A 16-year-old male is brought to the clinic by his mother for the complaints of fever, nonproductive cough, fatigue, lack of appetite, and sore throat for the past 2 months. Several other students at his high school have had similar symptoms. Physical exam shows a whitish membrane in his oropharynx, bilateral enlarged cervical lymphadenopathy, and mild splenomegaly. Which of the following tests is most likely to diagnose his condition?
Q2
A 55-year-old Caucasian male presents for a routine colonoscopy. A polyp is found in the patient's transverse colon and is found to be cancerous on histological evaluation. Upon examination, it is found that these cancerous cells have decreased MHC class I expression on their surface. Which immune system cell is most capable of killing these tumor cells?
Q3
A 28-year-old male with a history of HIV infection is found to have a CD4+ T lymphocyte count of 68 cells per microliter. As a consequence of his HIV infection, this patient is at increased risk of malignancy due to which of the following?
Q4
A scientist is researching the long term effects of the hepatitis viruses on hepatic tissue. She finds that certain strains are oncogenic and increase the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. However, they appear to do so via different mechanisms. Which of the following answer choices correctly pairs the hepatitis virus with the correct oncogenic process?
Q5
A 48-year-old man comes to the physician because of a skin lesion on his nose and in his mouth. The lesions have been gradually increasing in size and are not painful or pruritic. Two months ago, he was treated for esophageal candidiasis. Physical examination shows one pinkish-brown papule on the right wing of the nose and two similar nodular lesions on the hard palate and buccal mucosa. A biopsy of one of the lesions shows spindle-shaped endothelial cells and infiltration of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism of this patient's condition?
Q6
A 42-year-old man presents with an oral cavity lesion, toothache, and weight loss. He is known to have been HIV-positive for 6 years, but he does not follow a prescribed antiretroviral regimen because of personal beliefs. The vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg, heart rate 89/min, respiratory rate 17/min, and temperature 37.1°C (100.8°F). The physical examination revealed an ulcerative lesion located on the lower lip. The lesion was friable, as evidenced by contact bleeding, and tender on palpation. A CT scan showed the lesion to be a solid mass (7 x 6 x 7 cm3) invading the mandible and spreading to the soft tissues of the oral cavity floor. A biopsy was obtained to determine the tumor type, which showed a monotonous diffuse lymphoid proliferation of large cells with plasmablastic differentiation, and oval-to-round vesicular nuclei with fine chromatin. The cells are immunopositive for VS38c. DNA of which of the following viruses is most likely to be identified in the tumor cells?
Q7
A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician because of growths around her anus that developed over the past 4 weeks. They are not painful and she does not have blood in her stool. She is sexually active with two male partners and uses condoms inconsistently. She appears healthy. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows nontender, irregular, hyperkeratotic sessile lesions in the perianal area around 4–7 mm in diameter. There is no lymphadenopathy. The application of a dilute solution of acetic acid turns the lesions white. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the lesions?
Q8
A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician because he has been having headaches and hearing loss. In addition, he says that he has been having difficulty opening his jaw to eat and recurrent middle ear infections. Physical exam reveals enlarged neck lymph nodes and a mass in the nasopharynx. Biopsy of the mass reveals undifferentiated squamous epithelial cells. The organism that is most likely associated with this patient's disease is also associated with which of the following disorders?
Q9
A group of scientists is studying the mechanism by which the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine confers immunity. They observe that during inoculation of test subjects, certain viral proteins are taken up by the organism's antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and presented on major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules. Which of the following is the correct term for the process that the scientists are observing in this inoculation?
Q10
A 55-year-old Chinese man presents to the office with a complaint of progressive unilateral nasal obstruction for 10 months. Though he was able to tolerate his symptoms at the beginning, he can’t breathe properly through the obstructed nostril anymore. Also, a bloody nasal discharge has started recently through the occluded nostril. He also complains of double vision during the past 2 months but did not pay attention to it until now. Past medical history is insignificant except for occasional sore throats.
His vitals include: blood pressure of 120/88 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 14/min, pulse of 88/min, temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F).
Blood analysis shows:
Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
Hematocrit 46%
Leukocyte count 15000/mm3
Neutrophils 72%
Lymphocytes 25%
Monocytes 3%
Mean corpuscular volume 95 fL
Platelet count 350,000/mm3
Which of the following viral etiology is most likely associated with the development of this patient’s condition?
