A 23-year-old man comes to the physician because of a painless swelling on the left side of his jaw for 2 months. It has been progressively increasing in size and is draining thick, foul-smelling fluid. He had a molar extracted 3 months ago. Examination shows a 4-cm, tender, erythematous mass in the left submandibular region with purulent drainage. There is submandibular lymphadenopathy. A culture of the purulent material shows catalase-negative, gram-positive filamentous rods that do not stain with carbol fuchsin. Which of the following is the most likely causal pathogen?
Q52
A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents because of fever, vomiting, rash, and worsening confusion since this morning. On questioning, her mother reports that her last menstrual period was 1 week ago and that she recently started using tampons. She appears lethargic and is only oriented to person. Her temperature is 40.4°C (104.7°F), pulse 174/minute, and blood pressure is 62/44 mm Hg. Examination shows oropharyngeal hyperemia and diffuse macular erythroderma. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Q53
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. They state that he has had trouble walking the past day and this morning refuses to walk at all. The child has a past medical history of asthma, which is treated with albuterol. His temperature is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 77/48 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory tests are drawn and shown below.
Hemoglobin: 10 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 13,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 197,000/mm^3
An MRI of the thigh and knee is performed and demonstrates edema and cortical destruction of the distal femur. Which of the following is the most likely infectious agent in this patient?
Q54
A previously healthy 57-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 3-day history of fever and headache. He also has nausea and vomited twice in the past 24 hours. His temperature is 39.1°C (102.4°F). He is lethargic but oriented to person, place, and time. Examination shows severe neck rigidity with limited active and passive range of motion. A lumbar puncture is performed; cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows a neutrophilic pleocytosis and a decreased glucose concentration. A Gram stain of the patient's cerebrospinal fluid is most likely to show which of the following?
Q55
A 7-year-old Caucasian male presents with a temperature of 38°C. During the physical exam, the patient complains of pain when his femur is palpated. The patient's parents state that the fever started a few days after they noticed a honey-colored crusting on the left upper lip of the child's face. Culture of the bacteria reveals a catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci. Which of the following bacteria is most likely to be found in a biopsy of the child's left femur?
Q56
A 5-year-old child is brought to a pediatric clinic by his mother for a rash that started a few days ago. The mother adds that her son has also had a fever and sore throat since last week. His immunizations are up to date. On examination, a rash is present over the trunk and upper extremities and feels like sandpaper to touch. An oropharyngeal examination is suggestive of exudative pharyngitis with a white coat over the tongue. The physician swabs the throat and uses the swab in a rapid antigen detection test kit. He also sends the sample for microbiological culture. The physician then recommends empiric antibiotic therapy and tells the mother that if the boy is left untreated, the likelihood of developing a complication later in life is very high. Which of the following best explains the mechanism underlying the development of the complication the physician is talking about?
Q57
A 60-year-old woman with ovarian cancer comes to the physician with a 5-day history of fever, chills, and dyspnea. She has a right subclavian chemoport in which she last received chemotherapy 2 weeks ago. Her temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F), blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 115/min. Cardiopulmonary examination shows jugular venous distention and a new, soft holosystolic murmur heard best in the left parasternal region. Crackles are heard at both lung bases. Echocardiography shows a vegetation on the tricuspid valve. Peripheral blood cultures taken from this patient are most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q58
A 4-year-old boy is presented to the clinic by his mother due to a peeling erythematous rash on his face, back, and buttocks which started this morning. Two days ago, the patient’s mother says his skin was extremely tender and within 24 hours progressed to desquamation. She also says that, for the past few weeks, he was very irritable and cried more than usual during diaper changes. The patient is up to date on his vaccinations and has been meeting all developmental milestones. No significant family history. On physical examination, the temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F) and the pulse is 70/min. The epidermis separates from the dermis by gentle lateral stroking of the skin. Systemic antibiotics are prescribed, and adequate fluid replacement is provided. Which of the following microorganisms most likely caused this patient’s condition?
Q59
A 9-year-old boy who recently emigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is brought to the physician because of a 2-day history of fever, chills, and productive cough. His mother reports that he has had several episodes of painful swelling of his fingers during infancy that resolved with pain medication. His immunization status is unknown. His temperature is 39.8°C (103.6°F). Examination shows pale conjunctivae and yellow sclerae. There are decreased breath sounds and inspiratory crackles over the left lower lung fields. His hemoglobin concentration is 7 g/dL. Blood cultures grow optochin-sensitive, gram-positive diplococci. A deficiency in which of the following most likely contributed to this patient's infection?
