A 49-year-old homeless man comes to the emergency department because of fatigue, cough, and worsening shortness of breath for 2 weeks. He was diagnosed with HIV-infection 25 years ago but has never had any symptoms. He has always refused to take antiretroviral medication. Pulmonary examination shows diffuse crackles over bilateral lower lung fields. An x-ray of the chest shows diffuse, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. His serum level of beta-d-glucan is elevated. Further testing shows a heterozygous mutation that prevents entry of HIV into macrophages. Which of the following proteins is most likely affected by the mutation in this patient?
Q12
A 45-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of progressive diarrhea and a 2.2-kg (5-lb) weight loss. During the past week, he has had six small bloody stools daily. He is employed as a sales manager and regularly flies to South America. He has HIV, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and hypertension. Current medications include chlorthalidone, omeprazole, emtricitabine, tenofovir, and efavirenz. He reports taking efavirenz irregularly. He is 175 cm (5 ft 9 in) tall and weighs 64 kg (143 lb); BMI is 22 kg/m2. His temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 91/min, and blood pressure is 116/69 mm Hg. The abdomen is scaphoid. Bowel sounds are normal. His CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 44/mm3 (N ≥ 500), leukocyte count is 6,000/mm3, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 12 mm/h. Colonoscopy shows areas of inflammation scattered throughout the colon with friability, granularity, and shallow linear ulcerations. The intervening mucosa between areas of inflammation appears normal. A biopsy specimen is shown. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q13
A 45-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection presents to the emergency room complaining of clumsiness and weakness. He reports a 3-month history of worsening balance, asymmetric muscle weakness, and speech difficulties. He recently returned from a trip to Guatemala to visit his family. He has been poorly compliant with his anti-retroviral therapy and his most recent CD4 count was 195. His history is also notable for rheumatoid arthritis and hepatitis C. His temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, he has 4/5 strength in his right upper extremity, 5/5 strength in his left upper extremity, 5/5 strength in his right lower extremity, and 3/5 strength in his left lower extremity. His speech is disjointed with intermittent long pauses between words. Vision is 20/100 in the left eye and 20/40 in his right eye; previously, his eyesight was 20/30 bilaterally. This patient most likely has a condition caused by which of the following types of pathogens?
Q14
A 45-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of painful swallowing and retrosternal pain over the past 2 days. He was recently diagnosed with HIV infection, for which he now takes tenofovir, emtricitabine, and raltegravir. There is no family history of serious illness. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 20 years. He drinks 2–3 beers per day. He does not use illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination of the oral cavity shows no abnormalities. The patient's CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 80/mm3 (normal ≥ 500). Empiric treatment is started. Two weeks later, he reports no improvement in his symptoms. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy is performed and shows multiple well-circumscribed, round, superficial ulcers in the upper esophagus. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q15
A laboratory method uses chromogenic substrates, in which a reaction may be interpreted according to an enzyme-mediated color change. The detection of which of the substances below is routinely used in clinical practice and applies the above-described method?
Q16
A 20-year-old female arrives at the urgent care clinic at her university’s health plan asking for an HIV test. She is an undergraduate at the university and just started having sexual intercourse with her new boyfriend. They use protection only occasionally so she wants to get tested to make sure everything is okay. She has never been tested for STDs before. She reports no symptoms and has not seen a physician regularly for any medical conditions in the past. Her family history is uncertain because she was adopted. Her HIV immunoassay and HIV-1/HIV-2 differentiation immunoassay both come back positive. She asks on the phone, “Doctor, tell it to me straight. Do I have AIDS?” Which of the following is the most accurate response?
Q17
A 48-year-old woman is brought to her primary care physician by her sister who is concerned about a deterioration in the patient's general status. The patient was diagnosed with HIV 7 years ago. She says that her last T cell count was "good enough", so she has been skipping every other dose of her antiretroviral medications and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Her sister has had to drive her home from work several times this month because she has become disoriented and confused about her surroundings. Motor strength is 4/5 on the right and 3/5 on the left. She is able to walk unassisted, but her gait appears mildly uncoordinated. There is diplopia when the right eye is covered. Her CD4 count is 75 cells/µL. MRI shows numerous asymmetric, hyperintense, non-enhancing lesions bilaterally without mass effect. Brain biopsy shows demyelination and atypical astrocytes. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's current condition?
