A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with headache, photophobia, vomiting without nausea, and fever, which have evolved over the last 12 hours. She was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus at 30 years of age and is on immunosuppressive therapy, which includes oral methylprednisolone. She has received vaccinations—meningococcal and pneumococcal vaccination, as well as BCG. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 125/70 mm Hg, heart rate 82/min, respiratory rate 15/min, and temperature 38.7°C (101.7°F). On examination, her GCS score is 15. Pulmonary, cardiac, and abdominal examinations are within normal limits. A neurologic examination does not reveal focal symptoms. Moderate neck stiffness and a positive Brudzinski’s sign are noted. Which of the following would you expect to note in a CSF sample?
Q182
A 51-year-old man comes to the physician for 2 months of intermittent low-grade fever, malaise, and joint pain. He has a history of recurrent dental abscesses requiring drainage but has otherwise been healthy. His temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F) and pulse is 112/min. Physical examination shows a new holosystolic murmur in the left midclavicular line that radiates to the axilla. There are linear reddish-brown lesions underneath the nail beds and tender violaceous nodules on the bilateral thenar eminences. Two sets of blood cultures grow Streptococcus mutans. A transthoracic echocardiogram shows moderate regurgitation of the mitral valve. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely directly involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's valvular condition?
Q183
5 days after receiving chemotherapy for ovarian cancer, a 74-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. She feels well and has no complaints. Her leukocyte count is 3,500/mm3 (11% neutrophils and 89% lymphocytes). This patient's profound granulocytopenia is most likely to predispose her to infection with which of the following organisms?
Q184
A 43-year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department two hours after sustaining a deep laceration to his left forearm by a piece of soiled and rusted sheet metal. His vital signs are stable, there is no active bleeding, his pain is well controlled, and a hand surgeon has been notified about damage to his forearm tendons. He does not recall receiving any vaccinations in the last 30 years and does not know if he was vaccinated as a child. What is the appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis?
Q185
A 22-year-old woman seeks evaluation at a local walk-in clinic for severe lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and painful intercourse for the last couple of weeks. Her last day of menstruation was 1 week ago, and since then the pain has worsened. She is an out-of-town college student engaged in an open relationship with a fellow classmate and another partner from her hometown. Additional concerns include painful micturition and a low-grade fever for the same duration. The physical examination reveals a heart rate of 120/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, and temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F). The pelvic examination shows an erythematous cervix with a mucopurulent exudate. The cervix bleeds when manipulated with a swab and is extremely tender with movement. Based on the clinical findings, which of the following agents is the most likely cause of her condition?
Q186
A 25-year-old woman presents to the ED with a diffuse, erythematous rash in the setting of nausea, vomiting, and fever for 2 days. Physical exam reveals a soaked tampon in her vagina. Blood cultures are negative. The likely cause of this patient's disease binds to which molecule on T cells?
Q187
A 65-year-old woman presents to your office after three days of fever and productive cough. She is taking Tylenol for her fever and her last dose was yesterday morning. She reports reddish brown sputum. She has a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia for which she takes lisinopril and a statin. She has never smoked and drinks 1-2 glasses of wine a week. She recently returned from Italy and denies having any sick contacts. On physical exam, her temperature is 102.2°F (39°C), blood pressure is 130/78 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 21/min, and pulse oximetry is 95% on room air. She has decreased breath sounds in the left lower lobe. Chest x-ray is shown. The causative organism would most likely show which of the following?