Oncogenic viruses US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 16-year-old male is brought to the clinic by his mother for the complaints of fever, nonproductive cough, fatigue, lack of appetite, and sore throat for the past 2 months. Several other students at his high school have had similar symptoms. Physical exam shows a whitish membrane in his oropharynx, bilateral enlarged cervical lymphadenopathy, and mild splenomegaly. Which of the following tests is most likely to diagnose his condition?
A. Monospot test (Correct Answer)
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
C. Throat culture
D. Urine culture
E. Chest X-ray
Explanation: ***Monospot test***
- The Monospot test detects **heterophile antibodies**, which are commonly produced during an acute Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection, the cause of **infectious mononucleosis**.
- The patient's symptoms (fever, fatigue, nonproductive cough, sore throat, cervical lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly) and the epidemiological context (several other students with similar symptoms) are highly suggestive of **infectious mononucleosis**.
*Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)*
- While ELISA can detect antibodies to various pathogens, including EBV-specific antigens, the **Monospot test** is the more common and rapid initial diagnostic tool for infectious mononucleosis.
- ELISA for EBV-specific antibodies (e.g., VCA-IgM, VCA-IgG) might be used if the Monospot test is negative but clinical suspicion remains high, especially in younger children or atypical presentations.
*Throat culture*
- A throat culture is used to identify bacterial infections, such as **Streptococcus pyogenes** (strep throat).
- Although the patient has a sore throat and a whitish membrane, his other systemic symptoms (fatigue, splenomegaly, lack of appetite for 2 months) are not typical for a bacterial pharyngitis which usually responds to antibiotics. A **nonproductive cough** also makes bacterial pharyngitis less likely.
*Urine culture*
- A urine culture is used to diagnose **urinary tract infections**.
- The patient's symptoms are not indicative of a urinary tract infection.
*Chest X-ray*
- A chest X-ray is used to evaluate the lungs for conditions such as **pneumonia**, **bronchitis**, or other respiratory pathologies.
- While the patient has a nonproductive cough, the predominant systemic symptoms (fever, fatigue, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly) point towards a systemic viral infection rather than primarily a lung issue that would be definitively diagnosed by a chest X-ray.
Question 2: A 55-year-old Caucasian male presents for a routine colonoscopy. A polyp is found in the patient's transverse colon and is found to be cancerous on histological evaluation. Upon examination, it is found that these cancerous cells have decreased MHC class I expression on their surface. Which immune system cell is most capable of killing these tumor cells?
A. Cytotoxic T-cells
B. B-cells
C. Macrophages
D. Natural killer cells (Correct Answer)
E. Eosinophils
Explanation: ***Natural killer cells***
- **Natural killer (NK) cells** are specialized lymphocytes that identify and kill cells with **decreased or absent MHC class I expression**, a common feature of tumor cells and virus-infected cells.
- They provide a rapid, non-specific immune response without prior sensitization.
*Cytotoxic T-cells*
- **Cytotoxic T-cells (CTLs)** recognize and kill target cells by binding to specific **antigens presented by MHC class I molecules**.
- Since these cancer cells have **decreased MHC class I expression**, CTLs would be less effective at recognizing and killing them.
*B-cells*
- **B-cells** are primarily involved in humoral immunity, producing **antibodies** that can neutralize pathogens or mark cells for destruction.
- They do not directly kill target cells, and their activation typically requires specific antigen recognition, often with T-cell help.
*Macrophages*
- **Macrophages** are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest cellular debris, pathogens, and some tumor cells.
- While they can kill tumor cells, their primary mechanism involves **phagocytosis** or antigen presentation, not direct cytotoxicity based on MHC I expression levels.
*Eosinophils*
- **Eosinophils** are granulocytes primarily involved in the defense against **parasitic infections** and in allergic reactions.
- They are not a primary defense mechanism against tumor cells, especially not based on MHC class I expression.
Question 3: A 28-year-old male with a history of HIV infection is found to have a CD4+ T lymphocyte count of 68 cells per microliter. As a consequence of his HIV infection, this patient is at increased risk of malignancy due to which of the following?
A. Pneumocystis jiroveci
B. Actinomyces israelii
C. Helicobacter pylori
D. HHV-6
E. Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)***
- **EBV** is a major cause of **AIDS-related malignancies**, particularly **B-cell lymphomas** including **non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)** and **primary CNS lymphoma**, which are common in patients with CD4 counts below 100 cells/µL.