Q18
A 37-year-old man comes to the physician because of fever, night sweats, malaise, dyspnea, and a productive cough with bloody sputum for 4 days. He was diagnosed with HIV infection 15 years ago and has not been compliant with his medication regimen. Physical examination shows diminished breath sounds over the left lung fields. An x-ray of the chest shows an ill-defined lesion in the upper lobe of the left lung. A CT-guided biopsy of the lesion is performed; a photomicrograph of the biopsy specimen stained with mucicarmine is shown. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
Q19
A 32-year-old man comes to the physician with difficulty swallowing for several weeks. Examination of the oropharynx shows lesions on palate and tongue that can be easily scraped off. An image of the lesions is shown. Which of the following is a risk factor for this patient's findings?
Q20
During an experiment conducted to alter the infectivity of common viruses that affect humans, an investigator successfully increases the host range of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The new strain of the virus can infect fibroblast-like cells in addition to the usual target of HIV. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the increase in the host range of the virus?
HIV US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: A 49-year-old homeless man comes to the emergency department because of fatigue, cough, and worsening shortness of breath for 2 weeks. He was diagnosed with HIV-infection 25 years ago but has never had any symptoms. He has always refused to take antiretroviral medication. Pulmonary examination shows diffuse crackles over bilateral lower lung fields. An x-ray of the chest shows diffuse, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. His serum level of beta-d-glucan is elevated. Further testing shows a heterozygous mutation that prevents entry of HIV into macrophages. Which of the following proteins is most likely affected by the mutation in this patient?
A. ICAM-1
B. Gp120
C. CD4
D. P antigen
E. CCR5 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CCR5***
- The mutation preventing HIV entry into **macrophages** points to an issue with a coreceptor, most commonly **CCR5**, which is crucial for macrophage-tropic HIV strains.
- A **heterozygous mutation** in CCR5 (CCR5-Δ32) can confer partial resistance to HIV-1 infection, explaining why the patient has been asymptomatic for 25 years despite refusing antiretroviral therapy.
- This is a well-documented host genetic factor that slows HIV disease progression.
*ICAM-1*
- **ICAM-1 (Intercellular Adhesion Molecule 1)** is involved in cell adhesion and immune cell trafficking, but not directly in HIV entry into macrophages.
- Mutations in ICAM-1 would not specifically prevent HIV entry, nor would it explain the long-term asymptomatic status in an HIV-positive individual.
*Gp120*
- **Gp120** is an HIV envelope glycoprotein that binds to the **CD4 receptor** and a coreceptor (CCR5 or CXCR4) on host cells.
- While gp120 is essential for HIV entry, it is a **viral protein**; the question asks about a mutation in a **host protein** that prevents viral entry.
*CD4*
- **CD4** is the primary receptor for HIV on T cells and macrophages, essential for viral entry.
- However, a **heterozygous CD4 mutation** would not provide meaningful protection against HIV, as one functional copy would be sufficient for viral entry.
- In contrast, heterozygous **CCR5-Δ32** mutation provides documented partial resistance, making CCR5 the better answer given this patient's 25-year asymptomatic course.
*P antigen*
- **P antigen** typically refers to a red blood cell antigen and is not involved in HIV entry into macrophages.
- There is no known direct association between P antigen and HIV susceptibility or disease progression.
Question 12: A 45-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of progressive diarrhea and a 2.2-kg (5-lb) weight loss. During the past week, he has had six small bloody stools daily. He is employed as a sales manager and regularly flies to South America. He has HIV, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and hypertension. Current medications include chlorthalidone, omeprazole, emtricitabine, tenofovir, and efavirenz. He reports taking efavirenz irregularly. He is 175 cm (5 ft 9 in) tall and weighs 64 kg (143 lb); BMI is 22 kg/m2. His temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 91/min, and blood pressure is 116/69 mm Hg. The abdomen is scaphoid. Bowel sounds are normal. His CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 44/mm3 (N ≥ 500), leukocyte count is 6,000/mm3, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 12 mm/h. Colonoscopy shows areas of inflammation scattered throughout the colon with friability, granularity, and shallow linear ulcerations. The intervening mucosa between areas of inflammation appears normal. A biopsy specimen is shown. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Adverse effect of medications
B. Cytomegalovirus (Correct Answer)
C. Clostridioides difficile
D. Cryptosporidium parvum
E. Hepatitis A virus
Explanation: ***Cytomegalovirus***
- The biopsy shows **cytomegalovirus (CMV)** infection, characterized by **intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions** (owl's eye appearance) within endothelial cells, fibroblasts, and macrophages, indicated by the arrows.
