A 63-year-old man comes to the physician because of shortness of breath and swollen extremities for 2 weeks. He has had excessive night sweats and a 4-kg (8.8-lb) weight loss over the last 8 weeks. He had an anterior myocardial infarction 3 years ago. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He immigrated from Indonesia 4 months ago. He works in a shipyard. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 48 years. Current medications include insulin, aspirin, simvastatin, metoprolol, and ramipril. He is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 46.7 kg (103 lb); BMI is 18.2 kg/m2. His temperature is 38.0°C (100.4°F), pulse is 104/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 135/95 mm Hg. Examination shows generalized pitting edema. There is jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, and a paradoxical increase in jugular venous pressure on inspiration. Chest x-ray shows bilateral pleural effusion, patchy infiltrates in the right middle lobe, and pericardial thickening and calcifications. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Urea nitrogen 25 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
Urine
Blood negative
Glucose negative
Protein 1+
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's symptoms?
Q72
A 24-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by friends because of an episode of jerking movements of the whole body that lasted for one minute. She reports a 2-week history of fever, headache, and altered sensorium. Her fever ranges from 38.3°C (101.0°F) to 38.9°C (102.0°F). Her past medical history is significant for toothache and multiple dental caries. The patient denies any history of smoking or alcohol or drug use. She is not currently sexually active. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 110/74 mm Hg, pulse 124/min, respiratory rate 14/min, temperature 38.9°C (102.0°F). On physical examination, the patient is confused and disoriented. She is moving her right side more than her left. A noncontrast CT scan of the head reveals a ring-enhancing lesion in the left frontal lobe consistent with a cerebral abscess. The abscess is evacuated and sent for culture studies. Which of the following microorganisms did the culture most likely grow?
Q73
An investigator is studying the effect of different cytokines on the growth and differentiation of B cells. The investigator isolates a population of B cells from the germinal center of a lymph node. After exposure to a particular cytokine, these B cells begin to produce an antibody that prevents attachment of pathogens to mucous membranes but does not fix complement. Which of the following cytokines is most likely responsible for the observed changes in B-cell function?
Q74
A father brings his 3-year-old son to the pediatrician because he is concerned about his health. He states that throughout his son's life he has had recurrent infections despite proper treatment and hygiene. Upon reviewing the patient's chart, the pediatrician notices that the child has been infected multiple times with S. aureus, Aspergillus, and E. coli. Which of the following would confirm the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q75
A 3-year-old boy presents to the pediatrics clinic for follow-up. He has a history of severe pyogenic infections since birth. Further workup revealed a condition caused by a defect in CD40 ligand expressed on helper T cells. This congenital immunodeficiency has resulted in an inability to class switch and a poor specific antibody response to immunizations. Which of the following best characterizes this patient's immunoglobulin profile?
Q76
A 60-year-old man who recently immigrated from South America schedules an appointment with a physician to complete his pre-employment health clearance form. According to company policy, a skin test for tuberculosis must be administered to all new employees. Thus, he received an intradermal injection of purified protein derivative (PPD) on his left forearm. After 48 hours, a 14-mm oval induration is noticed. The type of cells most likely present and responsible for the indurated area will have which of the following characteristic features?
Q77
A 42-year-old man presents with an intermittent low-to-high grade fever, night sweats, weight loss, fatigue, and exercise intolerance. The symptoms have been present for the last 6 months. The patient is a software developer. He smokes one-half pack of cigarettes daily and drinks alcohol occasionally. He denies intravenous drug use. There is no history of cardiovascular, respiratory, or gastrointestinal diseases or malignancies. There is no family history of cancer or cardiovascular diseases. The only condition he reports is a urinary bladder polyp, which was diagnosed and removed endoscopically almost 8 months ago. The patient does not currently take any medications. His blood pressure is 100/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 107/min, respiratory rate is 19/min, and temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F). The patient is ill-looking and pale. There are several petechial conjunctival hemorrhages and macular lesions on both palms. The cardiac examination reveals heart enlargement to the left side and a holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex of the heart. There is also symmetric edema in both legs up to the knees. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be cultured from the patient’s blood?
Q78
Two weeks after undergoing an allogeneic skin graft procedure for extensive full-thickness burns involving his left leg, a 41-year-old man develops redness and swelling over the graft site. He has not had any fevers or chills. His temperature is 36°C (96.8°F). Physical examination of the left lower leg shows well-demarcated erythema and edema around the skin graft site. The graft site is minimally tender and there is no exudate. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient’s skin condition?