- The severe immunosuppression in **HIV/AIDS** allows for unchecked **EBV-driven lymphoproliferative disorders** due to impaired T-cell surveillance of EBV-infected B cells.
- Among the options listed, **EBV** is the only **oncogenic virus** and represents a significant cause of morbidity in advanced AIDS patients.
- **Note:** While HHV-8 (KSHV) causing Kaposi's sarcoma is also a major AIDS-related malignancy, it is not among the listed options.
*Pneumocystis jiroveci*
- **Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)** is a common opportunistic **fungal infection** in HIV patients with CD4 < 200 cells/µL, causing severe respiratory illness.
- **PCP** is not oncogenic and does not increase malignancy risk; it causes acute infection, not cellular transformation.
*Actinomyces israelii*
- **Actinomyces israelii** is a gram-positive **bacterium** causing **actinomycosis**, a chronic suppurative infection with abscess formation and sinus tracts.
- While it can cause opportunistic infections in immunocompromised patients, it is **not oncogenic** and not associated with malignancy risk.
*Helicobacter pylori*
- **H. pylori** is a bacterium associated with **gastric adenocarcinoma** and **gastric MALT lymphoma** in the general population through chronic gastric inflammation.
- However, in the context of advanced HIV/AIDS with CD4 < 100, the predominant malignancy risk is from **oncogenic viruses** (EBV, HHV-8), not gastric pathology from **H. pylori**.
- **H. pylori** is not typically considered an AIDS-defining or AIDS-related malignancy.
*HHV-6*
- **Human Herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)** causes roseola infantum in children and can reactivate in immunocompromised patients, potentially causing encephalitis or pneumonitis.
- **HHV-6** is **not established as oncogenic** and lacks strong evidence linking it to malignancy in HIV patients, unlike **EBV** (lymphomas) or **HHV-8** (Kaposi's sarcoma).
Question 4: A scientist is researching the long term effects of the hepatitis viruses on hepatic tissue. She finds that certain strains are oncogenic and increase the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. However, they appear to do so via different mechanisms. Which of the following answer choices correctly pairs the hepatitis virus with the correct oncogenic process?
A. Hepatitis A virus - chronic inflammation
B. Hepatitis C virus - chronic inflammation
C. Hepatitis E virus - integration of viral DNA into host hepatocyte genome
D. Hepatitis B virus - integration of viral DNA into host hepatocyte genome (Correct Answer)
E. Hepatitis A virus - integration of viral DNA into host hepatocyte genome
Explanation: ***Hepatitis B virus - integration of viral DNA into host hepatocyte genome***
- **Hepatitis B virus (HBV)** is a **DNA virus** that can integrate its genetic material into the host hepatocyte genome, leading to genomic instability and promoting oncogenesis.
- This integration, along with chronic inflammation and the production of viral regulatory proteins, contributes significantly to the development of **hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)**.
*Hepatitis A virus - chronic inflammation*
- **Hepatitis A virus (HAV)** is an **RNA virus** that causes **acute hepatitis** but does not lead to chronic infection or chronic inflammation.
- Due to its acute and self-limiting nature, HAV is **not associated with hepatocellular carcinoma**.
*Hepatitis C virus - integration of viral DNA into host hepatocyte genome*
- **Hepatitis C virus (HCV)** is an **RNA virus** and therefore does not integrate its DNA into the host genome (as it has no DNA phase).
- HCV causes HCC primarily through **chronic inflammation**, **fibrosis**, and **cirrhosis**, not DNA integration.
*Hepatitis E virus - integration of viral DNA into host hepatocyte genome*
- **Hepatitis E virus (HEV)** is an **RNA virus** that typically causes acute, self-limiting hepatitis and does not integrate its genetic material into the host genome.
- While HEV can cause chronic infection in immunocompromised individuals, it is **not generally recognized as an oncogenic virus** leading to HCC.
*Hepatitis A virus - integration of viral DNA into host hepatocyte genome*
- **Hepatitis A virus (HAV)** is an **RNA virus**, meaning it does not have a DNA stage and therefore cannot integrate DNA into the host genome.
- HAV causes **acute, self-limiting infections** and is definitively **not associated with hepatocellular carcinoma**.