Q188
A 34-year-old woman with a seizure disorder comes to the physician because of fever, fatigue, and a productive cough with foul-smelling sputum for 2 weeks. Her temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F). Physical examination shows dullness to percussion over the right lung fields. An x-ray of the chest shows a cavitary infiltrate with an air-fluid level in the right lower lobe of the lung. Cultures of an aspirate of the infiltrate grow Peptostreptococcus and Prevotella species. Which of the following is the most likely predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
Q189
A 61-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of fever, chills, and headache. He frequently has headaches, for which he takes aspirin, but says that this headache is more intense. His wife claims that he has also not been responding right away to her. He has a 20-year history of hypertension and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. His current medications include metformin and lisinopril. He has received all recommended childhood vaccines. His temperature is 39°C (102.2F°), pulse is 100/min, and blood pressure is 150/80 mm Hg. He is lethargic but oriented to person, place, and time. Examination shows severe neck rigidity with limited active and passive range of motion. Blood cultures are obtained and a lumbar puncture is performed. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
Q190
A 10-year-old boy is brought to the pediatric clinic because of a sore throat of 1-week duration. He also has a cough and fever. He has pain when swallowing and sometimes water regurgitates from his nose when drinking. He was diagnosed with acute tonsillitis by his primary care physician 1 month ago, for which he received a week-long course of amoxicillin. His immunization status is unknown as he recently moved to the US from Asia. On examination, he is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. On inspection of his oral cavity, an edematous tongue with a grey-white membrane on the soft palate and tonsils is noted. The neck is diffusely swollen with bilateral tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the cause of this patient’s condition and could have been prevented through vaccinations in childhood?
Bacteria US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 181: A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with headache, photophobia, vomiting without nausea, and fever, which have evolved over the last 12 hours. She was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus at 30 years of age and is on immunosuppressive therapy, which includes oral methylprednisolone. She has received vaccinations—meningococcal and pneumococcal vaccination, as well as BCG. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 125/70 mm Hg, heart rate 82/min, respiratory rate 15/min, and temperature 38.7°C (101.7°F). On examination, her GCS score is 15. Pulmonary, cardiac, and abdominal examinations are within normal limits. A neurologic examination does not reveal focal symptoms. Moderate neck stiffness and a positive Brudzinski’s sign are noted. Which of the following would you expect to note in a CSF sample?
A. Haemophilus influenzae growth in the CSF culture
B. Formation of a spiderweb clot in the collected CSF
C. Listeria monocytogenes growth in the CSF culture (Correct Answer)
D. Decrease in CSF protein level
E. Lymphocytic pleocytosis
Explanation: ***Listeria monocytogenes growth in the CSF culture***
- Patients with **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** on **immunosuppressive therapy** (like methylprednisolone) are at increased risk for opportunistic infections, including **Listeria monocytogenes meningitis**.
- *Listeria* meningitis commonly presents with **fever**, **headache**, and **neck stiffness**, even in patients who have received typical meningitis vaccinations.
*Haemophilus influenzae growth is the CSF culture*
- While *Haemophilus influenzae* can cause meningitis, the patient's history of **meningococcal and pneumococcal vaccination** makes this less likely, and *Listeria* is a more common pathogen in immunosuppressed adults.
- The patient's age (32 years) also makes *Haemophilus influenzae* meningitis less common, as it primarily affects very young children or the elderly.
*Formation of a spiderweb clot in the collected CSF*
- A **spiderweb clot** in CSF is characteristic of **tuberculous meningitis**, which is typically a more chronic illness with a different clinical presentation (e.g., more insidious onset).
- Although immunosuppression can predispose to tuberculosis, the acute onset (12 hours) and specific clinical picture do not fit classic tuberculous meningitis.
*Decrease in CSF protein level*
- A **decrease in CSF protein level** is generally *not* expected in bacterial meningitis; instead, **elevated protein levels** are a hallmark due to increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier and bacterial proteins.
- Reduced CSF protein is a non-specific finding and not indicative of active bacterial infection.
*Lymphocytic pleocytosis*
- **Lymphocytic pleocytosis** is more characteristic of **viral meningitis** or certain chronic bacterial infections like **tuberculous meningitis** or **fungal meningitis**.
- **Bacterial meningitis**, especially from pathogens like *Listeria*, typically causes **neutrophilic pleocytosis**.