- This patient's severely **immunocompromised status** (CD4+ count of 44/mm3) makes him highly susceptible to opportunistic infections like CMV, which commonly causes **bloody diarrhea, weight loss**, and scattered colonic inflammation with friability and shallow linear ulcerations.
*Adverse effect of medications*
- While medications can cause gastrointestinal side effects, the biopsy findings of characteristic **viral inclusions** definitively point away from a drug-induced etiology.
- Drug-related diarrhea typically does not present with the specific **histopathological features** seen, particularly the **intranuclear inclusions**.
*Clostridioides difficile*
- *C. difficile* infection typically presents with **pseudomembranous colitis**, which involves endoscopic findings of raised yellow-white plaques and characteristic pseudomembranes on histology, not the scattered inflammation and specific viral inclusions seen here.
- Although the patient is on antibiotics (emtricitabine, tenofovir, efavirenz, though anti-retrovirals are unlikely directly to cause *C. difficile* overgrowth), his CD4 count is far more suggestive of an **opportunistic infection**.
*Cryptosporidium parvum*
- *Cryptosporidium parvum* causes **watery diarrhea** in immunocompromised individuals and would show **oocysts** on stool examination or small basophilic spheres attached to the brush border of enterocytes on biopsy, not viral inclusions.
- It does not typically cause the **bloody diarrhea** or the specific ulcerations observed in this patient.
*Hepatitis A virus*
- Hepatitis A virus primarily affects the **liver**, causing acute hepatitis with symptoms like fatigue, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and jaundice.
- While it can cause some gastrointestinal symptoms, **bloody diarrhea** and the histological findings in the colon are not characteristic of Hepatitis A infection.
Question 13: A 45-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection presents to the emergency room complaining of clumsiness and weakness. He reports a 3-month history of worsening balance, asymmetric muscle weakness, and speech difficulties. He recently returned from a trip to Guatemala to visit his family. He has been poorly compliant with his anti-retroviral therapy and his most recent CD4 count was 195. His history is also notable for rheumatoid arthritis and hepatitis C. His temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, he has 4/5 strength in his right upper extremity, 5/5 strength in his left upper extremity, 5/5 strength in his right lower extremity, and 3/5 strength in his left lower extremity. His speech is disjointed with intermittent long pauses between words. Vision is 20/100 in the left eye and 20/40 in his right eye; previously, his eyesight was 20/30 bilaterally. This patient most likely has a condition caused by which of the following types of pathogens?
A. Arenavirus
B. Bunyavirus
C. Herpesvirus
D. Polyomavirus (Correct Answer)
E. Picornavirus
Explanation: ***Polyomavirus***
- The patient's **poorly controlled HIV**, **low CD4 count (195)**, and progressive neurological symptoms (clumsiness, weakness, speech difficulties, vision changes) are highly suggestive of **Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML)**.
- PML is caused by the **JC virus**, which is a type of **polyomavirus**, typically reactivating in immunocompromised individuals.
*Arenavirus*
- Arenaviruses (e.g., Lassa fever virus) are known to cause **hemorrhagic fevers** and can lead to neurological complications, but the clinical presentation described (progressive focal neurological deficits in an HIV patient) is not typical for an arenavirus infection.
- While some arenaviruses cause **meningoencephalitis**, the progressive, demyelinating-like course seen in this patient points away from arenavirus.
*Bunyavirus*
- Bunyaviruses (e.g., Hantavirus, La Crosse encephalitis virus) can cause **encephalitis**, fever, and myalgia, but they don't typically present with the specific constellation of **progressive white matter lesions** and focal neurological signs characteristic of PML in an HIV patient.
- Hantaviruses are more associated with **hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome** or **hantavirus cardiopulmonary syndrome**.
