A 24-year-old woman presents to her primary care doctor with a lesion on her labia. She first noticed the lesion 2 days ago. It is not painful. She denies vaginal discharge or dysuria. She has no past medical history and takes no medications. She has had 4 sexual partners in the past 8 months and uses the pull-out method as contraception. She drinks 12-16 alcoholic beverages per week and is a law student. Her temperature is 97.8°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 121/81 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 16/min. On exam, she has an indurated non-tender ulcer on the left labia majora. There is no appreciable inguinal lymphadenopathy. Multiple tests are ordered and pending. This patient's condition is most likely caused by a pathogen with which of the following characteristics on microscopic examination?
Q222
A 49-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of several painless, pruritic lesions on his left forearm that he first noticed 4 days ago. They were initially pink marks that progressed into blisters before ulcerating. He has also had a headache for 1 week. His temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F). A photograph of one of the lesions is shown. There is pronounced edema of the surrounding skin and painless swelling of the left axillary lymph nodes. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for this patient's condition?
Q223
A 36-year-old woman with a past medical history of diabetes comes to the emergency department for abdominal pain. She reports that a long time ago her gynecologist told her that she had “some cysts in her ovaries but not to worry about it.” The pain started last night and has progressively gotten worse. Nothing seems to make it better or worse. She denies headache, dizziness, chest pain, dyspnea, diarrhea, or constipation; she endorses nausea, dysuria for the past 3 days, and chills. Her temperature is 100.7°F (38.2°C), blood pressure is 132/94 mmHg, pulse is 104/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination is significant for right lower quadrant and flank pain with voluntary guarding. What is the most likely pathophysiology of this patient’s condition?
Q224
A 24-year-old woman presents with fever, abdominal pain, and bloody bowel movements. She says her symptoms onset 2 days ago and have not improved. She describes the abdominal pain as moderate, cramping in character, and poorly localized. 1 week ago, she says she was on a camping trip with her friends and had barbecued chicken which she thought tasted strange. The patient denies any chills, hemoptysis, hematochezia, or similar symptoms in the past. The vital signs include: pulse 87/min and temperature 37.8°C (100.0°F). Physical examination is significant for moderate tenderness to palpation in the periumbilical region with no rebound or guarding. Stool is guaiac positive. Which of the following is a complication associated with this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
Q225
A 47-year-old woman presents to a local medical shelter while on a mission trip with her church to help rebuild homes after a hurricane. She has been experiencing severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea for the last 2 days and was feeling too fatigued to walk this morning. On presentation, her temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 95/62 mmHg, pulse is 121/min, and respirations are 17/min. Physical exam reveals decreased skin turgor, and a stool sample reveals off-white watery stools. Gram stain reveals a gram-negative, comma-shaped organism that produces a toxin. Which of the following is consistent with the action of the toxin most likely involved in the development of this patient's symptoms?
Q226
A 67-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fever, chills, myalgias, and joint pain 1 month after undergoing aortic prosthetic valve replacement due to high-grade aortic stenosis. She does not drink alcohol or use illicit drugs. Her temperature is 39.3°C (102.8°F). She appears weak and lethargic. Physical examination shows crackles at both lung bases and a grade 2/6, blowing diastolic murmur over the right sternal border. Laboratory studies show leukocytosis and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The causal organism is most likely to have which of the following characteristics?
Q227
A 28-year-old man comes to the physician for a pre-employment examination. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. A screening blood test is performed in which peptides are added to the sample to stimulate in vitro production of interferon-gamma, which is then measured using an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. This test is most likely to be helpful in diagnosing infection with which of the following pathogens?
