q26
A 3-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of progressive difficulty breathing and a dry cough. Five weeks ago, she was diagnosed with diffuse hemangiomas involving the intrathoracic cavity and started treatment with prednisolone. She appears uncomfortable and in moderate respiratory distress. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is 150/min, respirations are 50/min, and blood pressure is 88/50 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 87%. Oral examination shows a white plaque covering the tongue that bleeds when scraped. Chest examination shows subcostal and intercostal retractions. Scattered fine crackles and rhonchi are heard throughout both lung fields. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 21,000/mm3 and an increased serum beta-D-glucan concentration. An x-ray of the chest shows symmetrical, diffuse interstitial infiltrates. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Q27
A 43-year-old type 1 diabetic woman who is poorly compliant with her diabetes medications presented to the emergency department with hemorrhage from her nose. On exam, you observe the findings shown in figure A. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Q28
A 7-year-old boy with a history of cystic fibrosis is brought to the physician for evaluation of recurrent episodes of productive cough, wheezing, and shortness of breath over the past month. Physical examination shows coarse crackles and expiratory wheezing over both lung fields. Serum studies show elevated levels of IgE and eosinophilia. A CT scan of the lungs shows centrally dilated bronchi with thickened walls and peripheral airspace consolidation. Antibiotic therapy is initiated. One week later, the patient continues to show deterioration in lung function. A sputum culture is most likely to grow which of the following?
Q29
A 12-year-old child is exposed to pollen while playing outside. The allergen stimulates TH2 cells of his immune system to secrete a factor that leads to B-cell class switching to IgE. What factor is secreted by the TH2 cell?
Q30
A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of severe itching in the area of her genitals. She reports that the itching is most severe at night. She has been sexually active with three partners over the past year; she uses condoms for contraception. Her current sexual partner is experiencing similar symptoms. Pelvic examination shows vulvar excoriations. A photomicrograph of an epilated pubic hair is shown. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
Parasites/Fungi US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 48-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of an intensely pruritic skin rash on his arms and legs for 12 hours. Two days ago, he returned from an annual camping trip with his son. The patient takes no medications. A photograph of the skin lesions on his left hand is shown. Activation of which of the following cell types is the most likely cause of this patient's skin findings?
A. B cells
B. T cells (Correct Answer)
C. Eosinophils
D. Neutrophils
E. Mast cells
Explanation: ***T cells***
- The rash described is consistent with **allergic contact dermatitis**, a **Type IV hypersensitivity reaction** mediated by **T cells**.
- Exposure to allergens like **urushiol** (poison ivy/oak) during a camping trip triggers a delayed immune response involving sensitization and subsequent activation of **memory T cells**.
*B cells*
- **B cells** are primarily involved in **humoral immunity** and antibody production, which mediates immediate hypersensitivity reactions (Type I, II, III).
- While they can act as antigen-presenting cells, they are not the primary effector cells in **Type IV hypersensitivity reactions** like contact dermatitis.
*Eosinophils*
- **Eosinophils** are typically associated with **allergic reactions** and **parasitic infections**, often seen in **Type I hypersensitivity reactions** (e.g., asthma, allergic rhinitis).
- They release cytotoxic granules but do not play a primary effector role in the development of delayed-type contact dermatitis.
*Neutrophils*
- **Neutrophils** are key in the **acute inflammatory response** to bacterial or fungal infections and tissue injury.
- While they may be present in severe inflammatory reactions, they are not the primary mediators of the specific immune response in allergic contact dermatitis.
*Mast cells*
- **Mast cells** are crucial for **Type I hypersensitivity reactions**, releasing **histamine** and other mediators upon allergen exposure, leading to immediate symptoms like urticaria or anaphylaxis.
- The delayed onset of symptoms (12 hours to 2 days) and the nature of the rash (papulovesicular) make **mast cell-mediated immediate hypersensitivity** less likely in this case.
Question 22: A 27-year-old female presents to her primary care physician because she is concerned about lighter colored patches on her skin. She recently went sunbathing and noticed that these areas also did not tan. Her doctor explains that she has a fungal infection of the skin that damages melanocytes by producing acids. She is prescribed selenium sulfide and told to follow-up in one month. Which of the following describes the appearance of the most likely infectious organism under microscopy?