Q60
A 63-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of fever and a nonproductive cough for the past 2 weeks. During this period, he has also had fatigue, myalgia, and difficulty breathing. Five weeks ago, he underwent an aortic prosthetic valve replacement due to high-grade aortic stenosis. The patient has a history of hypertension, asthma, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. A colonoscopy 2 years ago was normal. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 40 years. He has never used illicit drugs. Current medications include aspirin, warfarin, lisinopril, metformin, inhaled albuterol, and a multivitamin. The patient appears lethargic. Temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), pulse is 105/min, and blood pressure is 140/60 mm Hg. Rales are heard on auscultation of the lungs. A grade 2/6, diastolic blowing murmur is heard over the left sternal border and radiates to the right sternal border. A photograph of his right index finger is shown. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 13,800/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 48 mm/h. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
Gram-positive US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: A 23-year-old man comes to the physician because of a painless swelling on the left side of his jaw for 2 months. It has been progressively increasing in size and is draining thick, foul-smelling fluid. He had a molar extracted 3 months ago. Examination shows a 4-cm, tender, erythematous mass in the left submandibular region with purulent drainage. There is submandibular lymphadenopathy. A culture of the purulent material shows catalase-negative, gram-positive filamentous rods that do not stain with carbol fuchsin. Which of the following is the most likely causal pathogen?
A. Acinetobacter baumannii
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Nocardia asteroides
D. Actinomyces israelii (Correct Answer)
E. Mucor irregularis
Explanation: ***Actinomyces israelii***
- The clinical presentation of a **painless, progressively enlarging mass** in the jaw region with **draining, foul-smelling fluid** (often described as "sulfur granules") following a dental procedure (molar extraction) is highly suggestive of **actinomycosis**.
- The microbiological description of **catalase-negative, gram-positive filamentous rods** that do not stain with carbol fuchsin (ruling out Nocardia) perfectly matches *Actinomyces israelii*.
*Acinetobacter baumannii*
- This is a **gram-negative coccobacillus** known for causing hospital-acquired infections, especially in immunocompromised patients, and does not fit the described gram-staining or filamentous morphology.
- While it can cause wound infections, the clinical context and specific microbiological findings do not align with *Acinetobacter*.
*Streptococcus pneumoniae*
- This bacterium is a **gram-positive coccus** (not filamentous rod) and is a common cause of pneumonia, meningitis, and otitis media, not typically chronic jaw infections with draining sinuses.
- It would also be catalase-negative, but its morphology is distinct from the described pathogen.
*Nocardia asteroides*
- *Nocardia asteroides* are **gram-positive filamentous rods** that can cause nocardiosis, often affecting the lungs and skin, and can present with abscesses and draining sinuses.
- However, **Nocardia is typically weakly acid-fast** and would stain with carbol fuchsin, which contradicts the information provided ("do not stain with carbol fuchsin").
*Mucor irregularis*
- *Mucor irregularis* is a **fungus** belonging to the order Mucorales, responsible for mucormycosis.
- This pathogen is not a bacterium and would appear as broad, non-septate hyphae on microscopy, which is inconsistent with "gram-positive filamentous rods."
Question 52: A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents because of fever, vomiting, rash, and worsening confusion since this morning. On questioning, her mother reports that her last menstrual period was 1 week ago and that she recently started using tampons. She appears lethargic and is only oriented to person. Her temperature is 40.4°C (104.7°F), pulse 174/minute, and blood pressure is 62/44 mm Hg. Examination shows oropharyngeal hyperemia and diffuse macular erythroderma. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. Lipooligosaccharide expression
B. Unregulated B cell proliferation
C. Erythrogenic toxin production
D. Polyclonal T cell activation (Correct Answer)
E. Generalized mast cell degranulation
Explanation: ***Polyclonal T cell activation***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, rash, hypotension, confusion, and tampon use) are highly suggestive of **Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)**, which is caused by superantigens that induce widespread **polyclonal T cell activation**.