Q79
A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of swelling and pain in her left knee. She has had similar episodes of swollen joints over the past 3 weeks. Two months ago, she had a rash on her upper back that subsided after a few days. She lives in Pennsylvania and works as a forest ranger. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100°F). Physical examination shows a tender and warm left knee. Arthrocentesis of the knee joint yields cloudy fluid with a leukocyte count of 65,000/mm3 and 80% neutrophils. A Gram stain of synovial fluid does not show any organisms. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Q80
A 4-month-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents because of fever for the past 3 days. They also state that he has been less active and has been refusing to eat. The patient has had two episodes of bilateral otitis media since birth. He was born at term and had severe respiratory distress and sepsis shortly after birth that was treated with antibiotics. Umbilical cord separation occurred at the age of 33 days. The patient appears pale. Temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 170/min, and blood pressure is 60/40 mm Hg. He is at the 25th percentile for height and 15th percentile for weight. Examination shows a capillary refill time of 4 seconds. Oral examination shows white mucosal patches that bleed when they are scraped off. There is bilateral mucoid, nonpurulent ear discharge. Several scaly erythematous skin lesions are seen on the chest. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 38,700/mm3 with 90% neutrophils and a platelet count of 200,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Bacteria US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: A 63-year-old man comes to the physician because of shortness of breath and swollen extremities for 2 weeks. He has had excessive night sweats and a 4-kg (8.8-lb) weight loss over the last 8 weeks. He had an anterior myocardial infarction 3 years ago. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He immigrated from Indonesia 4 months ago. He works in a shipyard. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 48 years. Current medications include insulin, aspirin, simvastatin, metoprolol, and ramipril. He is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 46.7 kg (103 lb); BMI is 18.2 kg/m2. His temperature is 38.0°C (100.4°F), pulse is 104/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 135/95 mm Hg. Examination shows generalized pitting edema. There is jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, and a paradoxical increase in jugular venous pressure on inspiration. Chest x-ray shows bilateral pleural effusion, patchy infiltrates in the right middle lobe, and pericardial thickening and calcifications. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Urea nitrogen 25 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
Urine
Blood negative
Glucose negative
Protein 1+
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's symptoms?
A. Viral myocarditis
B. Tuberculosis (Correct Answer)
C. Amyloidosis
D. Asbestos
E. Postmyocardial infarction syndrome
Explanation: ***Tuberculosis***
- The patient's presentation with **night sweats**, **weight loss**, **pleural effusion**, and **patchy infiltrates** is highly suggestive of tuberculosis, especially given his immigration from Indonesia (a region with high TB prevalence) and shipyard work which may expose him to crowded conditions.
- **Pericardial thickening and calcifications** are strong indicators of constrictive pericarditis, a known complication of chronic tuberculosis.
*Viral myocarditis*
- While it can cause heart failure symptoms, it typically presents with a more acute onset of cardiac dysfunction and lacks the chronic systemic symptoms like **prolonged night sweats**, **weight loss**, and **pericardial calcification** seen here.
- Patchy infiltrates on chest X-ray and pleural effusion are not primary features of isolated viral myocarditis.
*Amyloidosis*
- Amyloidosis can cause cardiac involvement leading to heart failure, but it usually presents with symptoms like **restrictive cardiomyopathy**, proteinuria, and organomegaly; however, **night sweats**, **significant weight loss**, and **pericardial calcification** are not typical features.
- There is no mention of other common manifestations of amyloidosis such as macroglossia, periorbital purpura, or peripheral neuropathy.
*Asbestos*
- Asbestos exposure is associated with **pleural plaques**, **asbestosis**, and **mesothelioma**, but it does not typically cause **night sweats**, **weight loss**, or **pericardial calcifications** as described in this case.
- While asbestos exposure might explain pleural findings, it doesn't account for the full clinical picture.
*Postmyocardial infarction syndrome*
- **Dressler's syndrome** (post-MI syndrome) can cause pericarditis and pleuritis after a myocardial infarction, but it typically occurs weeks to months after the event, and this patient's MI was 3 years ago.
- Furthermore, Dressler's syndrome does not cause the **chronic night sweats**, **significant weight loss**, or **pericardial calcifications** observed in this patient.