A. Broad based budding yeast
B. "Captain's wheel" yeast
C. Germ tube forming fungus
D. Branching septate hyphae
E. "Spaghetti and meatballs" fungus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***"Spaghetti and meatballs" fungus***
- The "spaghetti and meatballs" appearance on microscopy, referring to a mixture of short, septate hyphae and spherical yeast forms, is characteristic of **Malassezia globosa** or other *Malassezia* species, which cause **tinea versicolor**.
- **Tinea versicolor** presents as hypopigmented patches, especially after sun exposure, because the fungus produces **azelaic acid** that inhibits melanin synthesis.
*Broad based budding yeast*
- This description is characteristic of **Blastomyces dermatitidis**, which causes **blastomycosis**, a deep fungal infection.
- Blastomycosis typically manifests as pulmonary disease or disseminated lesions, not superficial hypopigmented skin patches.
*"Captain's wheel" yeast*
- The "captain's wheel" or multi-budding yeast appearance is characteristic of **Paracoccidioides brasiliensis**, the causative agent of **paracoccidioidomycosis**.
- This is a systemic mycosis primarily affecting the lungs and mucocutaneous areas, not a superficial skin infection like tinea versicolor.
*Germ tube forming fungus*
- The formation of **germ tubes** when incubated in serum at 37°C is a characteristic feature used to identify **Candida albicans**.
- *Candida* most commonly causes mucocutaneous candidiasis (e.g., thrush, vaginitis) or invasive infections, not hypopigmented skin patches that fail to tan.
*Branching septate hyphae*
- **Branching septate hyphae** are a general microscopic feature seen in many filamentous fungi, including dermatophytes like *Trichophyton* and *Microsporum*, which cause **tinea corporis** or **tinea pedis**.
- While dermatophytes cause skin infections, they typically result in erythematous, scaly, and often pruritic lesions and do not usually present as hypopigmented patches that fail to tan due to melanin inhibition, as seen in tinea versicolor.
Question 23: A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician because of episodic abdominal pain and fullness for 1 month. She works as an assistant at an animal shelter and helps to feed and bathe the animals. Physical examination shows hepatomegaly. Abdominal ultrasound shows a 4-cm calcified cyst with several daughter cysts in the liver. She undergoes CT-guided percutaneous aspiration under general anesthesia. Several minutes into the procedure, one liver cyst spills, and the patient's oxygen saturation decreases from 95% to 64%. Her pulse is 136/min, and blood pressure is 86/58 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism of this patient's condition?
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Echinococcus granulosus (Correct Answer)
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
E. Schistosoma mansoni
Explanation: ***Echinococcus granulosus***
- The presentation of a **calcified liver cyst** with **daughter cysts** in a patient with animal exposure (**animal shelter worker**) is highly suggestive of **hydatid disease** caused by *Echinococcus granulosus*.
- The **anaphylactic-like reaction** (decreased oxygen saturation, hypotension, tachycardia) upon cyst spillage during aspiration is a classic and dangerous complication, indicating a severe allergic response to the **hydatid fluid**.
*Clonorchis sinensis*
- This parasite causes **cholangitis** and **cholangiocarcinoma**, and typically presents with symptoms related to biliary obstruction, rather than large calcified cysts with daughter cysts.
- It is acquired by eating **undercooked freshwater fish** and is endemic in East Asia, which doesn't align with the patient's exposure history or cyst morphology.
*Trichinella spiralis*
- This parasite is acquired by consuming **undercooked pork** and causes **trichinosis**, characterized by muscle pain, periorbital edema, and eosinophilia, and does not typically form liver cysts.
- Liver involvement with *Trichinella* is rare and does not manifest as calcified cysts with daughter cysts.
*Strongyloides stercoralis*
- This nematode causes **strongyloidiasis**, often manifesting as gastrointestinal symptoms, skin rash (**larva currens**), and pulmonary symptoms in cases of autoinfection.