Question 182: A 51-year-old man comes to the physician for 2 months of intermittent low-grade fever, malaise, and joint pain. He has a history of recurrent dental abscesses requiring drainage but has otherwise been healthy. His temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F) and pulse is 112/min. Physical examination shows a new holosystolic murmur in the left midclavicular line that radiates to the axilla. There are linear reddish-brown lesions underneath the nail beds and tender violaceous nodules on the bilateral thenar eminences. Two sets of blood cultures grow Streptococcus mutans. A transthoracic echocardiogram shows moderate regurgitation of the mitral valve. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely directly involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's valvular condition?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Leaflet calcification and fibrosis
C. Antibody cross-reaction
D. Fibrin clot formation (Correct Answer)
E. Sterile platelet thrombi deposition
Explanation: ***Fibrin clot formation***
- This patient has **infective endocarditis**, characterized by **vegetations** on the heart valves. These vegetations are composed of platelets, fibrin, microorganisms, and inflammatory cells.
- The formation of these vegetations involves the deposition of **fibrin and platelets** on damaged endothelial surfaces, which then become a nidus for bacterial colonization, specifically *Streptococcus mutans* in this case.
*Coagulative necrosis*
- **Coagulative necrosis** is a type of cell death typically seen in ischemic conditions (e.g., myocardial infarction, renal infarcts) where the cell architecture is preserved for a period.
- It is not the primary mechanism for valvular damage and vegetation formation in **infective endocarditis**.
*Leaflet calcification and fibrosis*
- **Calcification and fibrosis** of valve leaflets are characteristic features of chronic degenerative valvular diseases, such as **aortic stenosis** in older age or chronic rheumatic heart disease.
- While chronic inflammation can lead to fibrosis, the acute pathophysiology of infective endocarditis is dominated by vegetation formation and destruction rather than primary calcification.
*Antibody cross-reaction*
- **Antibody cross-reaction** is the mechanism responsible for **rheumatic fever**, where antibodies against streptococcal M proteins cross-react with cardiac tissue antigens (molecular mimicry), leading to valvular damage.
- Although *Streptococcus* is involved, the signs and symptoms (new murmur, fever, splinter hemorrhages, Osler nodes, and positive blood cultures) are classic for **infective endocarditis**, not acute rheumatic fever.
*Sterile platelet thrombi deposition*
- **Sterile platelet thrombi deposition** occurs in **nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis (NBTE)**, also known as marantic endocarditis, often associated with hypercoagulable states or malignancy.
- While it involves platelet deposition, the key difference here is the presence of **positive blood cultures** with *Streptococcus mutans*, indicating an active infection, not a sterile process.
Question 183: 5 days after receiving chemotherapy for ovarian cancer, a 74-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. She feels well and has no complaints. Her leukocyte count is 3,500/mm3 (11% neutrophils and 89% lymphocytes). This patient's profound granulocytopenia is most likely to predispose her to infection with which of the following organisms?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Correct Answer)
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Candida albicans
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. Pneumocystis jirovecii
Explanation: ***Pseudomonas aeruginosa***
- Profound **granulocytopenia**, especially after chemotherapy, significantly increases the risk of gram-negative bacterial infections, with **Pseudomonas aeruginosa** being a common and severe pathogen due to its opportunistic nature.
- Granulocytes are crucial for phagocytosing and destroying bacteria, making their deficiency a key factor in susceptibility to aggressive bacterial infections.
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- While *S. aureus* can cause severe infections in immunocompromised individuals, it is more commonly associated with compromised **skin barriers** or indwelling devices, rather than profound granulocytopenia being the primary predisposing factor compared to gram-negative rod infections.
- Though it can cause life-threatening infections, **granulocytopenia** significantly elevates the risk for gram-negative bacteria over gram-positive cocci in the immediate post-chemotherapy period.
*Candida albicans*
- **Candida albicans** primarily causes opportunistic fungal infections, often in individuals with impaired **cell-mediated immunity** or prolonged broad-spectrum antibiotic use that disrupts normal flora.
- While granulocytopenia can increase susceptibility to fungal infections, the immediate risk for overwhelming bacterial infections, particularly gram-negatives like *Pseudomonas*, is generally higher in the acute phase of chemotherapy-induced neutropenia.