- **Superantigens** produced by certain bacteria, like *Staphylococcus aureus*, bypass the conventional antigen presentation pathway, leading to massive, non-specific activation of T cells and a cytokine storm.
*Lipooligosaccharide expression*
- **Lipooligosaccharides (LOS)** are endotoxins found in the outer membrane of **Gram-negative bacteria**, such as *Neisseria meningitidis*, not *Staphylococcus aureus*.
- While LOS can cause septic shock, this patient's history of tampon use points towards a **Gram-positive** bacterial infection, specifically *Staphylococcus aureus*.
*Unregulated B cell proliferation*
- **Unregulated B cell proliferation** is characteristic of **hematologic malignancies** like lymphomas or leukemias, where there is uncontrolled growth of B lymphocytes.
- This mechanism does not explain the acute onset of fever, rash, and circulatory collapse seen in this patient, which are indicative of an acute severe infection.
*Erythrogenic toxin production*
- **Erythrogenic toxins (streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins)** are produced by *Streptococcus pyogenes* and can cause conditions like **scarlet fever** and **streptococcal toxic shock syndrome**.
- While similar to staphylococcal TSS, the classic association with tampon use makes **staphylococcal TSS** more likely, which is driven by superantigens causing polyclonal T-cell activation.
*Generalized mast cell degranulation*
- **Generalized mast cell degranulation** occurs in **anaphylaxis**, leading to widespread release of histamine and other mediators.
- While anaphylaxis can cause hypotension and rash, it typically presents with urticaria, angioedema, and bronchospasm, which are not described, and it is not linked to tampon use.
Question 53: A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. They state that he has had trouble walking the past day and this morning refuses to walk at all. The child has a past medical history of asthma, which is treated with albuterol. His temperature is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 77/48 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory tests are drawn and shown below.
Hemoglobin: 10 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 13,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 197,000/mm^3
An MRI of the thigh and knee is performed and demonstrates edema and cortical destruction of the distal femur. Which of the following is the most likely infectious agent in this patient?
A. Bacteroides species
B. Salmonella species
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus aureus (Correct Answer)
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus aureus***
- **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is the most common cause of **osteomyelitis** in children, particularly in otherwise healthy individuals.
- The patient's signs of infection (fever, elevated leukocyte count, bone destruction on MRI) and young age are classic for **_S. aureus_** osteomyelitis.
*Bacteroides species*
- **_Bacteroides_** species are **anaerobic bacteria** and are more typically associated with infections following abdominal surgery, or in polymicrobial infections, and are an unlikely primary cause of acute osteomyelitis in a healthy child.
- They are generally not a primary cause of **hematogenous osteomyelitis** in immunocompetent pediatric patients.
*Salmonella species*
- **_Salmonella_** osteomyelitis is particularly associated with **sickle cell disease** due to increased susceptibility to **bacteremia**, which is not indicated in this patient.
- While it can cause osteomyelitis, it is a less common cause than **_Staphylococcus aureus_** in the general pediatric population.
*Pseudomonas aeruginosa*
- **_Pseudomonas aeruginosa_** osteomyelitis is more commonly associated with **puncture wounds** through shoes (especially the foot), intravenous drug use, or exposure to contaminated water.
- While it can cause osteomyelitis, it is not the most likely pathogen in an otherwise healthy child with no clear predisposing factors.
*Staphylococcus epidermidis*
- **_Staphylococcus epidermidis_** is primarily a cause of **prosthetic joint infections** or infections related to indwelling medical devices.
- It is a **coagulase-negative Staphylococcus** and is rarely a cause of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis in an immunocompetent child without foreign bodies.
Question 54: A previously healthy 57-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 3-day history of fever and headache. He also has nausea and vomited twice in the past 24 hours. His temperature is 39.1°C (102.4°F). He is lethargic but oriented to person, place, and time. Examination shows severe neck rigidity with limited active and passive range of motion. A lumbar puncture is performed; cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows a neutrophilic pleocytosis and a decreased glucose concentration. A Gram stain of the patient's cerebrospinal fluid is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Non-encapsulated, gram-negative cocci in pairs
B. Gram-positive bacilli
C. Gram-positive cocci in clusters
D. Encapsulated, gram-positive cocci in pairs (Correct Answer)
E. Gram-negative bacilli
Explanation: ***Encapsulated, gram-positive cocci in pairs***
- The patient's age (57 years old), symptoms (fever, headache, neck rigidity, lethargy), and CSF findings (neutrophilic pleocytosis, decreased glucose) are highly suggestive of **bacterial meningitis**.