Q228
A 27-year-old man who recently emigrated as a refugee from Somalia presents with fever, weight loss, fatigue, and exertional chest pain. He says his symptoms began 3 weeks ago and that his appetite has decreased and he has lost 3 kg (6.6 lb) in the last 3 weeks. He denies any history of cardiac disease. His past medical history is unremarkable. The patient admits that he has always lived in poor hygienic conditions in overcrowded quarters and in close contact with cats. His vital signs include: blood pressure 120/60 mm Hg, pulse 90/min, and temperature 38.0°C (100.4°F). Physical examination reveals generalized pallor. A cardiac examination reveals an early diastolic murmur loudest at the left third intercostal space. Abdominal examination reveals a tender and mildly enlarged spleen. Prominent axillary lymphadenopathy is noted. Laboratory investigations reveal a WBC count of 14,500/μL with 5% bands and 93% polymorphonuclear cells. An echocardiogram reveals a 5-mm vegetation on the aortic valve with moderate regurgitation. Three sets of blood cultures are taken over 24 hours followed by empiric antibiotic therapy with gentamicin and vancomycin. The blood cultures show no growth after 5 days. Following a week of empiric therapy, the patient continues to deteriorate. Which of the following would most likely confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
Q229
A 39-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with fever, cough, and shortness of breath. She reports developing flu-like symptoms 7 days ago but progressively worsened to the point where she experiences dyspnea on exertion. Her cough is accompanied by a mild amount of yellow sputum. Past medical history is notable for a previous admission to the hospital for pneumonia 4 months ago and an admission for bacteremia 6 weeks ago. She additionally has a history of IV heroin abuse, but her last use of heroin was 3 years ago. Temperature is 101.2°F (38.4°C), blood pressure is 104/70 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination demonstrates coarse upper airway breath sounds over the right lower lung field. A faint 1/6 non-radiating systolic flow murmur is auscultated at the first right intercostal space. Abdominal examination is significant for moderate splenomegaly. Tenderness of the wrists and fingers is elicited on palpation, and range of motion is restricted. The patient comments that her range of motion and pain usually improve as the day goes on. Which of the following laboratory abnormalities is most likely to be found in this patient?
Q230
A 10-month-old boy is referred to the hospital because of suspected severe pneumonia. During the first month of his life, he had developed upper airway infections, bronchitis, and diarrhea. He has received all the immunizations according to his age. He failed to thrive since the age of 3 months. A month ago, he had a severe lung infection with cough, dyspnea, and diarrhea, and was unresponsive to an empiric oral macrolide. Upon admission to his local hospital, the patient has mild respiratory distress and crackles on auscultation. The temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F), and the oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. The quantitative immunoglobulin tests show increased IgG, IgM, and IgA. The peripheral blood smear shows leukocytosis and normochromic normocytic anemia. The chloride sweat test and tuberculin test are negative. The chest X-ray reveals bilateral pneumonia. The bronchoalveolar lavage and gram stain report gram-negative bacteria with a growth of Burkholderia cepacia on culture. The laboratory results on admission are as follows:
Leukocytes 36,600/mm3
Neutrophils 80%
Lymphocytes 16%
Eosinophils 1%
Monocytes 2%
Hemoglobin 7.6 g/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
BUN 15 mg/dL
Which of the following defects of neutrophil function is most likely responsible?
Bacteria US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: A 24-year-old woman presents to her primary care doctor with a lesion on her labia. She first noticed the lesion 2 days ago. It is not painful. She denies vaginal discharge or dysuria. She has no past medical history and takes no medications. She has had 4 sexual partners in the past 8 months and uses the pull-out method as contraception. She drinks 12-16 alcoholic beverages per week and is a law student. Her temperature is 97.8°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 121/81 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 16/min. On exam, she has an indurated non-tender ulcer on the left labia majora. There is no appreciable inguinal lymphadenopathy. Multiple tests are ordered and pending. This patient's condition is most likely caused by a pathogen with which of the following characteristics on microscopic examination?
A. Motile and helical-shaped bacteria (Correct Answer)
B. Rod-shaped organisms in phagocyte cytoplasm
C. Gram-negative coccobacillus with a "school of fish" appearance
D. Vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria
E. Gram-negative diplococci
Explanation: ***Motile and helical-shaped bacteria***
- The patient's **painless, indurated genital ulcer** (chancre) strongly suggests **primary syphilis**.
- Syphilis is caused by *Treponema pallidum*, a **spirochete** characterized by its **motile, helical shape**.
*Rod-shaped organisms in phagocyte cytoplasm*
- This description is characteristic of **Donovan bodies**, which are found in **macrophages** in cases of **granuloma inguinale** (donovanosis).
- Granuloma inguinale typically presents as **painless, beefy-red ulcers** that *bleed easily* and are *not indurated*.