- It does not form macroscopic liver cysts, and liver involvement is generally non-cystic.
*Schistosoma mansoni*
- Causes **schistosomiasis**, which can lead to **hepatic fibrosis** (**pipestem fibrosis**) and **portal hypertension**, but does not typically cause large, calcified hydatid-like cysts with daughter cysts.
- Infection is acquired through contact with **freshwater contaminated with snails** carrying the parasitic larvae.
Question 24: A 4-year-old girl presents with recurrent abdominal pain and a low-grade fever for the past 2 months. The patient’s mother says that she has lost her appetite which has caused some recent weight loss. She adds that the patient frequently plays outdoors with their pet dog. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, conjunctival pallor is present. Abdominal examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen and significant hepatomegaly. There is also a solid mass palpable in the right upper quadrant measuring about 3 x 4 cm. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin (Hb%) 9.9 g/dL
Total count (WBC) 26,300/µL
Differential count
Neutrophils 36%
Lymphocytes 16%
Eosinophils 46%
Platelets 200,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 56 mm/h
C-reactive protein 2 mg/L
Serum globulins 5 g/dL
Laparoscopic resection of the mass is performed, and a tissue sample is sent for histopathology. Which of the following is the organism most likely responsible for this patient’s condition?
A. Ancylostoma braziliense
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Toxocara canis (Correct Answer)
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. Toxocara cati
Explanation: ***Toxocara canis***
- The child's history of playing outdoors with a pet dog, **eosinophilia**, **hepatomegaly**, abdominal mass, and **elevated globulins** are highly suggestive of **visceral larva migrans (VLM)**, most commonly caused by *Toxocara canis*.
- *Toxocara canis* larvae migrate through human tissues, particularly the liver, causing granuloma formation that can present as palpable masses and systemic symptoms.
*Ancylostoma braziliense*
- This hookworm primarily causes **cutaneous larva migrans**, presenting as an intensely pruritic, serpiginous rash.
- It does not typically cause systemic symptoms like hepatomegaly, abdominal masses, or significant eosinophilia in the way described.
*Ascaris lumbricoides*
- *Ascaris lumbricoides* causes **ascariasis**, primarily manifesting as intestinal symptoms, malnutrition, or pulmonary symptoms during larval migration (Löffler syndrome)
- While it can cause eosinophilia, it rarely presents with solid hepatic masses or the specific constellation of symptoms seen here.
*Trichuris trichiura*
- *Trichuris trichiura* causes **trichuriasis** (whipworm infection), primarily leading to **gastrointestinal symptoms** such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal prolapse in heavy infections.
- It is not associated with migratory visceral larvae, hepatomegaly, or palpable liver masses.
*Toxocara cati*
- While *Toxocara cati* also causes visceral larva migrans, it is associated with **cats** rather than dogs. The patient's history specifically mentions a pet dog.
- The clinical presentation with hepatomegaly, abdominal mass, and eosinophilia would otherwise be consistent with *Toxocara* infection.
Question 25: A 65-year-old woman who lives in New York City presents with headache, fever, and neck stiffness. She received a diagnosis of HIV infection 3 years ago and has been inconsistent with her antiretroviral medications. Recent interferon-gamma release assay testing for latent tuberculosis was negative. A computed tomography of her head is normal. A lumbar puncture shows a white blood cell count of 45/mm3 with a mononuclear predominance, the glucose level of 30 mg/dL, and a protein level of 60 mg/dL. A preparation of her cerebrospinal fluid is shown. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A. Blastomyces dermatitidis
B. Cryptococcus neoformans (Correct Answer)
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
D. Coccidioides immitis
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: ***Cryptococcus neoformans***
- The patient's presentation with **headache, fever, and neck stiffness** in the setting of **HIV infection with poor medication adherence** (indicating immunosuppression) is highly suggestive of **cryptococcal meningitis**.
- **CSF findings** of **mononuclear pleocytosis**, **low glucose**, and **elevated protein** are classic for fungal meningitis. The provided image, if showing encapsulated yeast cells, would further confirm *Cryptococcus neoformans*.