- **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially in this age group, and characteristically appears as encapsulated, gram-positive cocci in pairs (**diplococci**) on Gram stain.
*Non-encapsulated, gram-negative cocci in pairs*
- **_Neisseria meningitidis_** appears as gram-negative cocci in pairs and is **encapsulated**, making this option description incorrect.
- While _N. meningitidis_ can cause meningitis in adults, _S. pneumoniae_ is more prevalent in patients over 50 years old, and the polysaccharide capsule is a key virulence factor for both organisms.
*Gram-positive bacilli*
- **_Listeria monocytogenes_** would appear as gram-positive bacilli and can cause meningitis, particularly in older adults, immunocompromised individuals, and neonates.
- However, _S. pneumoniae_ is still a more common cause in this patient's age group, and the morphology description does not match the typical diplococci seen with pneumococcal meningitis.
*Gram-positive cocci in clusters*
- **_Staphylococcus aureus_** would appear as gram-positive cocci in clusters and can cause meningitis, often in the context of neurosurgery, trauma, or endocarditis, all of which are absent in this patient's history.
- The patient's presentation and risk factors point more strongly toward _S. pneumoniae_.
*Gram-negative bacilli*
- **Gram-negative bacilli** (e.g., _Klebsiella_, _E. coli_, _Pseudomonas_) can cause meningitis, especially in neonates, the elderly, or those with healthcare-associated infections or specific predisposing conditions (e.g., neurosurgical procedures).
- The current clinical picture in a previously healthy 57-year-old does not primarily suggest meningitis caused by gram-negative bacilli.
Question 55: A 7-year-old Caucasian male presents with a temperature of 38°C. During the physical exam, the patient complains of pain when his femur is palpated. The patient's parents state that the fever started a few days after they noticed a honey-colored crusting on the left upper lip of the child's face. Culture of the bacteria reveals a catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci. Which of the following bacteria is most likely to be found in a biopsy of the child's left femur?
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Escherichia coli
E. Staphylococcus aureus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus aureus***
- The combination of **impetigo** (honey-colored crusting on the lip), subsequent **fever**, and **bone pain** (especially in the femur) is highly suggestive of **osteomyelitis** secondary to *Staphylococcus aureus*.
- *S. aureus* is the most common cause of both **impetigo** and **osteomyelitis** in children, and it is a **catalase-positive**, **gram-positive coccus**.
*Staphylococcus saprophyticus*
- This bacterium is primarily associated with **urinary tract infections (UTIs)**, especially in young sexually active women.
- It is not a common cause of skin infections like impetigo or bone infections like osteomyelitis.
*Clostridium perfringens*
- This is an **anaerobic, gram-positive rod** known for causing **gas gangrene** and **food poisoning**.
- It is not typically associated with impetigo or osteomyelitis, and its gram stain/morphology differ from the described culture.
*Streptococcus pyogenes*
- While *Streptococcus pyogenes* (Group A Strep) can cause **impetigo** and other skin infections, it is a **catalase-negative** bacterium.
- The prompt explicitly states the culture revealed **catalase-positive** cocci, ruling out *S. pyogenes*.
*Escherichia coli*
- *Escherichia coli* is a **gram-negative rod** and a common cause of **UTIs** and **gastrointestinal infections**.
- It is not a significant cause of impetigo or osteomyelitis in otherwise healthy children, and its gram stain and morphology do not match the description.
Question 56: A 5-year-old child is brought to a pediatric clinic by his mother for a rash that started a few days ago. The mother adds that her son has also had a fever and sore throat since last week. His immunizations are up to date. On examination, a rash is present over the trunk and upper extremities and feels like sandpaper to touch. An oropharyngeal examination is suggestive of exudative pharyngitis with a white coat over the tongue. The physician swabs the throat and uses the swab in a rapid antigen detection test kit. He also sends the sample for microbiological culture. The physician then recommends empiric antibiotic therapy and tells the mother that if the boy is left untreated, the likelihood of developing a complication later in life is very high. Which of the following best explains the mechanism underlying the development of the complication the physician is talking about?