*Gram-negative coccobacillus with a "school of fish" appearance*
- This appearance is characteristic of *Haemophilus ducreyi*, the causative agent of **chancroid**.
- Chancroid typically presents with **painful, ragged ulcers** and often leads to **inguinal lymphadenopathy** (buboes), which is absent here.
*Vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria*
- This describes **clue cells**, which are characteristic of **bacterial vaginosis** (*Gardnerella vaginalis*).
- Bacterial vaginosis presents with **vaginal discharge**, a **fishy odor**, and dysuria, not a solitary ulcer.
*Gram-negative diplococci*
- This morphology is characteristic of **Neisseria gonorrhoeae**, the causative agent of **gonorrhea**.
- Gonorrhea typically causes **urethritis** with **purulent discharge** in women, or can be asymptomatic; it does not cause a solitary genital ulcer.
Question 222: A 49-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of several painless, pruritic lesions on his left forearm that he first noticed 4 days ago. They were initially pink marks that progressed into blisters before ulcerating. He has also had a headache for 1 week. His temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F). A photograph of one of the lesions is shown. There is pronounced edema of the surrounding skin and painless swelling of the left axillary lymph nodes. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for this patient's condition?
A. Pool swimming
B. Wool handling (Correct Answer)
C. Sexual contact
D. Cat scratch
E. Spider bite
Explanation: ***Wool handling***
- The patient's lesion, described as a **painless, pruritic ulcerating blister** on the forearm along with surrounding edema, axillary lymphadenopathy, and systemic symptoms like fever and headache, is highly suggestive of **cutaneous anthrax**.
- **Wool handling** exposes individuals to spores of *Bacillus anthracis*, which are commonly found in animal products, making it a significant risk factor for anthrax, especially the cutaneous form (also known as **wool sorter's disease**).
*Pool swimming*
- Pool swimming is associated with skin infections like **folliculitis** (from *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*) or **verrucae** (warts), which do not present with the characteristic features of a painless ulcer with a black eschar.
- While skin infections can occur, they do not typically cause the systemic symptoms and characteristic lesion shown.
*Sexual contact*
- Sexual contact is associated with sexually transmitted infections, such as **syphilis** (chancre), **herpes simplex virus** (vesicles), or **chancroid** (painful ulcers).
- These conditions have distinctly different lesion characteristics and clinical presentations compared to the described condition.
*Cat scratch*
- **Cat scratch disease**, caused by *Bartonella henselae*, typically presents with **papules or pustules at the scratch site** and regional lymphadenopathy, but the primary lesion does not evolve into a painless ulcer with a distinctive black eschar.
- The initial lesion in cat scratch disease is often a small, red papule or vesicle, not a blister that progresses to an ulcer with a black necrotic center.
*Spider bite*
- Spider bites can cause various skin reactions, from mild irritation to **necrotic lesions** (e.g., from a **brown recluse spider**).
- However, spider bites usually involve a sudden onset of a painful lesion, which often has a central necrotic area, but they don't typically present with a preceding blister and the specific progression to a painless, pruritic ulcer with pronounced edema and associated systemic symptoms as seen in this case of cutaneous anthrax.
Question 223: A 36-year-old woman with a past medical history of diabetes comes to the emergency department for abdominal pain. She reports that a long time ago her gynecologist told her that she had “some cysts in her ovaries but not to worry about it.” The pain started last night and has progressively gotten worse. Nothing seems to make it better or worse. She denies headache, dizziness, chest pain, dyspnea, diarrhea, or constipation; she endorses nausea, dysuria for the past 3 days, and chills. Her temperature is 100.7°F (38.2°C), blood pressure is 132/94 mmHg, pulse is 104/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination is significant for right lower quadrant and flank pain with voluntary guarding. What is the most likely pathophysiology of this patient’s condition?
A. Ascending infection of the urinary tract (Correct Answer)
B. Inflammation of the appendix
C. Cessation of venous drainage from the ovaries
D. Irritation of the peritoneal lining
E. Vesicoureteral reflux
Explanation: ***Ascending infection of the urinary tract***
- The patient's symptoms of **dysuria**, **flank pain**, **chills**, and **fever** along with **right lower quadrant pain** are highly suggestive of **pyelonephritis**, which is an ascending urinary tract infection. Her history of diabetes also increases her risk for UTIs.