Question 72: A 24-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by friends because of an episode of jerking movements of the whole body that lasted for one minute. She reports a 2-week history of fever, headache, and altered sensorium. Her fever ranges from 38.3°C (101.0°F) to 38.9°C (102.0°F). Her past medical history is significant for toothache and multiple dental caries. The patient denies any history of smoking or alcohol or drug use. She is not currently sexually active. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 110/74 mm Hg, pulse 124/min, respiratory rate 14/min, temperature 38.9°C (102.0°F). On physical examination, the patient is confused and disoriented. She is moving her right side more than her left. A noncontrast CT scan of the head reveals a ring-enhancing lesion in the left frontal lobe consistent with a cerebral abscess. The abscess is evacuated and sent for culture studies. Which of the following microorganisms did the culture most likely grow?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Actinomyces israelii
C. Streptococcus viridans (Correct Answer)
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation: ***Streptococcus viridans***
- The patient's history of **dental caries** and **toothache** points to an oral source of infection, and *S. viridans* is a common organism in the oral flora that can cause **cerebral abscesses**, especially after dental procedures or poor dental hygiene.
- The presence of a **ring-enhancing lesion** on CT scan, along with fever, headache, altered sensorium, and seizures, is classic for a **cerebral abscess**.
*Escherichia coli*
- *E. coli* is a common cause of **urinary tract infections** and **intra-abdominal infections**, but it is an uncommon cause of cerebral abscess in immunocompetent individuals.
- While it can cause meningitis in neonates and immunocompromised patients, it's not typically linked to dental sources or cerebral abscesses in this demographic.
*Actinomyces israelii*
- *Actinomyces israelii* can cause **abscesses** (actinomycosis), often in the cervicofacial region, and it is associated with poor oral hygiene.
- However, it typically leads to a more **indolent, slowly progressive infection** with characteristic draining sinuses, which is less consistent with the acute presentation and single cerebral abscess described.
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- *Staphylococcus aureus* is a significant cause of **cerebral abscesses**, particularly in patients with **bacteremia**, trauma, or neurosurgical procedures.
- While possible, the strong association with dental caries makes *Streptococcus viridans* a more specific and likely pathogen in this scenario.
*Pseudomonas aeruginosa*
- *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* typically causes cerebral abscesses in **immunocompromised patients**, those with **nosocomial infections**, or after neurosurgical procedures.
- The patient's history does not suggest these risk factors, making *Pseudomonas* less likely.
Question 73: An investigator is studying the effect of different cytokines on the growth and differentiation of B cells. The investigator isolates a population of B cells from the germinal center of a lymph node. After exposure to a particular cytokine, these B cells begin to produce an antibody that prevents attachment of pathogens to mucous membranes but does not fix complement. Which of the following cytokines is most likely responsible for the observed changes in B-cell function?
A. Interleukin-5 (Correct Answer)
B. Interleukin-6
C. Interleukin-8
D. Interleukin-2
E. Interleukin-4
Explanation: ***Interleukin-5***
- The antibody described (prevents pathogen attachment to mucous membranes, does not fix complement) is characteristic of **IgA**.
- **IL-5** plays a crucial role in promoting **IgA secretion** by differentiated B cells and supports B cell growth and differentiation in mucosal immunity.
- IL-5 works synergistically with **TGF-β** (the primary cytokine for IgA class switching) to enhance IgA production, particularly in mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue.
- Among the options provided, **IL-5 has the strongest association with IgA production**.
*Interleukin-4*
- **IL-4** is the primary cytokine driving class switching to **IgE** (and IgG4), not IgA.
- IL-4 is central to **allergic responses** and type 2 immunity, promoting B cells to produce IgE antibodies against allergens and parasites.
- It does not play a significant role in IgA production or mucosal immunity.
*Interleukin-6*
- **IL-6** is a pleiotropic cytokine involved in acute phase reactions, inflammation, and promoting B cell **differentiation into plasma cells**.
- While it supports general B cell maturation and antibody secretion, it is not specifically associated with **IgA production** or class switching.
*Interleukin-8*
- **IL-8** (CXCL8) is a **chemokine** that primarily recruits and activates neutrophils during inflammation.
- It has no direct role in B cell class switching or antibody production.
*Interleukin-2*
- **IL-2** is essential for T cell proliferation and differentiation, enhancing **cell-mediated immunity**.