*Blastomyces dermatitidis*
- This fungus is common in the **southeastern, south-central, and midwestern United States**, not typically associated with New York City as a primary endemic region.
- While it can cause meningitis in immunocompromised patients, it often presents with **pulmonary involvement** or characteristic **skin lesions** as well, which are not mentioned.
*Aspergillus fumigatus*
- *Aspergillus* infections are typically seen in individuals with **severe neutropenia** or those on **high-dose steroids**, rather than primarily in HIV patients with inconsistent ART.
- While it can cause CNS infections, they often manifest as **brain abscesses** or **vasculitis** and are not characterized by the classic meningitis picture with mononuclear pleocytosis.
*Coccidioides immitis*
- This fungus is endemic to the **southwestern United States** and parts of Central and South America, making it geographically unlikely for a patient living in New York City without a travel history.
- While it can cause meningitis in immunocompromised individuals, the geographical context is a significant differentiating factor.
*Mycobacterium tuberculosis*
- Although **tuberculous meningitis** also presents with mononuclear pleocytosis, low glucose, and elevated protein in the CSF, the **negative interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA)** for latent tuberculosis makes this diagnosis less likely.
- Additionally, CT scans may show **basilar meningeal enhancement** or hydrocephalus in tuberculous meningitis, which is not indicated by a normal CT.
Question 26: A 3-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of progressive difficulty breathing and a dry cough. Five weeks ago, she was diagnosed with diffuse hemangiomas involving the intrathoracic cavity and started treatment with prednisolone. She appears uncomfortable and in moderate respiratory distress. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is 150/min, respirations are 50/min, and blood pressure is 88/50 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 87%. Oral examination shows a white plaque covering the tongue that bleeds when scraped. Chest examination shows subcostal and intercostal retractions. Scattered fine crackles and rhonchi are heard throughout both lung fields. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 21,000/mm3 and an increased serum beta-D-glucan concentration. An x-ray of the chest shows symmetrical, diffuse interstitial infiltrates. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Tuberculin skin test
B. Urine antigen test
C. CT scan of the chest
D. Bronchoalveolar lavage (Correct Answer)
E. DNA test for CFTR mutation
Explanation: ***Bronchoalveolar lavage***
- The patient, an infant on **prednisolone** (immunosuppression) with **diffuse interstitial infiltrates**, **uncomfortable appearance**, **respiratory distress**, and **oral thrush (white plaque that bleeds when scraped)**, points to **Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)**.
- **Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)** is the gold standard for diagnosing PCP by identifying **Pneumocystis jirovecii cysts** or **trophozoites** using special stains (e.g., Giemsa, methenamine silver).
*Tuberculin skin test*
- The **tuberculin skin test** is used to diagnose **tuberculosis**, which typically presents with **granulomas** and **cavitary lesions** on chest X-ray, not diffuse interstitial infiltrates.
- While tuberculosis can cause respiratory symptoms, the presence of oral thrush and immunosuppression suggests an opportunistic fungal infection like PCP rather than TB.
*Urine antigen test*
- A **urine antigen test** is commonly used for diagnosing **Legionnaires' disease** or **pneumococcal pneumonia** in adults, and is not applicable for PCP.
- It does not detect *Pneumocystis jirovecii*, which is the suspected pathogen in this immunosuppressed infant.
*CT scan of the chest*
- A **CT scan of the chest** would show **diffuse ground-glass opacities** characteristic of PCP but is a **radiological finding**, not a definitive diagnostic test for the pathogen itself.
- While it can further characterize the pulmonary findings, it cannot identify the causative organism, which is crucial for targeted treatment.
*DNA test for CFTR mutation*
- A **DNA test for CFTR mutation** is used to diagnose **cystic fibrosis**, a genetic disorder affecting mucus production, and is not relevant in this acute presentation of respiratory distress and immunosuppression.
- Cystic fibrosis typically presents with recurrent respiratory infections, pancreatic insufficiency, and failure to thrive, not primarily with opportunistic infections like PCP.