- **Voluntary guarding** in the right lower quadrant and flank further supports an inflammatory process in the kidney or surrounding structures, consistent with a severe UTI escalating to the kidneys.
*Inflammation of the appendix*
- While **right lower quadrant pain** is present, the key symptoms of **dysuria** and **flank pain** are not typical for appendicitis.
- Appendicitis often presents with migration of pain from the periumbilical region to the right lower quadrant, and while fever can occur, it's usually not associated with prominent dysuria.
*Cessation of venous drainage from the ovaries*
- This describes **ovarian torsion**, which typically presents with sudden, severe, unilateral lower abdominal pain and can be associated with nausea and vomiting.
- However, the presence of **dysuria**, **flank pain**, and **fever** (suggesting infection) makes ovarian torsion less likely as the primary pathology.
*Irritation of the peritoneal lining*
- Peritoneal irritation (peritonitis) can cause abdominal pain and guarding, but it's a general sign and not a specific diagnosis of the underlying cause.
- While peritonitis could be a complication, the precise constellation of symptoms points more directly to a genitourinary infection.
*Vesicoureteral reflux*
- **Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)** is the abnormal backward flow of urine from the bladder into the ureters and sometimes the kidneys. It's a predisposing factor for ascending UTIs, especially in children, rather than a direct *description of the acute pathophysiology* here.
- In this acute presentation, VUR would facilitate the **ascending infection**, but it doesn't explain the acute symptoms on its own.
Question 224: A 24-year-old woman presents with fever, abdominal pain, and bloody bowel movements. She says her symptoms onset 2 days ago and have not improved. She describes the abdominal pain as moderate, cramping in character, and poorly localized. 1 week ago, she says she was on a camping trip with her friends and had barbecued chicken which she thought tasted strange. The patient denies any chills, hemoptysis, hematochezia, or similar symptoms in the past. The vital signs include: pulse 87/min and temperature 37.8°C (100.0°F). Physical examination is significant for moderate tenderness to palpation in the periumbilical region with no rebound or guarding. Stool is guaiac positive. Which of the following is a complication associated with this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Reactive arthritis
B. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
C. Toxic megacolon
D. Bacteremia
E. Guillain-Barré syndrome (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Guillain-Barré syndrome***
- **Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)** is a rare but serious post-infectious autoimmune neuropathy that can be triggered by *Campylobacter jejuni* infection.
- The patient's symptoms (fever, abdominal pain, bloody bowel movements after consuming undercooked chicken) are highly suggestive of **Campylobacter enteritis**, making GBS a potential complication.
*Reactive arthritis*
- While **reactive arthritis** can be a complication of *Campylobacter* infection, it typically involves sterile joint inflammation and is less severe than Guillain-Barré syndrome.
- Its clinical presentation often includes **asymmetric oligoarthritis**, dactylitis, and enthesitis, which are not described as the primary concern here.
*Hemolytic uremic syndrome*
- **Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)** is primarily associated with **Shiga toxin-producing *E. coli* (STEC)** infections, particularly O157:H7.
- Although *Campylobacter* can rarely cause HUS, it's not the most common or direct complication compared to other options.
*Toxic megacolon*
- **Toxic megacolon** is a severe complication of inflammatory bowel disease or other severe colitis (e.g., *C. difficile* infection), characterized by acute dilation of the colon with systemic toxicity.
- While severe *Campylobacter* infection can cause colitis, toxic megacolon is a less common and specific complication in this context.
*Bacteremia*
- While **bacteremia** is possible with severe gastrointestinal infections, it is a direct extension of the infection itself rather than a post-infectious immune-mediated complication like Guillain-Barré syndrome.
- The question asks for a specific "complication," implying a distinct secondary condition.
Question 225: A 47-year-old woman presents to a local medical shelter while on a mission trip with her church to help rebuild homes after a hurricane. She has been experiencing severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea for the last 2 days and was feeling too fatigued to walk this morning. On presentation, her temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 95/62 mmHg, pulse is 121/min, and respirations are 17/min. Physical exam reveals decreased skin turgor, and a stool sample reveals off-white watery stools. Gram stain reveals a gram-negative, comma-shaped organism that produces a toxin. Which of the following is consistent with the action of the toxin most likely involved in the development of this patient's symptoms?