A. Antigenic shift
B. Bacterial tissue invasion
C. Toxin-mediated cellular damage
D. Molecular mimicry (Correct Answer)
E. Genetic drift
Explanation: ***Molecular mimicry***
- The clinical presentation suggests **streptococcal pharyngitis** (sore throat, fever, sandpaper rash, exudative pharyngitis), which, if untreated, can lead to **rheumatic fever**.
- **Molecular mimicry** occurs when antibodies produced against streptococcal M protein cross-react with self-antigens in the heart, joints, and brain, causing auto-immune damage characteristic of rheumatic fever.
*Antigenic shift*
- This mechanism involves **major genetic re-assortment** in viruses (e.g., influenza A) leading to new strains, which is not relevant to complications from bacterial infections like strep throat.
- It results in pandemics due to a lack of pre-existing immunity in the population, unlike the autoimmune sequelae of bacterial infections.
*Bacterial tissue invasion*
- While bacteria can invade tissues, the serious long-term complications of streptococcal pharyngitis (like rheumatic fever) are not primarily due to **direct tissue invasion** by the bacteria themselves.
- Instead, the tissue damage results from a **post-infectious autoimmune response**.
*Toxin-mediated cellular damage*
- **Streptococcal toxins** (e.g., erythrogenic toxins) are responsible for the rash (scarlatiniform rash or scarlet fever) but not for the specific long-term autoimmune complications like rheumatic fever.
- Toxin-mediated damage occurs acutely during the infection, whereas rheumatic fever is a delayed immune-mediated sequela.
*Genetic drift*
- This mechanism describes **minor genetic mutations** that accumulate over time in viruses (e.g., influenza), leading to seasonal epidemics.
- It does not explain the autoimmune complications associated with bacterial infections such as those caused by *Streptococcus pyogenes*.
Question 57: A 60-year-old woman with ovarian cancer comes to the physician with a 5-day history of fever, chills, and dyspnea. She has a right subclavian chemoport in which she last received chemotherapy 2 weeks ago. Her temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F), blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 115/min. Cardiopulmonary examination shows jugular venous distention and a new, soft holosystolic murmur heard best in the left parasternal region. Crackles are heard at both lung bases. Echocardiography shows a vegetation on the tricuspid valve. Peripheral blood cultures taken from this patient are most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Gram-positive, catalase-negative, β-hemolytic, bacitracin-resistant cocci in chains
B. Gram-positive, catalase-negative, α-hemolytic, optochin-resistant cocci in chains
C. Gram-positive, catalase-negative, nonhemolytic, salt-sensitive cocci in chains
D. Gram-positive, catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, novobiocin-resistant cocci in clusters
E. Gram-positive, catalase-positive, coagulase-positive cocci in clusters (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gram-positive, catalase-positive, coagulase-positive cocci in clusters***
- The clinical presentation, including fever, chills, dyspnea, tachycardia, jugular venous distention, holosystolic murmur, crackles, and a tricuspid valve vegetation, is highly suggestive of **right-sided endocarditis** in a patient with a central venous catheter (chemoport).
- Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of catheter-related bacteremia and **right-sided endocarditis**, especially in patients with central lines. It is characterized as Gram-positive, catalase-positive, coagulase-positive cocci in clusters.
*Gram-positive, catalase-negative, β-hemolytic, bacitracin-resistant cocci in chains*
- This description corresponds to **Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae)**, which primarily causes neonatal infections, postpartum endometritis, and infections in immunocompromised adults, but is less likely to cause endocarditis in this context.
- While it is a β-hemolytic streptococcus, it is not a common cause of **catheter-associated endocarditis** in non-neonatal settings.
*Gram-positive, catalase-negative, α-hemolytic, optochin-resistant cocci in chains*
- This describes **viridans group streptococci**, such as Streptococcus sanguinis or Streptococcus mutans. These are common causes of **subacute bacterial endocarditis** on previously damaged valves, often following dental procedures.
- However, they are less commonly associated with **catheter-related infections** or acute right-sided endocarditis in an immunocompromised host, and the patient's symptoms are more acute.
*Gram-positive, catalase-negative, nonhemolytic, salt-sensitive cocci in chains*
- This description is vague but could potentially refer to certain non-hemolytic streptococci or enterococci. **Enterococci** are typically salt-tolerant and can cause endocarditis, especially in catheter-associated infections or genitourinary/gastrointestinal sources.