- While it can indirectly affect B cell responses through T cell help, it is not directly responsible for promoting **IgA production** or class switching.
Question 74: A father brings his 3-year-old son to the pediatrician because he is concerned about his health. He states that throughout his son's life he has had recurrent infections despite proper treatment and hygiene. Upon reviewing the patient's chart, the pediatrician notices that the child has been infected multiple times with S. aureus, Aspergillus, and E. coli. Which of the following would confirm the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Increased IgM, Decreased IgG, IgA, and IgE
B. Negative nitroblue-tetrazolium test (Correct Answer)
C. Positive nitroblue-tetrazolium test
D. Normal dihydrorhodamine (DHR) flow cytometry test
E. Increased IgE and IgA, Decreased IgM
Explanation: ***Negative nitroblue-tetrazolium test***
- A **negative nitroblue-tetrazolium (NBT) test** indicates an inability of phagocytes to produce a respiratory burst, which is characteristic of **Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)**.
- CGD patients suffer from recurrent infections with catalase-positive organisms such as *Staphylococcus aureus*, *Aspergillus*, and *E. coli*, consistent with the patient's history.
*Increased IgM, Decreased IgG, IgA, and IgE*
- This pattern of immunoglobulin levels is characteristic of **X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome**, where there is a defect in CD40L on T cells.
- While it also causes recurrent infections, the typical pathogens differ from those stated in the question, often including *Pneumocystis jirovecii*.
*Positive nitroblue-tetrazolium test*
- A **positive NBT test** indicates that phagocytes are capable of producing a respiratory burst and forming superoxide, thus ruling out CGD.
- This result would be expected in a healthy individual or someone with an immunodeficiency not affecting the phagocytic oxidative burst.
*Normal dihydrorhodamine (DHR) flow cytometry test*
- A **normal DHR flow cytometry test** indicates that neutrophils can produce reactive oxygen species (ROS) effectively, meaning the respiratory burst is intact.
- This result would rule out CGD, as CGD patients have an abnormal (decreased) DHR test.
*Increased IgE and IgA, Decreased IgM*
- This specific pattern of immunoglobulin abnormalities is not typically associated with a single, well-defined primary immunodeficiency that would present with the described infections.
- **Hyper-IgE syndrome (Job's syndrome)**, for example, features very high IgE levels but usually a normal IgM.
Question 75: A 3-year-old boy presents to the pediatrics clinic for follow-up. He has a history of severe pyogenic infections since birth. Further workup revealed a condition caused by a defect in CD40 ligand expressed on helper T cells. This congenital immunodeficiency has resulted in an inability to class switch and a poor specific antibody response to immunizations. Which of the following best characterizes this patient's immunoglobulin profile?
A. Increased IgM; decreased IgG, IgA, and IgE (Correct Answer)
B. Increased IgE and IgA; and decreased IgM
C. Increased IgE
D. Decreased IgA
E. Decreased Interferon gamma
Explanation: ***Increased IgM; decreased IgG, IgA, and IgE***
- The described condition is **Hyper-IgM Syndrome** due to a defect in **CD40 ligand**, which prevents B cells from class-switching.
- This results in the continued production of **IgM** (which does not require CD40L for its synthesis) and *decreased levels of all other immunoglobulin isotypes* (IgG, IgA, IgE).
*Increased IgE and IgA; and decreased IgM*
- This profile is not characteristic of Hyper-IgM syndrome; it might be seen in other immunodeficiencies but not one caused by a CD40L defect.
- A decrease in IgM production would indicate a defect in early B-cell development or IgM synthesis, which is contrary to the features of Hyper-IgM syndrome where IgM is typically high.
*Increased IgE*
- While increased IgE can be a feature of certain immunodeficiencies (e.g., Job's syndrome/Hyper-IgE syndrome), it is not the primary or sole immunoglobulin abnormality in **Hyper-IgM Syndrome**.
- In Hyper-IgM syndrome, IgE is typically decreased due to the inability to class switch to IgE.
*Decreased IgA*
- This is true in Hyper-IgM syndrome, but it's only one part of the immunoglobulin profile and not the most comprehensive answer.
- Isolated decreased IgA (Selective IgA Deficiency) is a separate primary immunodeficiency with different clinical manifestations and underlying molecular defects.
*Decreased Interferon gamma*
- Interferon gamma is a cytokine produced by T cells (Th1 cells) and NK cells, important for antiviral and anti-intracellular bacterial immunity.