A. Decreased ribosomal activity
B. Increased membrane permeability
C. Cleavage of junctional proteins
D. Increased adenylyl cyclase activity (Correct Answer)
E. Activation of receptor tyrosine kinase
Explanation: ***Increased adenylyl cyclase activity***
- The patient's symptoms (severe nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, **hypotension**, and **tachycardia**) along with the presence of a **gram-negative, comma-shaped organism** producing an off-white watery stool are highly suggestive of **Cholera** caused by *Vibrio cholerae*.
- Cholera toxin is an **AB5 toxin** that irreversibly activates **adenylyl cyclase** in intestinal epithelial cells, leading to increased intracellular cyclic AMP (cAMP) levels. This increased cAMP then causes massive secretion of chloride and bicarbonate into the intestinal lumen, followed by water, resulting in the characteristic **"rice-water stool"**.
*Decreased ribosomal activity*
- This mechanism is characteristic of toxins like **Shiga toxin** (produced by *Shigella dysenteriae* and enterohemorrhagic *E. coli*) and **diphtheria toxin** (produced by *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*).
- These toxins inhibit protein synthesis by inactivating the 60S ribosomal subunit, which typically leads to **cytotoxicity** rather than the profuse watery diarrhea seen in cholera.
*Increased membrane permeability*
- Some toxins, such as **alpha-toxin** of *Clostridium perfringens* (gas gangrene) or **pore-forming toxins**, increase membrane permeability by creating pores in cell membranes.
- While this can lead to cell damage and lysis, it is not the primary mechanism by which the cholera toxin causes massive fluid secretion.
*Cleavage of junctional proteins*
- Toxins that cleave **tight junction proteins** (e.g., *Clostridium difficile* toxins A and B) can disrupt the intestinal barrier and lead to fluid leakage.
- However, the main mechanism of cholera toxin is fluid secretion due to ion channel activation rather than direct disruption of intercellular junctions.
*Activation of receptor tyrosine kinase*
- Activation of **receptor tyrosine kinases** is typically involved in cell growth, differentiation, and metabolism, not directly in acute, severe secretory diarrhea.
- While some bacterial toxins can modulate host signaling pathways, direct activation of receptor tyrosine kinases is not the primary mechanism of action for toxins causing cholera-like symptoms.
Question 226: A 67-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fever, chills, myalgias, and joint pain 1 month after undergoing aortic prosthetic valve replacement due to high-grade aortic stenosis. She does not drink alcohol or use illicit drugs. Her temperature is 39.3°C (102.8°F). She appears weak and lethargic. Physical examination shows crackles at both lung bases and a grade 2/6, blowing diastolic murmur over the right sternal border. Laboratory studies show leukocytosis and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The causal organism is most likely to have which of the following characteristics?
A. Beta hemolytic, bacitracin-sensitive cocci
B. Alpha hemolytic, optochin-resistant cocci
C. Catalase-negative cocci that grows in 6.5% saline
D. Novobiocin-sensitive, coagulase-negative cocci (Correct Answer)
E. Alpha hemolytic, optochin-sensitive diplococci
Explanation: ***Novobiocin-sensitive, coagulase-negative cocci***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, chills, new murmur) and recent **prosthetic valve replacement** strongly suggest **nosocomial infective endocarditis**.
- **Staphylococcus epidermidis** is a common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis, and it is a **coagulase-negative Staphylococcus** that is characteristically **novobiocin-sensitive**.
*Beta hemolytic, bacitracin-sensitive cocci*
- This describes **Group A Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes)**, which causes pharyngitis, cellulitis, and toxic shock syndrome, but rarely infective endocarditis, particularly 1 month post-op.
- While it can cause rheumatic fever (leading to valve damage), it is not a common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis in this specific context.
*Alpha hemolytic, optochin-resistant cocci*
- This describes **Viridans group streptococci (e.g., Streptococcus mitis, S. sanguinis)**, which are common causes of native valve endocarditis, often following dental procedures.