Question 5: A 48-year-old man comes to the physician because of a skin lesion on his nose and in his mouth. The lesions have been gradually increasing in size and are not painful or pruritic. Two months ago, he was treated for esophageal candidiasis. Physical examination shows one pinkish-brown papule on the right wing of the nose and two similar nodular lesions on the hard palate and buccal mucosa. A biopsy of one of the lesions shows spindle-shaped endothelial cells and infiltration of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism of this patient's condition?
A. Mycobacterium avium complex
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. Polyomavirus
D. Human herpes virus 8 (Correct Answer)
E. Poxvirus
Explanation: ***Human herpes virus 8***
- The presence of **pinkish-brown papules/nodules** on the skin and oral mucosa, along with a history of esophageal candidiasis (which suggests an **immunocompromised state**), is highly indicative of **Kaposi's sarcoma**.
- **Biopsy findings** of spindle-shaped endothelial cells and inflammatory infiltrate are characteristic features of Kaposi's sarcoma, which is caused by HHV-8.
*Mycobacterium avium complex*
- This infection usually presents with **systemic symptoms** like fever, night sweats, weight loss, and adenopathy, or gastrointestinal symptoms, rather than localized skin and oral lesions.
- Granulomas, not spindle cell lesions, would be expected on **biopsy**.
*Epstein-Barr virus*
- EBV is associated with various lymphoproliferative disorders and lymphomas, as well as **oral hairy leukoplakia** in immunocompromised patients.
- It does not typically cause the **vascular, nodular lesions** described here.
*Polyomavirus*
- Polyomaviruses (e.g., JC virus, BK virus) are associated with **progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy** and **nephropathy** in immunocompromised patients.
- They do not cause these specific types of **skin and oral lesions**.
*Poxvirus*
- Poxviruses (e.g., molluscum contagiosum) cause **umbilicated papules** or extensive skin lesions but are not associated with the **vascular spindle cell proliferation** seen in Kaposi's sarcoma.
- The lesions caused by poxviruses have a different **histological appearance**.
Question 6: A 42-year-old man presents with an oral cavity lesion, toothache, and weight loss. He is known to have been HIV-positive for 6 years, but he does not follow a prescribed antiretroviral regimen because of personal beliefs. The vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg, heart rate 89/min, respiratory rate 17/min, and temperature 37.1°C (100.8°F). The physical examination revealed an ulcerative lesion located on the lower lip. The lesion was friable, as evidenced by contact bleeding, and tender on palpation. A CT scan showed the lesion to be a solid mass (7 x 6 x 7 cm3) invading the mandible and spreading to the soft tissues of the oral cavity floor. A biopsy was obtained to determine the tumor type, which showed a monotonous diffuse lymphoid proliferation of large cells with plasmablastic differentiation, and oval-to-round vesicular nuclei with fine chromatin. The cells are immunopositive for VS38c. DNA of which of the following viruses is most likely to be identified in the tumor cells?
A. HPV-16
B. EBV (Correct Answer)
C. HHV-8
D. CMV
E. HHV-1
Explanation: ***EBV***
- The description of a **monotonous diffuse lymphoid proliferation of large cells with plasmablastic differentiation** in an HIV-positive patient points strongly towards **plasmablastic lymphoma**.
- **EBV** is strongly associated with plasmablastic lymphoma, especially in immunocompromised individuals like this HIV-positive patient who is not adherent to antiretroviral therapy.
*HPV-16*
- **HPV-16** is primarily associated with **squamous cell carcinoma**, particularly of the oropharynx, cervix, and anogenital region.
- The biopsy description of **lymphoid proliferation** does not fit the characteristics of squamous cell carcinoma.
*HHV-8*
- **HHV-8** (Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus) is the causative agent of **Kaposi's sarcoma** and some rare lymphomas like **primary effusion lymphoma** and multicentric Castleman disease.
- The presented lesion is an ulcerative, friable mass with plasmablastic differentiation, which is not characteristic of Kaposi's sarcoma.
*CMV*
- **CMV** (Cytomegalovirus) is a common opportunistic infection in HIV-positive patients, causing retinitis, colitis, and esophagitis.
- It is not directly implicated in the pathogenesis of oral cavity lymphomas with plasmablastic differentiation.
*HHV-1*
- **HHV-1** (Herpes simplex virus type 1) is a common cause of oral and facial lesions like **herpes labialis (cold sores)**.
- While it causes oral lesions, it is not associated with the development of large, invasive lymphoid malignancies described in this patient.