*Herpesvirus*
- While herpesviruses (e.g., HSV, CMV, VZV) can cause severe neurological disease in HIV patients (e.g., **CMV encephalitis**, **HSV encephalitis**, **VZV vasculopathy**), the described progressive multifocal deficits, especially with rapid worsening, in an HIV patient with a low CD4 count strongly favor PML.
- Herpesviral encephalitides often present with more acute onset, fever, and seizures, or specific radiographic patterns not directly matching PML.
*Picornavirus*
- Picornaviruses, such as enteroviruses, can cause **aseptic meningitis** or **encephalitis**, particularly in immunocompromised individuals.
- However, the progressive, multifocal neurological deficits, particularly affecting **white matter**, are not characteristic of picornavirus infections, which tend to cause more diffuse or acute inflammatory processes.
Question 14: A 45-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of painful swallowing and retrosternal pain over the past 2 days. He was recently diagnosed with HIV infection, for which he now takes tenofovir, emtricitabine, and raltegravir. There is no family history of serious illness. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 20 years. He drinks 2–3 beers per day. He does not use illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination of the oral cavity shows no abnormalities. The patient's CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 80/mm3 (normal ≥ 500). Empiric treatment is started. Two weeks later, he reports no improvement in his symptoms. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy is performed and shows multiple well-circumscribed, round, superficial ulcers in the upper esophagus. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Degeneration of inhibitory neurons within the myenteric plexuses
B. Infection with cytomegalovirus
C. Infection with herpes simplex virus (Correct Answer)
D. Transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxation
E. Allergic inflammation of the esophagus
Explanation: ***Infection with herpes simplex virus***
- The patient's **HIV infection** and **low CD4+ T-lymphocyte count (80/mm3)** indicate severe immunosuppression, making him highly susceptible to opportunistic infections like HSV esophagitis.
- The EGD findings of **multiple well-circumscribed, round, superficial ulcers** predominantly in the **upper esophagus** are classic endoscopic features of HSV esophagitis.
*Degeneration of inhibitory neurons within the myenteric plexuses*
- This condition, known as **achalasia**, typically presents with **dysphagia for both liquids and solids**, regurgitation, and chest pain, which can be confused with retrosternal pain.
- However, achalasia does not typically cause **ulcers in the esophagus** and is not primarily linked to HIV or immunosuppression.
*Infection with cytomegalovirus*
- While CMV esophagitis can occur in immunosuppressed patients and cause odynophagia and retrosternal pain, the ulcers are typically **linear**, **serpiginous**, or **giant** and located more commonly in the **distal esophagus**, unlike the round, superficial ulcers seen here.
- CMV infection often presents with other systemic symptoms like fever, fatigue, and leukopenia, which are not mentioned in this case.
*Transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxation*
- This is a common mechanism contributing to **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)**, which can cause retrosternal pain and dysphagia due to esophageal strictures or erosions.
- However, GERD typically causes **diffuse inflammation** and **erosions** rather than discrete, well-circumscribed ulcers, and it's not directly linked to the patient's immunosuppressed state.
*Allergic inflammation of the esophagus*
- This describes **eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE)**, which presents with dysphagia and food impaction, especially in younger individuals or those with other atopic conditions.
- Endoscopy in EoE often shows **trachealization** (concentric rings), **linear furrows**, or **white exudates**, not well-circumscribed ulcers, and it's not associated with HIV infection or severe immunosuppression.
Question 15: A laboratory method uses chromogenic substrates, in which a reaction may be interpreted according to an enzyme-mediated color change. The detection of which of the substances below is routinely used in clinical practice and applies the above-described method?
A. Epstein-Barr virus infection
B. ABO blood types
C. Anti-D antibodies
D. Antibodies in autoimmune hemolytic anemia
E. P24 antigen (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***P24 antigen***
- The **P24 antigen** test for **HIV** often utilizes **ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)**, which relies on an enzyme-mediated color change reaction (chromogenic substrate) for detection.
- The intensity of the color change is proportional to the amount of **P24 antigen** present, indicating recent **HIV infection**.
*Epstein-Barr virus infection*
- Detection of **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** infection commonly involves serological tests for specific **antibodies (e.g., VCA-IgM, VCA-IgG, EBNA-IgG)**, not typically direct antigen detection via chromogenic substrates.
- While some **ELISA-based antibody tests** use chromogenic reactions, the primary target is the antibody response, not a direct viral antigen (like P24 in HIV).