Question 27: A 43-year-old type 1 diabetic woman who is poorly compliant with her diabetes medications presented to the emergency department with hemorrhage from her nose. On exam, you observe the findings shown in figure A. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
A. Cryptococcal infection
B. Sporotrichosis
C. Gram negative bacterial infection
D. Candida infection
E. Rhizopus infection (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rhizopus infection***
- The image likely depicts findings consistent with **mucormycosis**, an aggressive fungal infection caused by organisms like *Rhizopus*, characterized by **black necrotic eschars** and rapid tissue destruction.
- **Type 1 diabetes mellitus** with poor compliance (leading to **diabetic ketoacidosis**) is a major risk factor for mucormycosis due to impaired immune function and acidic environment.
*Cryptococcal infection*
- Primarily causes **meningitis** or **pulmonary disease**, especially in immunocompromised individuals, and less commonly presents as rhinocerebral mucormycosis-like lesions.
- Skin lesions can occur but are usually **papules**, **nodules**, or **ulcers**, not typically widespread necrotizing eschars of the nasal region.
*Sporothricosis*
- Typically presents as **subcutaneous nodules** that slowly enlarge and may ulcerate, often following trauma with contaminated plant material.
- It does not usually cause the rapid, aggressive, and necrotizing sinonasal infection seen in the context of uncontrolled diabetes.
*Gram negative bacterial infection*
- While gram-negative bacteria can cause severe infections, they typically present with **purulent discharge**, **cellulitis**, or **abscess formation**, rather than the characteristic black necrotic eschar of mucormycosis.
- Although immunosuppression increases risk, the specific clinical findings point away from a primary gram-negative bacterial infection.
*Candida infection*
- Commonly causes **oral thrush**, **esophagitis**, or **vaginitis**, or disseminated candidiasis in severely immunocompromised patients.
- While it can cause invasive sinusitis, it rarely produces the aggressive **necrotic eschar** seen in mucormycosis, and is generally less common in this specific presentation.
Question 28: A 7-year-old boy with a history of cystic fibrosis is brought to the physician for evaluation of recurrent episodes of productive cough, wheezing, and shortness of breath over the past month. Physical examination shows coarse crackles and expiratory wheezing over both lung fields. Serum studies show elevated levels of IgE and eosinophilia. A CT scan of the lungs shows centrally dilated bronchi with thickened walls and peripheral airspace consolidation. Antibiotic therapy is initiated. One week later, the patient continues to show deterioration in lung function. A sputum culture is most likely to grow which of the following?
A. Monomorphic, septate hyphae that branch at acute angles (Correct Answer)
B. Monomorphic, broad, nonseptate hyphae that branch at wide angles
C. Dimorphic, broad-based budding yeast
D. Dimorphic, cigar-shaped budding yeast
E. Monomorphic, narrow budding encapsulated yeast
Explanation: **Monomorphic, septate hyphae that branch at acute angles**
- The patient's presentation with **cystic fibrosis (CF)**, recurrent respiratory symptoms, CT findings of **central bronchiectasis**, elevated **IgE**, and **eosinophilia** strongly points towards **allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)**.
- *Aspergillus fumigatus*, the causative agent of ABPA, is characterized microscopically by **monomorphic, septate hyphae that branch at acute angles**.
*Monomorphic, broad, nonseptate hyphae that branch at wide angles*
- This describes organisms like *Rhizopus* or *Mucor*, which cause **mucormycosis**.
- Mucormycosis typically affects immunocompromised individuals (e.g., diabetics, neutropenic patients) and presents as aggressive rhinocerebral or pulmonary infections, not ABPA.
*Dimorphic, broad-based budding yeast*
- This morphology is characteristic of *Blastomyces dermatitidis*, which causes **blastomycosis**.
- Blastomycosis is an endemic fungal infection often presenting with pulmonary symptoms, but it does not cause central bronchiectasis, elevated IgE, or eosinophilia in the context of CF.
*Dimorphic, cigar-shaped budding yeast*
- This morphology describes *Sporothrix schenckii*, which causes **sporotrichosis**.
- Sporotrichosis typically presents as a chronic ulcerative skin disease (rose gardener's disease) or, less commonly, pulmonary disease, but is not associated with ABPA.