- However, Enterococcus is typically **salt-tolerant** and not salt-sensitive, and the primary suspect for this presentation remains S. aureus.
*Gram-positive, catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, novobiocin-resistant cocci in clusters*
- This describes **Staphylococcus saprophyticus**, which is primarily associated with **urinary tract infections** in young, sexually active women.
- While it is a coagulase-negative Staphylococcus, its typical clinical presentation does not involve **catheter-related endocarditis**. **Staphylococcus epidermidis** (coagulase-negative, novobiocin-sensitive) can cause device-related infections but is less virulent and causes a more indolent course compared to S. aureus.
Question 58: A 4-year-old boy is presented to the clinic by his mother due to a peeling erythematous rash on his face, back, and buttocks which started this morning. Two days ago, the patient’s mother says his skin was extremely tender and within 24 hours progressed to desquamation. She also says that, for the past few weeks, he was very irritable and cried more than usual during diaper changes. The patient is up to date on his vaccinations and has been meeting all developmental milestones. No significant family history. On physical examination, the temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F) and the pulse is 70/min. The epidermis separates from the dermis by gentle lateral stroking of the skin. Systemic antibiotics are prescribed, and adequate fluid replacement is provided. Which of the following microorganisms most likely caused this patient’s condition?
A. Clostridium sp.
B. Staphylococcus aureus (Correct Answer)
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. Streptococcus sp.
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus aureus***
- The presentation of a **peeling erythematous rash** that started this morning following a period of **extremely tender skin** and **progression to desquamation (Nikolsky's sign)** is highly characteristic of **Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)**.
- **Staphylococcus aureus** produces **exfoliative toxins A and B** that cleave desmoglein-1 in the stratum granulosum, leading to intraepidermal cleavage and superficial skin peeling.
*Clostridium sp.*
- Clostridium species are primarily known for causing diseases like **gas gangrene** and **tetanus**, which involve deep tissue infections and neurological symptoms, not superficial skin peeling.
- They are often associated with **severe wound infections** or **food poisoning**, with different clinical manifestations.
*Neisseria meningitidis*
- Neisseria meningitidis is a common cause of **meningitis** and **meningococcemia**, which typically presents with a **petechial or purpuric rash** that does not involve peeling or desquamation.
- Symptoms would primarily include fever, headache, stiff neck, and rapid clinical deterioration.
*Bacillus anthracis*
- Bacillus anthracis causes **anthrax**, with cutaneous anthrax presenting as a **papule progressing to a painless ulcer with a black eschar** (black, necrotic center), without generalized peeling or tenderness.
- This is clearly distinct from the diffuse erythematous and peeling rash described.
*Streptococcus sp.*
- While Streptococcus pyogenes can cause **scarlet fever** with a diffuse erythematous rash and subsequent desquamation, the rash in scarlet fever is typically **sandpaper-like** and the desquamation occurs later, usually in sheets on hands and feet.
- **Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)** due to Streptococcus pyogenes can cause a diffuse rash and desquamation, but typically presents with more severe systemic illness and hypotension, and the characteristic tenderness and rapid progression to widespread peeling as seen in SSSS are less typical for Streptococcus.
Question 59: A 9-year-old boy who recently emigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is brought to the physician because of a 2-day history of fever, chills, and productive cough. His mother reports that he has had several episodes of painful swelling of his fingers during infancy that resolved with pain medication. His immunization status is unknown. His temperature is 39.8°C (103.6°F). Examination shows pale conjunctivae and yellow sclerae. There are decreased breath sounds and inspiratory crackles over the left lower lung fields. His hemoglobin concentration is 7 g/dL. Blood cultures grow optochin-sensitive, gram-positive diplococci. A deficiency in which of the following most likely contributed to this patient's infection?
A. D: Complement production
B. C: Respiratory burst
C. A: Bacterial clearance (Correct Answer)
D. B: Immunoglobulin A action
E. E: T cell differentiation
Explanation: ***Bacterial clearance***
- The history of painful swelling of fingers in infancy ("**dactylitis**"), **anemia** (hemoglobin 7 g/dL), and a sub-Saharan African origin strongly suggests **sickle cell disease**.
