A 50-year-old farmer presents to a physician with painless, black, severely swollen pustules on the left hand. Examination reveals extensive swelling around the wound. Microscopy reveals gram-positive bacilli with a bamboo stick appearance. Culture shows large, gray, non-hemolytic colonies with irregular borders. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q32
A 63-year-old man with aortic valve disease is admitted to the hospital for a 3-week history of progressively worsening fatigue, fever, and night sweats. He does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. Temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F). Physical examination shows a systolic murmur and tender, erythematous nodules on the finger pads. Blood cultures show alpha-hemolytic, gram-positive cocci that are catalase-negative and optochin-resistant. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
Q33
A 2-day-old newborn male delivered at 38 weeks' gestation is evaluated for poor feeding and irritability. His temperature is 35°C (95°F), pulse is 168/min, respirations are 80/min, and blood pressure is 60/30 mm Hg. Blood culture on sheep agar grows motile, gram-positive bacteria surrounded by a narrow clear zone. Further testing confirms the presence of a pore-forming toxin. Which of the following is the most important factor in successful clearance of the causal pathogen?
Q34
A 63-year-old female recovering from a total shoulder arthroplasty completed 6 days ago presents complaining of joint pain in her repaired shoulder. Temperature is 39 degrees Celsius. Physical examination demonstrates erythema and significant tenderness around the incision site. Wound cultures reveal Gram-positive cocci that are resistant to nafcillin. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Q35
A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents to his pediatrician with a one-day history of fever, chills, and pain in the right upper extremity. The patient's mother says that he has injured his right index finger while playing in the garden 3 days earlier. His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), pulse is 120/min, respiratory rate is 24/min, and blood pressure is 102/70 mm Hg. On physical examination, there is an infected wound present on the tip of the right index finger. Irregular linear subcutaneous red streaks are seen on the ventral surface of the right forearm, which is warm and tender to palpation. There is painful right infraclavicular lymphadenopathy present. Which of the following is the most common microorganism known to cause this patient's condition?
Q36
A 44-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician with a 3-day history of fever, right calf pain, and swelling. Her temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F). Physical examination shows a 5 x 6-cm erythematous, warm, raised skin lesion with well-defined margins over the right upper posterior calf. The organism isolated from the lesion forms large mucoid colonies on blood agar. Further evaluation shows that the organism has a thick hyaluronic acid capsule. The causal organism of this patient's condition is most likely to have which of the following additional characteristics?
Q37
A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a complaint of intense pain in his right foot for the past month, along with fever and chills. He denies any traumatic injury to his foot in recent memory. He has a medical history of poorly-controlled type II diabetes and is a former smoker with extensive peripheral vascular disease. On physical exam, the area of his right foot around the hallux is swollen, erythematous, tender to light palpation, and reveals exposed bone. Labs are notable for elevated C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The physician obtains a biopsy for culture. What is the most likely causative organism for this patient’s condition?
Q38
A 2-year-old boy presents with multiple skin abscesses caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Past medical history is significant for recurrent infections by the same organism. The nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test demonstrates an inability to kill microbes. Which of the following defect is most likely responsible for the findings in this patient?
Q39
A 3100-g (6.9-lb) male newborn is brought to the emergency department by his mother because of fever and irritability. The newborn was delivered at home 15 hours ago. He was born at 39 weeks' gestation. The mother's last prenatal visit was at the beginning of the first trimester. She received all standard immunizations upon immigrating from Mexico two years ago. Seven weeks ago, she experienced an episode of painful, itching genital vesicles, which resolved spontaneously. Four hours before going into labor she noticed a gush of blood-tinged fluid from her vagina. The newborn is ill-appearing and lethargic. His temperature is 39.9°C (103.8°F), pulse is 170/min, respirations are 60/min, and blood pressure is 70/45 mm Hg. His skin is mildly icteric. Expiratory grunting is heard on auscultation. Skin turgor and muscle tone are decreased. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
Leukocyte count 33,800/mm3
Platelet count 100,000/mm3
Serum glucose 55 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
Q40
A 71-year-old woman presents with high-grade fever and chills, difficulty breathing, and a productive cough with rust-colored sputum. She complains of a sharp left-sided chest pain. Physical examination reveals increased fremitus, dullness to percussion, and bronchial breath sounds on the lower left side. A chest X-ray shows left lower lobe consolidation. The offending organism that was cultured from the sputum was catalase-negative and had a positive Quellung reaction. The organism will show which gram stain results?