*ABO blood types*
- **ABO blood typing** is primarily performed using **agglutination reactions** where red blood cells clump in the presence of specific antibodies, visible macroscopically.
- This method does not involve an enzyme-mediated color change with **chromogenic substrates**.
*Anti-D antibodies*
- Detection of **anti-D antibodies** (e.g., in Rh-negative pregnant women or for transfusion reactions) is typically done via **indirect antiglobulin test (IAT or Coombs test)**, which identifies antibodies bound to red blood cells or free in serum.
- The **IAT** relies on agglutination, not an enzyme-linked chromogenic reaction.
*Antibodies in autoimmune hemolytic anemia*
- **Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)** is diagnosed primarily using the **direct antiglobulin test (DAT or Coombs test)**, which detects antibodies already coating the patient's red blood cells.
- The **DAT** works by inducing agglutination, not through an enzyme-mediated chromogenic substrate detection system.
Question 16: A 20-year-old female arrives at the urgent care clinic at her university’s health plan asking for an HIV test. She is an undergraduate at the university and just started having sexual intercourse with her new boyfriend. They use protection only occasionally so she wants to get tested to make sure everything is okay. She has never been tested for STDs before. She reports no symptoms and has not seen a physician regularly for any medical conditions in the past. Her family history is uncertain because she was adopted. Her HIV immunoassay and HIV-1/HIV-2 differentiation immunoassay both come back positive. She asks on the phone, “Doctor, tell it to me straight. Do I have AIDS?” Which of the following is the most accurate response?
A. We need your partner's information to be sure of your diagnosis.
B. We have to get a confirmatory PCR test to see if you have AIDS.
C. You have AIDS but this disease is now a manageable condition.
D. We need additional bloodwork to see if you have AIDS. (Correct Answer)
E. You do not have AIDS because you just started having sex recently.
Explanation: ***We need additional bloodwork to see if you have AIDS.***
- A patient receives an **AIDS diagnosis** when their **CD4+ T-cell count drops below 200 cells/µL** or if they develop an **AIDS-defining illness**, such as *Pneumocystis jirovecii* pneumonia or Kaposi's sarcoma.
- While the **positive HIV tests** indicate she has **HIV infection**, additional tests are required to assess her immune status and confirm an AIDS diagnosis.
*We need your partner's information to be sure of your diagnosis.*
- A person's HIV status is determined by **their own test results**, not by their partner's information.
- While partner notification is important for public health, it is not necessary to confirm an individual's HIV diagnosis.
*We have to get a confirmatory PCR test to see if you have AIDS.*
- A **PCR test** (specifically a **nucleic acid test**) is used to **confirm HIV infection** by detecting viral RNA or DNA, especially in early stages or when antibody tests are indeterminate.
- However, a PCR test alone does not diagnose AIDS; a diagnosis of AIDS requires monitoring of **CD4+ T-cell count** and/or the presence of AIDS-defining illnesses.
*You have AIDS but this disease is now a manageable condition.*
- This statement is **premature and potentially inaccurate**, as her AIDS status has not yet been determined.
- While HIV infection is manageable with treatment, misinforming a patient about an AIDS diagnosis before full evaluation is inappropriate.
*You do not have AIDS because you just started having sex recently.*
- The **time since exposure** to HIV does not definitively rule out an AIDS diagnosis.
- While it typically takes years for **HIV to progress to AIDS**, individual progression rates can vary, and it is crucial to perform appropriate diagnostic tests rather than making assumptions based on exposure history.
Question 17: A 48-year-old woman is brought to her primary care physician by her sister who is concerned about a deterioration in the patient's general status. The patient was diagnosed with HIV 7 years ago. She says that her last T cell count was "good enough", so she has been skipping every other dose of her antiretroviral medications and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Her sister has had to drive her home from work several times this month because she has become disoriented and confused about her surroundings. Motor strength is 4/5 on the right and 3/5 on the left. She is able to walk unassisted, but her gait appears mildly uncoordinated. There is diplopia when the right eye is covered. Her CD4 count is 75 cells/µL. MRI shows numerous asymmetric, hyperintense, non-enhancing lesions bilaterally without mass effect. Brain biopsy shows demyelination and atypical astrocytes. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's current condition?