- However, they are typically **alpha-hemolytic** and **optochin-resistant**, not associated with prosthetic valve infections in the immediate post-operative period.
*Catalase-negative cocci that grows in 6.5% saline*
- This describes **Enterococci (e.g., Enterococcus faecalis, Enterococcus faecium)**. They are catalase-negative and can grow in 6.5% saline.
- While enterococci can cause endocarditis, particularly in patients with genitourinary or gastrointestinal procedures, they are not the most likely cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis 1 month after surgery.
*Alpha hemolytic, optochin-sensitive diplococci*
- This describes **Streptococcus pneumoniae**, a common cause of pneumonia, meningitis, and otitis media.
- While it can cause endocarditis, it is less common for prosthetic valve endocarditis in this setting and would typically present with more prominent respiratory symptoms.
Question 227: A 28-year-old man comes to the physician for a pre-employment examination. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. A screening blood test is performed in which peptides are added to the sample to stimulate in vitro production of interferon-gamma, which is then measured using an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. This test is most likely to be helpful in diagnosing infection with which of the following pathogens?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Correct Answer)
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Human immunodeficiency virus
D. Hepatitis B virus
E. Legionella pneumophila
Explanation: ***Mycobacterium tuberculosis***
- The described test, an **interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA)**, specifically measures immune response to *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* antigens.
- IGRAs are used to diagnose **latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI)** by detecting T-cell mediated immunity to the bacteria.
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- This bacterium causes a variety of infections, but its diagnosis primarily relies on **bacterial culture** and **antigen detection**, not interferon-gamma release assays.
- *Staphylococcus aureus* is a common **bacterial pathogen** with different diagnostic approaches.
*Human immunodeficiency virus*
- **HIV infection** is diagnosed by detecting anti-HIV antibodies, HIV RNA, or p24 antigen through tests like **ELISA** and **Western blot**, not IGRA.
- The virus primarily targets **CD4+ T cells**, leading to immunodeficiency.
*Hepatitis B virus*
- **HBV infection** is diagnosed by detecting viral **antigens (HBsAg, HBeAg)** and **antibodies (anti-HBs, anti-HBc)** in the blood.
- It is a **DNA virus** causing hepatitis.
*Legionella pneumophila*
- **Legionnaire's disease**, caused by *Legionella pneumophila*, is typically diagnosed via **urine antigen testing**, **sputum culture**, or **PCR**.
- This bacterium is primarily associated with **respiratory tract infections**.
Question 228: A 27-year-old man who recently emigrated as a refugee from Somalia presents with fever, weight loss, fatigue, and exertional chest pain. He says his symptoms began 3 weeks ago and that his appetite has decreased and he has lost 3 kg (6.6 lb) in the last 3 weeks. He denies any history of cardiac disease. His past medical history is unremarkable. The patient admits that he has always lived in poor hygienic conditions in overcrowded quarters and in close contact with cats. His vital signs include: blood pressure 120/60 mm Hg, pulse 90/min, and temperature 38.0°C (100.4°F). Physical examination reveals generalized pallor. A cardiac examination reveals an early diastolic murmur loudest at the left third intercostal space. Abdominal examination reveals a tender and mildly enlarged spleen. Prominent axillary lymphadenopathy is noted. Laboratory investigations reveal a WBC count of 14,500/μL with 5% bands and 93% polymorphonuclear cells. An echocardiogram reveals a 5-mm vegetation on the aortic valve with moderate regurgitation. Three sets of blood cultures are taken over 24 hours followed by empiric antibiotic therapy with gentamicin and vancomycin. The blood cultures show no growth after 5 days. Following a week of empiric therapy, the patient continues to deteriorate. Which of the following would most likely confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
A. Epstein-Barr virus heterophile antibody
B. Peripheral blood smear
C. Q fever serology
D. Bartonella serology (Correct Answer)
E. HIV polymerase chain reaction
Explanation: **Bartonella serology**
- The patient's history of **poor hygiene**, **cat exposure**, culture-negative endocarditis with **aortic valve vegetation**, and **axillary lymphadenopathy** are highly suggestive of **Bartonella endocarditis**.
- **Bartonella henselae**, the causative agent of **cat scratch disease**, can cause indolent, culture-negative endocarditis, and serology is a key diagnostic tool.