Gram-positive US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: A 50-year-old farmer presents to a physician with painless, black, severely swollen pustules on the left hand. Examination reveals extensive swelling around the wound. Microscopy reveals gram-positive bacilli with a bamboo stick appearance. Culture shows large, gray, non-hemolytic colonies with irregular borders. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Anthrax (Correct Answer)
B. Tularemia
C. Brucellosis
D. Erysipeloid
E. Listeriosis
Explanation: ***Anthrax***
- The combination of **painless, black, severely swollen pustules** (eschar and edema) on the hand of a **farmer** is pathognomonic for **cutaneous anthrax**.
- **Gram-positive bacilli with a bamboo stick appearance** and **large, gray, non-hemolytic colonies with irregular borders** on culture are characteristic features of *Bacillus anthracis*.
*Tularemia*
- While tularemia can present with an **ulceroglandular lesion** at the site of inoculation, it is typically accompanied by **highly painful regional lymphadenopathy**.
- The causative agent, *Francisella tularensis*, is a **small, gram-negative coccobacillus**, not a large gram-positive bacillus.
*Brucellosis*
- This zoonotic infection is primarily associated with **fever, sweats, malaise**, and **arthralgia**, often linked to consumption of unpasteurized dairy or contact with infected animals.
- It does not present with characteristic skin lesions like the **black pustules** described, and **Brucella species** are **gram-negative coccobacilli**.
*Erysipeloid*
- Erysipeloid is a skin infection caused by *Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae*, characterized by a **reddish-purple, elevated migratory lesion with sharply defined borders**, often on the hands or fingers.
- It does not produce **black pustules** or the specific microscopic and cultural features described for *Bacillus anthracis*.
*Listeriosis*
- Listeriosis, caused by *Listeria monocytogenes*, typically presents as **meningitis, sepsis**, or **gastroenteritis**, particularly in immunocompromised individuals, pregnant women, and neonates.
- While *Listeria* is a **gram-positive rod**, it does not cause the distinct skin lesions seen in the patient, nor does it form large, non-hemolytic colonies with irregular borders.
Question 32: A 63-year-old man with aortic valve disease is admitted to the hospital for a 3-week history of progressively worsening fatigue, fever, and night sweats. He does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. Temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F). Physical examination shows a systolic murmur and tender, erythematous nodules on the finger pads. Blood cultures show alpha-hemolytic, gram-positive cocci that are catalase-negative and optochin-resistant. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Viridans streptococci (Correct Answer)
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Streptococcus gallolyticus
Explanation: ***Viridans streptococci***
- The patient's presentation with **subacute onset** of fever, fatigue, cardiac murmur, and **Osler nodes** (tender finger nodules) points to **infective endocarditis**. The micro-organism is described as **alpha-hemolytic**, **catalase-negative**, and **optochin-resistant**, which are characteristic features of **Viridans streptococci**.
- **Viridans streptococci** are a common cause of **subacute bacterial endocarditis**, especially in patients with pre-existing valvular disease like the **aortic valve disease** mentioned.
*Streptococcus pneumoniae*
- While **Streptococcus pneumoniae** is also **alpha-hemolytic** and **catalase-negative**, it is typically **optochin-sensitive** and a common cause of **pneumonia** and **meningitis**, not usually subacute endocarditis from oral flora.
- Endocarditis caused by *S. pneumoniae* is rare and usually associated with a more fulminant course.
*Staphylococcus epidermidis*
- **Staphylococcus epidermidis** is a **coagulase-negative staphylococcus** that is a common cause of **prosthetic valve endocarditis** and is **catalase-positive**, unlike the organism described here.