*Monomorphic, narrow budding encapsulated yeast*
- This morphology is characteristic of *Cryptococcus neoformans*, which causes **cryptococcosis**.
- Cryptococcosis commonly affects immunocompromised individuals, causing meningoencephalitis or pulmonary disease, but its presentation is distinct from ABPA, lacking the allergic and bronchiectatic features described.
Question 29: A 12-year-old child is exposed to pollen while playing outside. The allergen stimulates TH2 cells of his immune system to secrete a factor that leads to B-cell class switching to IgE. What factor is secreted by the TH2 cell?
A. IL-4 (Correct Answer)
B. IL-22
C. TGF-beta
D. IL-17
E. IFN-gamma
Explanation: ***IL-4***
- **Interleukin-4 (IL-4)** is a key cytokine produced by **TH2 cells** that promotes **B-cell class switching to IgE**, central to allergic reactions.
- It also stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into **TH2 cells**, further amplifying the **allergic response**.
*IL-22*
- **IL-22** is primarily involved in maintaining **epithelial barrier integrity** and promoting **tissue repair**, especially in the gut and skin.
- It does not play a direct role in **IgE class switching** or the pathogenesis of type I hypersensitivity.
*TGF-beta*
- **TGF-beta (Transforming Growth Factor-beta)** is a pleiotropic cytokine involved in **cell growth**, differentiation, apoptosis, and immune regulation, particularly promoting **Treg cell development** and IgA class switching.
- It primarily suppresses rather than promotes **allergic reactions** and IgE production.
*IL-17*
- **IL-17** is a cytokine predominantly produced by **TH17 cells** and is crucial in protection against **extracellular bacteria and fungi**.
- It is associated with **autoimmune diseases** and inflammation but not directly with IgE-mediated allergic responses.
*IFN-gamma*
- **Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)** is a critical **TH1 cytokine** that activates macrophages, enhances natural killer cell activity, and promotes the cell-mediated immune response.
- It typically **inhibits TH2 responses** and IgE production, thus working against the development of allergic reactions.
Question 30: A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of severe itching in the area of her genitals. She reports that the itching is most severe at night. She has been sexually active with three partners over the past year; she uses condoms for contraception. Her current sexual partner is experiencing similar symptoms. Pelvic examination shows vulvar excoriations. A photomicrograph of an epilated pubic hair is shown. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
A. Pediculus humanus
B. Epidermophyton floccosum
C. Phthirus pubis (Correct Answer)
D. Enterobius vermicularis
E. Sarcoptes scabiei
Explanation: ***Phthirus pubis***
- The symptoms of **pruritus**, especially **worse at night**, and the involvement of the **genital area** are classic for **pubic lice** (P. pubis or "crabs").
- The photomicrograph of an **epilated pubic hair with attached nits** (lice eggs) or an adult louse, along with her partner's similar symptoms, confirms the diagnosis.
*Pediculus humanus*
- This refers to **body lice** or **head lice**. While P. humanus capitis (head lice) can cause pruritus, it typically affects the scalp and is less common in the pubic area.
- **Body lice** usually inhabit clothing and only come to the skin to feed, causing generalized itching rather than specific genital pruritus with visible organisms on pubic hair.
*Epidermophyton floccosum*
- This is a **dermatophyte fungus** that causes **tinea cruris** (jock itch), which presents as an itchy, red, scaly rash, often with a raised border.
- It would not show up as organisms on pubic hair or cause excoriations specifically due to discrete insect bites.
*Enterobius vermicularis*
- This is a **pinworm** that causes **perianal pruritus**, especially at night, as the female worms migrate to lay eggs.
- While it causes itching in a similar area and is worse at night, it primarily affects the perianal region and is diagnosed by finding eggs via a **tape test**, not by visual inspection of pubic hair for organisms.
*Sarcoptes scabiei*
- This mite causes **scabies**, characterized by intense pruritus (worse at night) and a **papular rash**, often with **burrows**.
- While it can affect the genital area, the characteristic finding would be burrows or a widespread rash, not visible lice or nits attached to pubic hair as the primary finding.