- While T-cell function can be impaired in immunodeficiencies, a defect in CD40L primarily affects B-cell class switching and antibody production, not directly interferon gamma levels.
Question 76: A 60-year-old man who recently immigrated from South America schedules an appointment with a physician to complete his pre-employment health clearance form. According to company policy, a skin test for tuberculosis must be administered to all new employees. Thus, he received an intradermal injection of purified protein derivative (PPD) on his left forearm. After 48 hours, a 14-mm oval induration is noticed. The type of cells most likely present and responsible for the indurated area will have which of the following characteristic features?
A. They are rich in myeloperoxidase enzyme.
B. They need thymus for their maturation. (Correct Answer)
C. They play an important part in allergic reactions.
D. They have multiple-lobed nucleus.
E. Their half-life is 24–48 hours.
Explanation: ***They need thymus for their maturation.***
- The induration in a **PPD test** is mediated by **T-helper cells (CD4+)**, which are a type of **T lymphocyte**.
- **T lymphocytes** mature in the **thymus**, where they undergo positive and negative selection.
*They are rich in myeloperoxidase enzyme.*
- Cells rich in **myeloperoxidase enzyme** are primarily **neutrophils**, which are involved in acute inflammation and bacterial killing.
- The PPD induration is a **Type IV hypersensitivity reaction**, characterized by a delayed, cell-mediated immune response, not an acute neutrophil-driven one.
*They play an important part in allergic reactions.*
- Cells primarily involved in allergic reactions (**Type I hypersensitivity**) are **mast cells** and **basophils**, which release mediators like histamine.
- The PPD test is a **Type IV, delayed-type hypersensitivity**, involving T-cells and macrophages, not allergic reactions.
*They have multiple-lobed nucleus.*
- Cells with a **multiple-lobed nucleus** are characteristic of **neutrophils**, as well as other granulocytes like eosinophils and basophils.
- **T lymphocytes** typically have a large, round nucleus that fills most of the cytoplasm.
*Their half-life is 24–48 hours.*
- Cells with a short half-life of 24-48 hours are characteristic of some granulocytes, like **neutrophils**, which have a relatively short lifespan.
- **Memory T lymphocytes**, which are crucial for the PPD response, can persist for many years, providing long-term immunity.
Question 77: A 42-year-old man presents with an intermittent low-to-high grade fever, night sweats, weight loss, fatigue, and exercise intolerance. The symptoms have been present for the last 6 months. The patient is a software developer. He smokes one-half pack of cigarettes daily and drinks alcohol occasionally. He denies intravenous drug use. There is no history of cardiovascular, respiratory, or gastrointestinal diseases or malignancies. There is no family history of cancer or cardiovascular diseases. The only condition he reports is a urinary bladder polyp, which was diagnosed and removed endoscopically almost 8 months ago. The patient does not currently take any medications. His blood pressure is 100/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 107/min, respiratory rate is 19/min, and temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F). The patient is ill-looking and pale. There are several petechial conjunctival hemorrhages and macular lesions on both palms. The cardiac examination reveals heart enlargement to the left side and a holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex of the heart. There is also symmetric edema in both legs up to the knees. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be cultured from the patient’s blood?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Candida albicans
C. Streptococcus viridans (Correct Answer)
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Enterococcus faecalis
Explanation: ***Streptococcus viridans***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, night sweats, weight loss, fatigue, new-onset **holosystolic murmur**, **petechial hemorrhages**, **macular lesions on palms**) are highly suggestive of **subacute infective endocarditis**.
- **Viridans streptococci** are the most common cause of **subacute bacterial endocarditis** overall, accounting for 50-60% of cases on previously damaged heart valves or in individuals with predisposing conditions.
- While the patient had a bladder polyp removed **8 months ago**, the remote timing (well beyond typical endocarditis prophylaxis windows) and the **6-month duration of symptoms** make viridans the most likely pathogen statistically.
*Pseudomonas aeruginosa*
- This organism primarily causes endocarditis in **intravenous drug users** or in patients with **prosthetic valves**, which are not present in this case.
- The patient denies IVDU, making this organism less likely.
*Candida albicans*
- **Fungal endocarditis** due to *Candida* is rare and typically occurs in immunocompromised individuals, those with prosthetic valves, or long-term central venous catheter users.