- It is not typically alpha-hemolytic.
*Streptococcus pyogenes*
- **Streptococcus pyogenes** is **beta-hemolytic** and **catalase-negative**, and typically causes **pharyngitis** and **skin infections**, or sometimes **acute endocarditis**.
- It does not fit the description of an **alpha-hemolytic**, **optochin-resistant** organism.
*Streptococcus gallolyticus*
- **Streptococcus gallolyticus** (formerly *Streptococcus bovis*) is associated with **bacteremia** and **endocarditis**, particularly in patients with **gastrointestinal malignancies**.
- While it is **alpha-hemolytic** and **catalase-negative**, it is typically differentiated by its growth in **bile esculin** and is not primarily defined by optochin resistance characteristic of Viridans group.
Question 33: A 2-day-old newborn male delivered at 38 weeks' gestation is evaluated for poor feeding and irritability. His temperature is 35°C (95°F), pulse is 168/min, respirations are 80/min, and blood pressure is 60/30 mm Hg. Blood culture on sheep agar grows motile, gram-positive bacteria surrounded by a narrow clear zone. Further testing confirms the presence of a pore-forming toxin. Which of the following is the most important factor in successful clearance of the causal pathogen?
A. Secretion of interferon-α from infected cells
B. Secretion of interleukin 10 by regulatory T cells
C. Interferon-γ-induced macrophage activation (Correct Answer)
D. Secretion of immunoglobulin G from plasma cells
E. Formation of the membrane attack complex
Explanation: ***Interferon-γ-induced macrophage activation***
- This clinical presentation of severe sepsis in a neonate, with a gram-positive, motile, pore-forming bacterium, is highly suggestive of **Listeria monocytogenes infection**.
- **Listeria** is an intracellular bacterium that primarily targets macrophages and monocytes, and its clearance crucially depends on a strong **cell-mediated immune response**, specifically **IFN-γ-mediated macrophage activation** to kill the intracellular pathogens.
*Secretion of interferon-α from infected cells*
- **Interferon-α** is mainly involved in the antiviral response, inhibiting viral replication and activating natural killer (NK) cells.
- While it has some role in innate immunity against bacteria, it is not the primary or most critical mechanism for clearing an intracellular bacterial infection like *Listeria*.
*Secretion of interleukin 10 by regulatory T cells*
- **Interleukin 10 (IL-10)** is an anti-inflammatory cytokine that downregulates the immune response, often associated with immune suppression and tolerance.
- Secreting IL-10 would likely **hinder** the effective clearance of an active bacterial infection rather than promote it.
*Secretion of immunoglobulin G from plasma cells*
- **Immunoglobulin G (IgG)** provides humoral immunity against extracellular bacteria and toxins, mediating opsonization and neutralization.
- While IgG may have some role in controlling the extracellular phase of *Listeria* infection, it is **ineffective** against the intracellular forms, which are the main challenge for clearance.
*Formation of the membrane attack complex*
- The **membrane attack complex (MAC)** is part of the complement system, which primarily targets and lyses extracellular bacteria.
- *Listeria* is an intracellular pathogen, meaning the MAC would not be able to reach and effectively lyse the bacteria once inside host cells.
Question 34: A 63-year-old female recovering from a total shoulder arthroplasty completed 6 days ago presents complaining of joint pain in her repaired shoulder. Temperature is 39 degrees Celsius. Physical examination demonstrates erythema and significant tenderness around the incision site. Wound cultures reveal Gram-positive cocci that are resistant to nafcillin. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Escherichia coli
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. Staphylococcus aureus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus aureus***
- The combination of **post-surgical infection**, **erythema**, and fever with **Gram-positive cocci** that are **nafcillin-resistant** is highly indicative of **Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)**.
- *S. aureus* is a common cause of **surgical site infections**, and its resistance to nafcillin implies it is MRSA, a significant clinical concern for its difficulty in treatment.
*Streptococcus pyogenes*
- While *S. pyogenes* is a Gram-positive coccus that can cause skin and soft tissue infections, it is typically **susceptible to penicillin** and related antibiotics like nafcillin, unlike the organism described.