Question 7: A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician because of growths around her anus that developed over the past 4 weeks. They are not painful and she does not have blood in her stool. She is sexually active with two male partners and uses condoms inconsistently. She appears healthy. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows nontender, irregular, hyperkeratotic sessile lesions in the perianal area around 4–7 mm in diameter. There is no lymphadenopathy. The application of a dilute solution of acetic acid turns the lesions white. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the lesions?
A. Benign fibroepithelial growth
B. Human papilloma virus (Correct Answer)
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Malignant transformation
E. Poxvirus
Explanation: ***Human papilloma virus***
- The description of **nontender, irregular, hyperkeratotic sessile lesions** around the anus, especially in a sexually active individual, is highly characteristic of **condylomata acuminata**, which are caused by **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)**.
- The positive **acetic acid test** (lesions turning white) is a common diagnostic indicator for HPV-related lesions due to its ability to highlight areas of **increased nuclear density** and **epithelial dysplastic changes**.
*Benign fibroepithelial growth*
- While benign fibroepithelial growths can occur, the **multitude of lesions**, their **irregular and hyperkeratotic appearance**, and the positive acetic acid test are less typical features for a simple skin tag or benign growth.
- Such growths are generally not associated with a **positive acetic acid test** and do not typically present with the same **hyperkeratotic morphology** as described.
*Treponema pallidum*
- **Treponema pallidum** causes syphilis, which can present as **condyloma lata** (secondary syphilis), but these are typically **flat-topped, moist, broad-based papules or plaques**, distinct from the described **hyperkeratotic, sessile lesions**.
- Condyloma lata are also usually **non-itchy** and located in warm, moist areas, but their morphology and the typical rapid response to acetic acid application differ from HPV lesions.
*Malignant transformation*
- While prolonged HPV infection can lead to malignant transformation (e.g., anal cancer), the current description of **multiple, relatively small (4-7 mm), nontender lesions** without lymphadenopathy is more indicative of **benign HPV warts** rather than immediate malignancy.
- Malignant lesions would likely be more **ulcerated, indurated**, or associated with **pain/bleeding**, and might show signs of local invasion or regional lymphadenopathy.
*Poxvirus*
- **Poxvirus** causes **molluscum contagiosum**, which presents as **umbilicated, pearly-white or flesh-colored papules** with a central core.
- This morphology is distinctly different from the described **irregular, hyperkeratotic sessile lesions** and would not typically show a positive acetic acid test (acetowhitening).
Question 8: A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician because he has been having headaches and hearing loss. In addition, he says that he has been having difficulty opening his jaw to eat and recurrent middle ear infections. Physical exam reveals enlarged neck lymph nodes and a mass in the nasopharynx. Biopsy of the mass reveals undifferentiated squamous epithelial cells. The organism that is most likely associated with this patient's disease is also associated with which of the following disorders?
A. Kaposi sarcoma
B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
C. Adult T-cell lymphoma
D. Burkitt lymphoma (Correct Answer)
E. Vulvar carcinoma
Explanation: ***Burkitt lymphoma***
- The patient's symptoms (headaches, hearing loss, difficulty opening jaw, recurrent middle ear infections, nasopharyngeal mass, enlarged neck lymph nodes) and biopsy results (undifferentiated squamous epithelial cells) point to **nasopharyngeal carcinoma**.
- **Nasopharyngeal carcinoma** is strongly associated with the **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)**. EBV is also a causative agent in **Burkitt lymphoma**.
*Kaposi sarcoma*
- **Kaposi sarcoma** is caused by **Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)**, not EBV.
- It typically presents as vascular skin lesions and can affect visceral organs, differing from the nasopharyngeal carcinoma described.
*Hepatocellular carcinoma*
- **Hepatocellular carcinoma** is primarily associated with **Hepatitis B virus (HBV)** and **Hepatitis C virus (HCV)** infection, as well as cirrhosis from other causes.
- There is no significant association between EBV and hepatocellular carcinoma.
*Adult T-cell lymphoma*
- **Adult T-cell lymphoma** is caused by the **Human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)**.
- This is a retrovirus distinct from EBV.
*Vulvar carcinoma*
- **Vulvar carcinoma** is most frequently associated with **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)** infection, especially high-risk strains like HPV 16 and 18.
- It is not typically linked to EBV.
Question 9: A group of scientists is studying the mechanism by which the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine confers immunity. They observe that during inoculation of test subjects, certain viral proteins are taken up by the organism's antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and presented on major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules. Which of the following is the correct term for the process that the scientists are observing in this inoculation?