A. Autoimmune demyelination
B. John Cunningham virus (JC virus) (Correct Answer)
C. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Primary CNS lymphoma (PCNSL)
E. HIV associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND)
Explanation: ***John Cunningham virus (JC virus)***
- This patient presents with **progressive neurological deficits**, disorientation, motor weakness, uncoordinated gait, and diplopia, in the setting of severe **immunocompromise** (CD4 count 75 cells/µL) due to non-adherence to HIV medication. The MRI findings of **asymmetric, non-enhancing, hyperintense lesions without mass effect** are classic for **Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML)**, which is caused by the **JC virus**.
- **Brain biopsy** showing **demyelination and atypical astrocytes** further confirms the diagnosis of PML, as the JC virus primarily infects and destroys oligodendrocytes, leading to demyelination, and causes characteristic cytopathic effects on astrocytes.
*Autoimmune demyelination*
- While there is demyelination, the patient's severe **immunocompromised state (CD4 = 75 cells/µL)** makes an opportunistic infection far more likely than an autoimmune process.
- Autoimmune demyelination, such as multiple sclerosis, typically does not present with such rapid deterioration in a profoundly immunocompromised individual and is usually not characterized by non-enhancing lesions.
*Toxoplasma gondii*
- **Toxoplasmosis** is a common opportunistic infection in HIV patients with low CD4 counts, often presenting with focal neurological deficits, seizures, and headache.
- However, MRI lesions are typically **ring-enhancing** and often associated with **mass effect**, which is contrary to the non-enhancing lesions without mass effect described in this case.
*Primary CNS lymphoma (PCNSL)*
- PCNSL can also occur in immunocompromised HIV patients and presents with neurological symptoms.
- However, PCNSL lesions are typically **contrast-enhancing** (often homogeneously) and frequently demonstrate **mass effect**, which is not seen here.
*HIV associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND)*
- HAND causes cognitive impairment, but typically involves a more **diffuse process** rather than discrete focal lesions.
- It does not usually present with the dramatic asymmetric motor deficits, diplopia, and characteristic MRI findings of asymmetric, non-enhancing lesions seen in this patient.
Question 18: A 37-year-old man comes to the physician because of fever, night sweats, malaise, dyspnea, and a productive cough with bloody sputum for 4 days. He was diagnosed with HIV infection 15 years ago and has not been compliant with his medication regimen. Physical examination shows diminished breath sounds over the left lung fields. An x-ray of the chest shows an ill-defined lesion in the upper lobe of the left lung. A CT-guided biopsy of the lesion is performed; a photomicrograph of the biopsy specimen stained with mucicarmine is shown. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Coccidioides immitis
C. Blastomyces dermatitidis
D. Candida albicans
E. Cryptococcus neoformans (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Cryptococcus neoformans**
- A **mucicarmine stain** highlights the thick polysaccharide capsule of **Cryptococcus neoformans**, which is a key diagnostic feature for this organism.
- Patients with **HIV infection** who are non-compliant with medication are at high risk for opportunistic infections like **cryptococcosis**, presenting with pulmonary symptoms, night sweats, and ill-defined lung lesions.
*Histoplasma capsulatum*
- This fungus is common in the **Ohio and Mississippi River valleys**; it is diagnosed by demonstrating **small oval yeasts within macrophages** or by antigen detection, not specifically mucicarmine staining.
- While it can cause pulmonary disease in immunosuppressed individuals, its characteristic microscopic appearance and staining differ.
*Coccidioides immitis*
- This dimorphic fungus is endemic to the **Southwestern United States** and is identified by its characteristic **spherules containing endospores** in tissue.
- While it can cause lung lesions in HIV patients, it does not typically stain with mucicarmine.
*Blastomyces dermatitidis*
- This fungus is endemic to the **southeastern and south-central United States** and is characterized by **broad-based budding yeasts** with thick cell walls.
- Like other fungal pathogens, it can cause pulmonary disease, but its diagnostic microscopic features and staining properties differ from those described.
*Candida albicans*
- While a common opportunistic pathogen in HIV patients, **Candida albicans** primarily causes **mucocutaneous infections** (e.g., thrush, esophagitis).
- Although it can cause systemic disease, it does not typically form encapsulated structures that stain with mucicarmine and lung lesions are less common in this presentation.