- It is more commonly associated with **streptococcal pharyngitis** or **cellulitis**, and while it can cause severe disease, its resistance profile doesn't match the clinical picture.
*Escherichia coli*
- *E. coli* is a **Gram-negative rod**, not a Gram-positive coccus.
- It is a common cause of **urinary tract infections** and **gastrointestinal infections**, making it an unlikely pathogen for a post-surgical joint infection unless contaminated from a visceral source.
*Streptococcus viridans*
- **Viridans streptococci** are Gram-positive cocci but are typically associated with **endocarditis** or dental infections, especially after poor dental hygiene or procedures.
- They are usually **susceptible to penicillin** and do not typically exhibit nafcillin resistance as the primary feature in a post-arthroplasty infection.
*Staphylococcus epidermidis*
- *S. epidermidis* is a **coagulase-negative Staphylococcus** known for forming **biofilms on prosthetic devices**, leading to chronic, low-grade infections.
- While it can be nafcillin-resistant, the **acute presentation** with fever and significant inflammation suggests a more virulent pathogen like *S. aureus*, as *S. epidermidis* infections are typically indolent.
Question 35: A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents to his pediatrician with a one-day history of fever, chills, and pain in the right upper extremity. The patient's mother says that he has injured his right index finger while playing in the garden 3 days earlier. His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), pulse is 120/min, respiratory rate is 24/min, and blood pressure is 102/70 mm Hg. On physical examination, there is an infected wound present on the tip of the right index finger. Irregular linear subcutaneous red streaks are seen on the ventral surface of the right forearm, which is warm and tender to palpation. There is painful right infraclavicular lymphadenopathy present. Which of the following is the most common microorganism known to cause this patient's condition?
A. Aeromonas hydrophila
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Group A β-hemolytic Streptococcus (Correct Answer)
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Pasteurella multocida
Explanation: ***Group A β-hemolytic Streptococcus***
- The presentation of an infected wound with **red streaks** (lymphangitis), **lymphadenopathy**, and **fever** is highly characteristic of **cellulitis** or erysipelas, which are commonly caused by **Streptococcus pyogenes** (Group A β-hemolytic Streptococcus).
- This organism is a common cause of rapidly spreading soft tissue infections, especially following a skin breach.
*Aeromonas hydrophila*
- This bacterium is typically associated with **aquatic environments** and causes infections usually after exposure to **contaminated fresh or brackish water**.
- While it can cause wound infections, the history of playing in a garden makes it a less likely cause than common skin flora.
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- While **Staphylococcus aureus** is a common cause of skin infections, it more often presents with **abscess formation**, **pus**, or a more localized infection.
- The prominent **lymphangitis** (red streaks) and rapid spread seen here are more typical of streptococcal infections.
*Pseudomonas aeruginosa*
- **Pseudomonas aeruginosa** infections are often associated with **puncture wounds through athletic shoes**, **hot tub folliculitis**, or in **immunocompromised patients**.
- The clinical picture does not align with typical risk factors or presentation for Pseudomonas infection.
*Pasteurella multocida*
- This organism is primarily associated with **animal bites, particularly from cats and dogs**, which is not indicated in the patient's history.
- Infections by Pasteurella species typically show rapid onset after an animal bite.
Question 36: A 44-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician with a 3-day history of fever, right calf pain, and swelling. Her temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F). Physical examination shows a 5 x 6-cm erythematous, warm, raised skin lesion with well-defined margins over the right upper posterior calf. The organism isolated from the lesion forms large mucoid colonies on blood agar. Further evaluation shows that the organism has a thick hyaluronic acid capsule. The causal organism of this patient's condition is most likely to have which of the following additional characteristics?
A. Solubility in bile
B. Resistance to optochin
C. Positive coagulase test
D. Susceptibility to bacitracin (Correct Answer)
E. Negative pyrrolidonyl arylamidase test
Explanation: ***Susceptibility to bacitracin***
- This patient presents with **fever**, **right calf pain and swelling**, and a **well-defined erythematous, raised lesion (erysipelas)** with **large mucoid colonies** and a **thick hyaluronic acid capsule**, all characteristic features of **Group A Streptococcus (GAS)**, specifically *Streptococcus pyogenes*.