*Epstein-Barr virus heterophile antibody*
- This test is primarily used to diagnose **infectious mononucleosis**, which typically presents with **pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy**, and **fatigue**.
- While fatigue and lymphadenopathy are present, the patient's **fever, weight loss, exertional chest pain**, and **endocarditis** are not typical features of mononucleosis.
*Peripheral blood smear*
- A peripheral blood smear is used to identify **hematological abnormalities** like **anemia, leukemia**, or **parasitic infections** (e.g., malaria).
- While **generalized pallor** suggests anemia, it would not directly confirm the cause of the **culture-negative endocarditis** or explain the specific constellation of symptoms.
*Q fever serology*
- **Q fever**, caused by **Coxiella burnetii**, can cause **culture-negative endocarditis**, particularly in patients with pre-existing valvular disease.
- However, the strong history of **cat exposure** and **axillary lymphadenopathy** in this case makes **Bartonella** a more probable diagnosis given the available information.
*HIV polymerase chain reaction*
- **HIV infection** can lead to various opportunistic infections and systemic symptoms like **weight loss, fever**, and **lymphadenopathy**.
- While HIV can predispose to endocarditis, the specific clinical picture with **cat exposure** and **culture-negative endocarditis** points more directly to **Bartonella infection** rather than primary HIV as the cause of the endocarditis.
Question 229: A 39-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with fever, cough, and shortness of breath. She reports developing flu-like symptoms 7 days ago but progressively worsened to the point where she experiences dyspnea on exertion. Her cough is accompanied by a mild amount of yellow sputum. Past medical history is notable for a previous admission to the hospital for pneumonia 4 months ago and an admission for bacteremia 6 weeks ago. She additionally has a history of IV heroin abuse, but her last use of heroin was 3 years ago. Temperature is 101.2°F (38.4°C), blood pressure is 104/70 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination demonstrates coarse upper airway breath sounds over the right lower lung field. A faint 1/6 non-radiating systolic flow murmur is auscultated at the first right intercostal space. Abdominal examination is significant for moderate splenomegaly. Tenderness of the wrists and fingers is elicited on palpation, and range of motion is restricted. The patient comments that her range of motion and pain usually improve as the day goes on. Which of the following laboratory abnormalities is most likely to be found in this patient?
A. Positive HIV serology
B. Flow cytometry positive for CD11c and CD2
C. Decreased anion gap
D. Leukocytosis with left-shift (Correct Answer)
E. Neutropenia
Explanation: ***Leukocytosis with left-shift***
- The patient presents with **fever, cough, shortness of breath, mild yellow sputum, tachycardia, and a history of recurrent infections (pneumonia, bacteremia)**. These symptoms are highly suggestive of a severe ongoing bacterial infection, which typically causes an increase in **white blood cell count (leukocytosis)** and an elevated proportion of immature neutrophils (**left shift**).
- The presence of **splenomegaly**, a **systolic flow murmur**, and **tenderness in the joints** (which improves with activity, possibly indicating inflammation) further supports a systemic inflammatory response, likely due to a bacterial process such as **endocarditis** (suggested by the murmur and IV drug use history) or a severe pneumonia.
*Positive HIV serology*
- While a history of **IV heroin abuse** is a risk factor for HIV, the patient's current presentation is more acutely indicative of a severe bacterial infection rather than directly pointing to HIV as the most likely immediate laboratory finding. Other infections could be the cause of her recurrent pneumonia admissions.
- HIV infection would lead to **immunosuppression**, potentially explaining recurrent infections, but does not directly cause the acute inflammatory picture of **leukocytosis and left shift** as the primary lab abnormality in the context of her current symptoms.
*Flow cytometry positive for CD11c and CD2*
- This finding is characteristic of certain **lymphoproliferative disorders**, such as **hairy cell leukemia (CD11c)** or **T-cell lymphomas (CD2)**.
- The patient's presentation with **acute febrile illness, respiratory symptoms, and signs of systemic inflammation** is inconsistent with the typical acute presentation of these hematologic malignancies.
*Decreased anion gap*
- A **decreased anion gap** is rare and usually indicates conditions like **hypoalbuminemia**, multiple myeloma (due to increased unmeasured cations such as IgG paraprotein), or bromide intoxication.