A. Priming of CD4+ T cells
B. Ubiquitination
C. Endogenous antigen presentation
D. Cross-presentation (Correct Answer)
E. Adhesion
Explanation: ***Cross-presentation***
- **Cross-presentation** occurs when an **antigen-presenting cell (APC)**, typically a dendritic cell, takes up **exogenous antigens** (like viral proteins from a vaccine) and presents them on **MHC class I molecules** to activate **CD8+ T cells**.
- This process is crucial for generating a strong **cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response** against viruses and tumors when the pathogen does not directly infect the APC.
*Priming of CD4+ T cells*
- **Priming of CD4+ T cells** involves the presentation of antigens on **MHC class II molecules**, which are typically loaded with **exogenous antigens** that have been internalized by the APC.
- The scenario describes antigen presentation on **MHC class I**, which points towards activation of CD8+ T cells, not CD4+ T cells directly.
*Ubiquitination*
- **Ubiquitination** is a process where the protein **ubiquitin** is attached to another protein, often marking it for degradation by the **proteasome**.
- While ubiquitination is involved in preparing **endogenous antigens** for MHC class I presentation, it is a *step within* the broader antigen processing pathway, not the overall process of an APC presenting exogenous antigen on MHC class I.
*Endogenous antigen presentation*
- **Endogenous antigen presentation** refers to the presentation of **peptides derived from proteins synthesized within the cell** (e.g., viral proteins in an infected cell) on **MHC class I molecules**.
- In this scenario, the viral proteins are *inoculated* into the organism, meaning they are initially **exogenous** to the APC before uptake, making cross-presentation the more accurate description.
*Adhesion*
- **Adhesion** refers to the process by which cells attach to other cells or to the extracellular matrix, often mediated by **adhesion molecules**.
- While cell-cell interactions are important in immune responses, "adhesion" does not describe the specific mechanism of an APC taking up an antigen and presenting it on MHC class I.
Question 10: A 55-year-old Chinese man presents to the office with a complaint of progressive unilateral nasal obstruction for 10 months. Though he was able to tolerate his symptoms at the beginning, he can’t breathe properly through the obstructed nostril anymore. Also, a bloody nasal discharge has started recently through the occluded nostril. He also complains of double vision during the past 2 months but did not pay attention to it until now. Past medical history is insignificant except for occasional sore throats.
His vitals include: blood pressure of 120/88 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 14/min, pulse of 88/min, temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F).
Blood analysis shows:
Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
Hematocrit 46%
Leukocyte count 15000/mm3
Neutrophils 72%
Lymphocytes 25%
Monocytes 3%
Mean corpuscular volume 95 fL
Platelet count 350,000/mm3
Which of the following viral etiology is most likely associated with the development of this patient’s condition?
A. Human T lymphotropic virus type I
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. HIV
D. Epstein-Barr virus (Correct Answer)
E. Human papillomavirus
Explanation: ***Epstein-Barr virus***
- The patient's symptoms of **unilateral nasal obstruction**, **bloody nasal discharge**, and **diplopia** (double vision) are highly suggestive of **nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC)**.
- **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** is strongly associated with NPC, particularly in endemic regions like Southeast Asia, which includes China, the patient's ethnicity.
*Human T lymphotropic virus type I*
- **HTLV-1** is primarily associated with **Adult T-cell Leukemia/Lymphoma** and **HTLV-1-associated myelopathy/tropical spastic paraparesis**.
- It does not typically present with sinonasal malignancy symptoms like unilateral nasal obstruction and bloody discharge.
*Hepatitis B virus*
- **Hepatitis B virus (HBV)** is a major risk factor for **hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)** and can cause various liver diseases.
- HBV is not linked to nasopharyngeal carcinoma or the specific symptoms presented in this patient.
*HIV*
- **HIV** primarily causes **immunosuppression**, leading to opportunistic infections and certain cancers like **Kaposi's sarcoma**, **non-Hodgkin lymphoma**, and **cervical cancer**.
- While HIV can increase the risk of some cancers, it is not directly associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma as a primary viral etiology.
*Human papillomavirus*
- **Human papillomavirus (HPV)** is a well-known cause of **cervical cancer**, **anogenital cancers**, and a subset of **oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinomas**.
- HPV is not a common viral etiology for nasopharyngeal carcinoma, which is more strongly linked to EBV.