- *S. pyogenes* is characteristically **susceptible to bacitracin** (zone A disk), which is the classic laboratory test used to differentiate Group A Strep from other beta-hemolytic streptococci.
- The **bacitracin susceptibility test** is highly specific for presumptive identification of GAS in clinical microbiology laboratories.
*Solubility in bile*
- **Bile solubility** is characteristic of *Streptococcus pneumoniae*, which lyses in the presence of bile salts.
- *S. pyogenes* is **not bile-soluble**.
*Resistance to optochin*
- While *S. pyogenes* is **resistant to optochin**, this characteristic is primarily used to differentiate *S. pneumoniae* (susceptible) from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci (resistant).
- This is not the primary distinguishing test for GAS identification in the context of beta-hemolytic streptococci.
*Positive coagulase test*
- A **positive coagulase test** is characteristic of *Staphylococcus aureus*, not streptococci.
- *S. pyogenes* is **coagulase-negative**.
*Negative pyrrolidonyl arylamidase test*
- This is **incorrect**. *Streptococcus pyogenes* is actually **PYR-POSITIVE**, not PYR-negative.
- The **positive PYR test** is one of the key biochemical tests used to identify GAS, along with bacitracin susceptibility.
- A negative PYR test would suggest a different organism, not *S. pyogenes*.
Question 37: A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a complaint of intense pain in his right foot for the past month, along with fever and chills. He denies any traumatic injury to his foot in recent memory. He has a medical history of poorly-controlled type II diabetes and is a former smoker with extensive peripheral vascular disease. On physical exam, the area of his right foot around the hallux is swollen, erythematous, tender to light palpation, and reveals exposed bone. Labs are notable for elevated C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The physician obtains a biopsy for culture. What is the most likely causative organism for this patient’s condition?
A. Pasteurella multocida
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Staphylococcus aureus (Correct Answer)
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus aureus***
- This patient presents with signs of **osteomyelitis** (foot pain, fever, chills, exposed bone, elevated inflammatory markers) in the setting of **diabetes** and **peripheral vascular disease (PVD)**.
- **_S. aureus_** is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, especially in patients with diabetes and PVD where skin integrity is compromised or there's hematogenous spread.
*Pasteurella multocida*
- **_Pasteurella multocida_** is typically associated with infections following **animal bites**, specifically cat or dog bites.
- There is no history of animal bite in this patient, making this organism less likely.
*Mycobacterium tuberculosis*
- **_Mycobacterium tuberculosis_** can cause osteomyelitis, known as **Pott's disease** when affecting the spine, but it's typically a **chronic, granulomatous infection** often without acute purulence or the rapid progression seen here.
- It usually occurs in patients with active tuberculosis elsewhere or those from endemic regions, and the clinical presentation is not as acute as described.
*Pseudomonas aeruginosa*
- **_Pseudomonas aeruginosa_** is a common cause of osteomyelitis in specific contexts, such as **puncture wounds** through footwear (especially in diabetic patients) or in **IV drug users**.
- While possible in diabetic foot infections, **_S. aureus_** remains overwhelmingly more common given the general presentation of osteomyelitis without a specific puncture wound history.
*Neisseria gonorrhoeae*
- **_Neisseria gonorrhoeae_** causes **gonococcal arthritis** or disseminated gonococcal infection, which can affect joints.
- However, it typically presents with migratory polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis, or dermatitis, rather than localized acute osteomyelitis with exposed bone in the foot as described.
Question 38: A 2-year-old boy presents with multiple skin abscesses caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Past medical history is significant for recurrent infections by the same organism. The nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test demonstrates an inability to kill microbes. Which of the following defect is most likely responsible for the findings in this patient?