- It is not typically associated with acute bacterial infections or the inflammatory response described in this patient.
*Neutropenia*
- **Neutropenia** (a decrease in neutrophils) would make the patient highly susceptible to infections, but her current presentation with **fever, severe respiratory symptoms, and signs of systemic inflammation** strongly points towards an active bacterial infection where the body is mounting a robust immune response, usually characterized by an *increase* in neutrophils.
- While severe overwhelming infections can sometimes lead to **neutropenia** due to bone marrow exhaustion, **leukocytosis with left shift** is a more common and earlier response to acute bacterial infection.
Question 230: A 10-month-old boy is referred to the hospital because of suspected severe pneumonia. During the first month of his life, he had developed upper airway infections, bronchitis, and diarrhea. He has received all the immunizations according to his age. He failed to thrive since the age of 3 months. A month ago, he had a severe lung infection with cough, dyspnea, and diarrhea, and was unresponsive to an empiric oral macrolide. Upon admission to his local hospital, the patient has mild respiratory distress and crackles on auscultation. The temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F), and the oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. The quantitative immunoglobulin tests show increased IgG, IgM, and IgA. The peripheral blood smear shows leukocytosis and normochromic normocytic anemia. The chloride sweat test and tuberculin test are negative. The chest X-ray reveals bilateral pneumonia. The bronchoalveolar lavage and gram stain report gram-negative bacteria with a growth of Burkholderia cepacia on culture. The laboratory results on admission are as follows:
Leukocytes 36,600/mm3
Neutrophils 80%
Lymphocytes 16%
Eosinophils 1%
Monocytes 2%
Hemoglobin 7.6 g/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
BUN 15 mg/dL
Which of the following defects of neutrophil function is most likely responsible?
A. Phagocytosis defect
B. Absent respiratory burst (Correct Answer)
C. Leukocyte adhesion molecule deficiency
D. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
E. Lysosomal trafficking defect
Explanation: ***Absent respiratory burst***
- The recurrent infections, particularly with **catalase-positive organisms** like *Burkholderia cepacia*, in the presence of **leukocytosis** and **hypergammaglobulinemia**, strongly point to **chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)**. CGD is characterized by an absent respiratory burst, essential for killing ingested microbes.
- Patients with CGD cannot produce reactive oxygen species (ROS) due to defects in **NADPH oxidase**, leading to impaired killing of certain bacteria and fungi.
*Phagocytosis defect*
- While phagocytosis is crucial for immune defense, a primary defect in phagocytosis itself is less likely given the patient's presentation with **leukocytosis** and **neutrophilia**, suggesting that neutrophils are present and can be recruited, but are ineffective in killing the pathogen.
- Conditions with primary phagocytosis defects generally present with different clinical features or would not specifically predispose to infections with *Burkholderia cepacia* in the context of an otherwise activated immune response (high Ig levels).
*Leukocyte adhesion molecule deficiency*
- This condition is characterized by **recurrent bacterial infections** and **impaired wound healing**, but a key finding is persistent **leukocytosis** with a **lack of pus formation** at infection sites and delayed umbilical cord separation.
- Absence of pus formation and delayed umbilical cord separation are not mentioned, and the primary failure here appears to be bacterial killing rather than migration to the infection site.
*X-linked agammaglobulinemia*
- This disorder is characterized by a **severe deficiency or absence of B cells** and immunoglobulins, making patients highly susceptible to bacterial infections, particularly encapsulated bacteria.
- The patient's **quantitative immunoglobulin tests show increased IgG, IgM, and IgA**, which directly contradicts the immunologic hallmark of X-linked agammaglobulinemia.
*Lysosomal trafficking defect*
- A lysosomal trafficking defect, such as in **Chédiak-Higashi syndrome**, causes **impaired lysosome-phagosome fusion**, leading to recurrent infections with **pyogenic bacteria**, partial oculocutaneous albinism, and neurological abnormalities.
- While infections are prominent, the specific pathogen *Burkholderia cepacia* and the complete clinical picture align more closely with a defect in the respiratory burst rather than lysosomal trafficking; albinism and neurological symptoms are also absent.