- Patients with sickle cell disease often have **functional asplenia** due to repeated splenic infarctions, leading to impaired clearance of **encapsulated bacteria** like *Streptococcus pneumoniae* (optochin-sensitive, gram-positive diplococci).
*Complement production*
- Deficiencies in complement pathways primarily increase susceptibility to **Neisseria infections** (e.g., C5-C9 deficiencies) or **autoimmune diseases** (e.g., C1, C2, C4 deficiencies).
- While complement is important for opsonization, this patient's presentation specifically points to a defect in **splenic function**, not general complement production.
*Respiratory burst*
- Defects in respiratory burst, such as in **chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)**, lead to recurrent infections with **catalase-positive organisms** like *Staphylococcus aureus* and *Aspergillus*.
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* does not typically cause severe infections in CGD, and the clinical picture (dactylitis, anemia) is not consistent with CGD.
*Immunoglobulin A action*
- **IgA deficiency** is the most common primary immunodeficiency and often presents with recurrent **mucosal infections** (respiratory, GI).
- While contributing to mucosal immunity, IgA deficiency doesn't specifically explain the severe invasive pneumococcal infection in the context of sickle cell features and impaired splenic function.
*T cell differentiation*
- Defects in T cell differentiation (e.g., **SCID**, **DiGeorge syndrome**) typically result in severe infections with **opportunistic pathogens** (e.g., fungi, viruses, atypical mycobacteria).
- This patient's infection with an encapsulated bacterium is not characteristic of primary T cell immunodeficiency, which would lead to a much broader spectrum of severe infections.
Question 60: A 63-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of fever and a nonproductive cough for the past 2 weeks. During this period, he has also had fatigue, myalgia, and difficulty breathing. Five weeks ago, he underwent an aortic prosthetic valve replacement due to high-grade aortic stenosis. The patient has a history of hypertension, asthma, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. A colonoscopy 2 years ago was normal. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 40 years. He has never used illicit drugs. Current medications include aspirin, warfarin, lisinopril, metformin, inhaled albuterol, and a multivitamin. The patient appears lethargic. Temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), pulse is 105/min, and blood pressure is 140/60 mm Hg. Rales are heard on auscultation of the lungs. A grade 2/6, diastolic blowing murmur is heard over the left sternal border and radiates to the right sternal border. A photograph of his right index finger is shown. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 13,800/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 48 mm/h. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis (Correct Answer)
B. Enterococcus faecalis
C. Streptococcus gallolyticus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Viridans streptococci
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus epidermidis***
- This patient's **recent prosthetic valve replacement** makes him highly susceptible to infective endocarditis caused by *Staphylococcus epidermidis*, a common pathogen in **nosocomial infections** and on implanted devices.
- **Early prosthetic valve endocarditis** (within 2 months post-surgery, as in this case at 5 weeks) is most commonly caused by coagulase-negative staphylococci, particularly *S. epidermidis*, which colonize the valve during the perioperative period.
- The symptoms of fever, cough, fatigue, myalgia, difficulty breathing, and a new diastolic murmur, along with peripheral manifestations (shown in the photograph) and elevated inflammatory markers, are all consistent with infective endocarditis.
*Enterococcus faecalis*
- While *Enterococcus faecalis* can cause endocarditis, it is more commonly associated with **gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedures**, which are not indicated here.
- No recent urinary tract infection or GI instrumentation (colonoscopy was 2 years ago) points away from this organism.
*Streptococcus gallolyticus*
- Previously known as *Streptococcus bovis*, this organism is strongly associated with **colon cancer, inflammatory bowel disease, and colonic polyps**.
- The patient had a normal colonoscopy recently (2 years ago), making this less likely.
*Streptococcus pyogenes*
- *Streptococcus pyogenes* is known for causing **pharyngitis, scarlet fever, and rheumatic fever**, but it is a relatively uncommon cause of infective endocarditis, especially on prosthetic valves.
- There is no history of a recent streptococcal infection to suggest this pathogen.
*Viridans streptococci*
- **Viridans streptococci** are the most common cause of **native valve endocarditis**, often following dental procedures, but are less common in early prosthetic valve endocarditis compared to *S. epidermidis*.
- This patient had a prosthetic valve replacement 5 weeks ago, pointing more towards a nosocomial organism like *S. epidermidis*.