A. Inability to generate the microbicidal respiratory burst (Correct Answer)
B. Inability to fuse lysosomes with phagosomes
C. Deficiency of CD40L on activated T cells
D. Tyrosine kinase deficiency blocking B cell maturation
E. MHC class II deficiency
Explanation: ***Inability to generate the microbicidal respiratory burst***
- The **nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test** assesses the ability of phagocytes to produce **reactive oxygen species** during the respiratory burst, which is essential for killing microbes.
- An **abnormal NBT test** (failure to reduce NBT dye, remains colorless) in a patient with recurrent *Staphylococcus aureus* infections is diagnostic of **Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)**, where phagocytes cannot generate a respiratory burst due to defects in **NADPH oxidase**.
- CGD patients are susceptible to infections by **catalase-positive organisms** (e.g., *S. aureus*, *Aspergillus*, *Serratia*, *Nocardia*) which destroy their own H₂O₂, leaving phagocytes without oxidative killing capability.
*Inability to fuse lysosomes with phagosomes*
- This defect is characteristic of **Chediak-Higashi syndrome**, which presents with recurrent infections, particularly with *Staphylococcus aureus*, but also typically includes **partial albinism**, **peripheral neuropathy**, and **giant cytoplasmic granules** in leukocytes.
- While microbe killing is impaired, the **NBT test would be normal** in Chediak-Higashi syndrome, as the respiratory burst pathway itself is intact; the defect is in lysosome-phagosome fusion.
*Deficiency of CD40L on activated T cells*
- **CD40L deficiency** leads to **X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome**, characterized by very low levels of IgG, IgA, and IgE, and normal or elevated IgM.
- Patients are susceptible to **opportunistic infections** (e.g., *Pneumocystis jirovecii*) and recurrent bacterial infections, but the primary defect is in **antibody class switching**, not in phagocyte function.
- The **NBT test would be normal** as the respiratory burst is intact.
*Tyrosine kinase deficiency blocking B cell maturation*
- This describes **X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton's agammaglobulinemia)** due to **BTK (Bruton tyrosine kinase) deficiency**, which results in the absence of mature B cells and significantly reduced levels of all immunoglobulins.
- Patients suffer from recurrent bacterial infections with **encapsulated bacteria** (e.g., *Streptococcus pneumoniae*, *Haemophilus influenzae*), but the immune defect is in **humoral immunity**, not in phagocytic killing mechanisms.
- The **NBT test would be normal**.
*MHC class II deficiency*
- **MHC class II deficiency**, or **Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome type II**, leads to a severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)-like phenotype due to impaired antigen presentation to CD4+ T helper cells.
- This leads to defective cell-mediated and humoral immunity with recurrent viral, bacterial, and fungal infections, but does not directly cause a defect in the **phagocyte respiratory burst**.
- The **NBT test would be normal**.
Question 39: A 3100-g (6.9-lb) male newborn is brought to the emergency department by his mother because of fever and irritability. The newborn was delivered at home 15 hours ago. He was born at 39 weeks' gestation. The mother's last prenatal visit was at the beginning of the first trimester. She received all standard immunizations upon immigrating from Mexico two years ago. Seven weeks ago, she experienced an episode of painful, itching genital vesicles, which resolved spontaneously. Four hours before going into labor she noticed a gush of blood-tinged fluid from her vagina. The newborn is ill-appearing and lethargic. His temperature is 39.9°C (103.8°F), pulse is 170/min, respirations are 60/min, and blood pressure is 70/45 mm Hg. His skin is mildly icteric. Expiratory grunting is heard on auscultation. Skin turgor and muscle tone are decreased. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
Leukocyte count 33,800/mm3
Platelet count 100,000/mm3
Serum glucose 55 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus agalactiae (Correct Answer)
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Neisseria meningitidis
Explanation: ***Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus)***
- **Most common cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis** (0-7 days of life), typically presenting within hours of birth