Question 19: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician with difficulty swallowing for several weeks. Examination of the oropharynx shows lesions on palate and tongue that can be easily scraped off. An image of the lesions is shown. Which of the following is a risk factor for this patient's findings?
A. Inhalation of salbutamol
B. Decline in CD4+ T-cells (Correct Answer)
C. Chronic nicotine abuse
D. Epstein-Barr virus infection
E. Missed childhood vaccination
Explanation: ***Decline in CD4+ T-cells***
- The patient's symptoms (difficulty swallowing, white lesions on the palate and tongue that can be scraped off), along with the images, are highly suggestive of **oral candidiasis (thrush)**.
- A significant decline in **CD4+ T-cells**, often seen in conditions like **HIV/AIDS**, severely compromises the immune system and is a major risk factor for opportunistic infections like oral candidiasis.
*Inhalation of salbutamol*
- Inhaled corticosteroids, not bronchodilators like salbutamol, are known to increase the risk of oral candidiasis by altering the oral flora and suppressing local immunity.
- While prolonged use of any inhaler without rinsing can contribute to oral issues, salbutamol itself is not a direct risk factor for candidiasis.
*Chronic nicotine abuse*
- **Chronic nicotine abuse** (smoking) is associated with conditions like **leukoplakia**, erythroplakia, and an increased risk of oral cancer, but it is not a direct risk factor for oral candidiasis.
- **Leukoplakia** lesions, unlike candidiasis, are typically **non-scrapable**.
*Epstein-Barr virus infection*
- **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** is primarily associated with **oral hairy leukoplakia** in immunocompromised individuals.
- **Oral hairy leukoplakia** presents as white, corrugated, and **non-scrapable lesions**, typically on the lateral borders of the tongue, which differs from the described findings.
*Missed childhood vaccination*
- **Missed childhood vaccinations** increase the risk of common pediatric infectious diseases like measles, mumps, and rubella.
- There is **no direct link** between missed routine childhood vaccinations and the development of oral candidiasis in adulthood.
Question 20: During an experiment conducted to alter the infectivity of common viruses that affect humans, an investigator successfully increases the host range of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The new strain of the virus can infect fibroblast-like cells in addition to the usual target of HIV. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the increase in the host range of the virus?
A. Reassortment of genetic material between segments of two viruses
B. Increased rate of budding out of host cells
C. Excessive activity of viral RNA polymerase
D. Point mutations in the hemagglutinin gene
E. Mutation of the gene coding for viral surface glycoproteins (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Mutation of the gene coding for viral surface glycoproteins***
- Viral **surface glycoproteins** are crucial for initial host cell recognition and binding, determining **cell tropism** and **host range**. A mutation in these genes can alter the binding specificity, allowing the virus to infect new cell types.
- Changes in these glycoproteins can enable interaction with different host cell receptors, thereby expanding the range of cells the virus can infect.
*Reassortment of genetic material between segments of two viruses*
- **Reassortment** typically occurs in viruses with segmented genomes (e.g., influenza virus), leading to rapid genetic shifts. HIV has a non-segmented RNA genome, so reassortment as described is not applicable.
- While reassortment can increase virulence or transmissibility, it's not the primary mechanism by which non-segmented RNA viruses like HIV would expand their host range to a new cell type through a single event in a controlled experiment.
*Increased rate of budding out of host cells*
- An increased rate of budding affects the **viral load** and potentially the efficiency of spread, but it does not alter the fundamental ability of the virus to infect new cell types by changing its **cellular tropism**.
- This mechanism relates to the release of new virions from infected cells rather than the initial entry or binding to a host cell.
*Excessive activity of viral RNA polymerase*
- **RNA polymerase activity** can impact replication efficiency and mutation rates, but it does not directly determine the host cell specificity or the ability to bind to new cell surface receptors.
- While increased activity might lead to more mutations overall, the specific mechanism for increased host range would still involve a change in a gene coding for a surface protein responsible for cell binding.
*Point mutations in the hemagglutinin gene*
- **Hemagglutinin** is a surface glycoprotein explicitly found in **influenza viruses**, involved in binding to sialic acid receptors. HIV does not possess a hemagglutinin gene.
- Therefore, mutations in this gene cannot explain changes in HIV's host range.