- There is no indication of immunocompromise or prosthetic valves in this patient.
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- **Staphylococcus aureus** causes **acute infective endocarditis**, often presenting with rapid onset and severe symptoms over days to weeks, frequently involving healthy valves and **intravenous drug users**.
- The patient's **6-month history** of symptoms points to a subacute, rather than an acute, process, making S. aureus less likely.
*Enterococcus faecalis*
- **Enterococcus faecalis** is indeed associated with endocarditis following **genitourinary procedures** (including cystoscopy with polypectomy).
- However, the **8-month interval** between the GU procedure and symptom onset is quite remote; most procedure-related endocarditis develops within weeks to a few months.
- Additionally, while enterococcus causes 5-15% of endocarditis cases, **viridans streptococci remain the most common cause of subacute endocarditis overall**, making it the statistically more likely pathogen in this clinical presentation.
Question 78: Two weeks after undergoing an allogeneic skin graft procedure for extensive full-thickness burns involving his left leg, a 41-year-old man develops redness and swelling over the graft site. He has not had any fevers or chills. His temperature is 36°C (96.8°F). Physical examination of the left lower leg shows well-demarcated erythema and edema around the skin graft site. The graft site is minimally tender and there is no exudate. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient’s skin condition?
A. Th1-induced macrophage activation (Correct Answer)
B. Staphylococci-induced neutrophil activation
C. Immune complex-mediated complement activation
D. Opsonization-induced cell destruction
E. Antibody-mediated complement activation
Explanation: - **Th1-induced macrophage activation** is the mechanism behind **acute allograft rejection**, which typically occurs within days to weeks post-transplant and involves **T-lymphocytes** recognizing donor antigens.
- The symptoms of localized redness, swelling, and edema around the graft site, without systemic signs of infection or exudate, are highly consistent with a **cellular immune response** directed against the foreign tissue.
*Staphylococci-induced neutrophil activation*
- **Bacterial infection** usually presents with signs of inflammation like warmth, severe pain, purulent discharge (exudate), and potentially fever and chills.
- The patient's lack of fever, chills, and exudate, coupled with only minimal tenderness, makes a **bacterial infection less likely**.
*Immune complex-mediated complement activation*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **Type III hypersensitivity reactions**, such as **serum sickness** or **Arthus reaction**.
- These conditions typically present with vasculitis, glomerulonephritis, or arthritis, which are not described in the patient's localized skin graft rejection.
*Opsonization-induced cell destruction*
- **Opsonization** primarily involves tagging cells for destruction by **phagocytes** and is mediated by antibodies (IgG) or complement proteins (C3b).
- While it can be part of an immune response, it is generally associated with **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** or the removal of infectious agents, not the primary mechanism of acute cellular graft rejection.
*Antibody-mediated complement activation*
- **Antibody-mediated complement activation** is characteristic of **hyperacute rejection**, which occurs **minutes to hours** after transplantation due to pre-formed antibodies.
- It can also be involved in **acute humoral rejection**, but the two-week timeframe and the localized, inflammatory nature of the symptoms without vascular compromise suggest a **cell-mediated response** as the primary mechanism.
Question 79: A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of swelling and pain in her left knee. She has had similar episodes of swollen joints over the past 3 weeks. Two months ago, she had a rash on her upper back that subsided after a few days. She lives in Pennsylvania and works as a forest ranger. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100°F). Physical examination shows a tender and warm left knee. Arthrocentesis of the knee joint yields cloudy fluid with a leukocyte count of 65,000/mm3 and 80% neutrophils. A Gram stain of synovial fluid does not show any organisms. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. Production of autoantibodies against Fc portion of IgG
B. Wearing down of articular cartilage
C. Postinfectious activation of innate lymphoid cells of the gut
D. Infection with spiral-shaped bacteria (Correct Answer)
E. Infection with round bacteria in clusters
Explanation: ***Infection with spiral-shaped bacteria***
- This clinical presentation, including multifocal arthritis following a rash, a mild fever, and a history of working as a forest ranger in Pennsylvania (an **endemic area**), is highly suggestive of **Lyme arthritis**.
- Lyme disease is caused by the **spirochete** *Borrelia burgdorferi*, a **spiral-shaped bacterium**, transmitted by tick bites.
*Production of autoantibodies against Fc portion of IgG*
- This describes the presence of **rheumatoid factor (RF)**, which is characteristic of **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**.