- Key risk factors present: **inadequate prenatal care** (no GBS screening at 35-37 weeks or intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis), **home delivery**, and possible **prolonged rupture of membranes**
- Classic presentation: **fever, lethargy, respiratory distress** (grunting), **hemodynamic instability**, leukocytosis with left shift, and thrombocytopenia
- The mother's history of genital vesicles 7 weeks ago is a **distractor** (resolved HSV would not cause this presentation; neonatal HSV presents with vesicular rash, seizures, or disseminated disease)
*Clostridium botulinum*
- Causes **infant botulism**, presenting with **descending flaccid paralysis** ("floppy baby syndrome"), constipation, poor feeding, and weak cry
- Does NOT cause fever or acute sepsis syndrome
- Acquired through ingestion of **spores** (e.g., honey), not vertical transmission during birth
*Staphylococcus epidermidis*
- Causes **late-onset sepsis** (>7 days) or **nosocomial infections** in hospitalized neonates, especially those with indwelling catheters or central lines
- **Not** a typical cause of early-onset sepsis in a full-term newborn delivered at home
- Associated with **coagulase-negative** staphylococci and biofilm formation on devices
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- Can cause neonatal infections but typically presents as **skin/soft tissue infections, omphalitis, or osteomyelitis** rather than early-onset sepsis
- When causing sepsis, usually occurs **later** in the neonatal period
- Less common than GBS for early-onset sepsis acquired during delivery
*Neisseria meningitidis*
- **Rare** cause of neonatal sepsis; more common in older infants and children
- Vertical transmission is uncommon
- When present, often associated with **petechial or purpuric rash** and fulminant sepsis with rapid progression
Question 40: A 71-year-old woman presents with high-grade fever and chills, difficulty breathing, and a productive cough with rust-colored sputum. She complains of a sharp left-sided chest pain. Physical examination reveals increased fremitus, dullness to percussion, and bronchial breath sounds on the lower left side. A chest X-ray shows left lower lobe consolidation. The offending organism that was cultured from the sputum was catalase-negative and had a positive Quellung reaction. The organism will show which gram stain results?
A. Gram-negative diplococci
B. Cannot be seen with gram staining since the organism lacks a cell wall
C. Gram-positive cocci in clusters
D. Gram-negative rod
E. Gram-positive diplococci (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gram-positive diplococci***
- The clinical presentation (high fever, chills, productive cough with **rust-colored sputum**, sharp chest pain, signs of **consolidation**) is classic for **pneumococcal pneumonia**.
- The organism responsible for pneumococcal pneumonia, *Streptococcus pneumoniae*, is a **Gram-positive, catalase-negative diplococcus** that exhibits a **positive Quellung reaction** due to its polysaccharide capsule.
*Gram-negative diplococci*
- This describes organisms such as **Neisseria meningitidis** or **Neisseria gonorrhoeae**, which cause meningitis or gonorrhea, respectively, not typical pneumonia.
- While *Moraxella catarrhalis* is a Gram-negative diplococcus that can cause respiratory infections, it typically causes otitis media or sinusitis and less commonly severe pneumonia with rust-colored sputum.
*Cannot be seen with gram staining since the organism lacks a cell wall*
- This description typically refers to **Mycoplasma pneumoniae**, which causes **atypical pneumonia** and lacks a cell wall, rendering it unstainable by Gram stain.
- Mycoplasma pneumonia usually presents with a more indolent course, a non-productive cough, and rarely causes rust-colored sputum or lobar consolidation seen on X-ray.
*Gram-positive cocci in clusters*
- This morphology is characteristic of **staphylococci**, such as *Staphylococcus aureus*, which can cause pneumonia, often in immunocompromised individuals or as a complication of influenza.
- However, *Staphylococcus aureus* is **catalase-positive**, and its pneumonia presentation can be more fulminant, often leading to abscess formation, differing from the typical presentation of pneumococcal pneumonia.
*Gram-negative rod*
- This morphology is characteristic of various bacteria including **Klebsiella pneumoniae**, **Pseudomonas aeruginosa**, or **Haemophilus influenzae**.
- **Klebsiella pneumoniae** can cause severe pneumonia with **currant jelly sputum** but is a Gram-negative rod and would not exhibit a Quellung reaction in the same manner as *S. pneumoniae*.