- RA typically presents with chronic, symmetrical polyarthritis, often involving the small joints, and does not commonly begin with an acute rash or affect forest rangers specifically.
*Wearing down of articular cartilage*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **osteoarthritis (OA)**, which is a degenerative joint disease.
- OA typically affects older individuals, is not associated with acute inflammatory episodes, fevers, or the presence of a rash, and the synovial fluid analysis would show fewer inflammatory cells.
*Postinfectious activation of innate lymphoid cells of the gut*
- This mechanism is associated with **reactive arthritis** or spondyloarthropathies, which are typically triggered by gastrointestinal or genitourinary infections.
- While reactive arthritis can cause acute arthritis, the prodromal rash, geographic location, and specific sequence of symptoms point away from a gut-derived trigger.
*Infection with round bacteria in clusters*
- **Round bacteria in clusters** (Gram-positive cocci in clusters) typically refers to **Staphylococcus aureus**, a common cause of **septic arthritis**.
- While septic arthritis can cause acute, painful, swollen joints with high synovial fluid leukocyte counts, the history of a preceding rash and multifocal, migratory joint involvement makes Lyme arthritis more likely; also, a Gram stain for *Staphylococcus* would typically be positive.
Question 80: A 4-month-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents because of fever for the past 3 days. They also state that he has been less active and has been refusing to eat. The patient has had two episodes of bilateral otitis media since birth. He was born at term and had severe respiratory distress and sepsis shortly after birth that was treated with antibiotics. Umbilical cord separation occurred at the age of 33 days. The patient appears pale. Temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 170/min, and blood pressure is 60/40 mm Hg. He is at the 25th percentile for height and 15th percentile for weight. Examination shows a capillary refill time of 4 seconds. Oral examination shows white mucosal patches that bleed when they are scraped off. There is bilateral mucoid, nonpurulent ear discharge. Several scaly erythematous skin lesions are seen on the chest. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 38,700/mm3 with 90% neutrophils and a platelet count of 200,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Defective NADPH oxidase
B. Defective IL-2R gamma chain
C. WAS gene mutation
D. Defective beta-2 integrin (Correct Answer)
E. Defective lysosomal trafficking regulator gene
Explanation: ***Defective beta-2 integrin***
- This condition, known as **Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency Type 1 (LAD-1)**, is characterized by **defective neutrophil adhesion** due to mutations in the *CD18* gene, which encodes the beta-2 integrin subunit. This leads to impaired leukocyte extravasation into tissues.
- Clinical features include recurrent bacterial infections (like **otitis media**), severe periodontal disease, **impaired wound healing** with delayed umbilical cord separation (>30 days), and **marked peripheral leukocytosis with neutrophilia** (as seen in this patient) because neutrophils cannot exit the bloodstream.
*Defective NADPH oxidase*
- This describes **Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)**, where phagocytes cannot produce reactive oxygen species. Patients suffer from recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, often by catalase-positive organisms, and **granuloma formation**.
- While patients with CGD do have recurrent infections, **delayed umbilical cord separation** and the specific presentation of neutrophilic leukocytosis due to inability to extravasate are not characteristic features of CGD.
*Defective IL-2R gamma chain*
- Mutations in the **IL-2R gamma chain** lead to **X-linked Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)**, characterized by a **lack of T cells and NK cells**, making infants highly susceptible to severe opportunistic infections.
- This patient presents with neutrophilic leukocytosis and features more indicative of a neutrophil defect rather than a primary T-cell deficiency; SCID typically presents with severe bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic infections early in life and often involves failure to thrive.
*WAS gene mutation*
- A mutation in the *WAS* (Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome) gene causes **Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome**, characterized by the triad of **thrombocytopenia** (small platelets), **eczema**, and **recurrent infections**.
- This patient has a normal platelet count (200,000/mm3), which rules out Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome.
*Defective lysosomal trafficking regulator gene*
- This defect is associated with **Chediak-Higashi syndrome**, which involves impaired phagolysosome formation in phagocytes. Clinical features include **partial albinism**, recurrent pyogenic infections, peripheral neuropathy, and large granules in leukocytes.
- Although recurrent infections are present, the patient's symptoms do not include albinism or an abnormal morphology of neutrophils with giant lysosomes. Additionally, **delayed umbilical cord separation** is not a hallmark of Chediak-Higashi syndrome.