*Cytomegalovirus*
- **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** infection is a **viral opportunistic infection** seen in severely immunocompromised patients, particularly those with impaired **T-cell function**, such as transplant recipients or AIDS patients.
- While chemotherapy affects overall immunity, acute granulocytopenia is not the primary predisposing factor for CMV reactivation or infection compared to bacterial or fungal pathogens.
*Pneumocystis jirovecii*
- **Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia** is a classic opportunistic infection in patients with profound **defects in T-cell mediated immunity**, such as HIV/AIDS patients or those on specific immunosuppressants.
- Although general immunocompromise from chemotherapy can increase risk, **granulocytopenia** itself is not the most direct predisposing factor for *Pneumocystis* infection.
Question 184: A 43-year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department two hours after sustaining a deep laceration to his left forearm by a piece of soiled and rusted sheet metal. His vital signs are stable, there is no active bleeding, his pain is well controlled, and a hand surgeon has been notified about damage to his forearm tendons. He does not recall receiving any vaccinations in the last 30 years and does not know if he was vaccinated as a child. What is the appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis?
A. IV metronidazole only
B. Tetanus vaccine + immunoglobulin (Correct Answer)
C. Anthrax vaccine
D. Tetanus immunoglobulin only
E. Tetanus vaccine booster only
Explanation: ***Tetanus vaccine + immunoglobulin***
- For **contaminated wounds** in patients with uncertain or incomplete immunization histories, both **tetanus toxoid vaccine** and **tetanus immunoglobulin (TIG)** are indicated. The vaccine provides active immunity, while TIG offers immediate passive immunity.
- The patient's injury from soiled and rusted sheet metal, combined with his unknown vaccination status, places him at **high risk for tetanus** infection.
*IV metronidazole only*
- **Metronidazole** is an antibiotic effective against anaerobic bacteria but does not provide adequate **tetanus prophylaxis** on its own.
- It would not prevent tetanus or offer active immunity, which is crucial for long-term protection.
*Anthrax vaccine*
- **Anthrax vaccine** is used for protection against *Bacillus anthracis* and is not indicated for **wound prophylaxis** from a rusty metal injury.
- This vaccine is typically given to individuals with occupational exposure or in cases of bioterrorism.
*Tetanus immunoglobulin only*
- While **tetanus immunoglobulin** provides immediate passive immunity, it does not induce **active immunity** for future protection.
- It is crucial to also administer the **tetanus vaccine** to stimulate the patient's immune system to produce antibodies.
*Tetanus vaccine booster only*
- A **tetanus vaccine booster** is appropriate for patients with a known history of vaccination but who haven't received a booster within the last 5-10 years, depending on the wound type.
- In this case, the patient has an unknown vaccination history, making passive immunity with **TIG** also necessary.
Question 185: A 22-year-old woman seeks evaluation at a local walk-in clinic for severe lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and painful intercourse for the last couple of weeks. Her last day of menstruation was 1 week ago, and since then the pain has worsened. She is an out-of-town college student engaged in an open relationship with a fellow classmate and another partner from her hometown. Additional concerns include painful micturition and a low-grade fever for the same duration. The physical examination reveals a heart rate of 120/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, and temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F). The pelvic examination shows an erythematous cervix with a mucopurulent exudate. The cervix bleeds when manipulated with a swab and is extremely tender with movement. Based on the clinical findings, which of the following agents is the most likely cause of her condition?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis (Correct Answer)
B. Mycoplasma genitalium
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
Explanation: ***Chlamydia trachomatis***
- This patient presents with classic **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)** characterized by **severe lower abdominal pain**, **mucopurulent cervicitis**, **cervical motion tenderness**, and **fever**.
- *Chlamydia trachomatis* is the **most common causative organism** of PID, accounting for approximately 50% of cases.
- Her **high-risk sexual behavior** (multiple partners, open relationship) significantly increases STI risk.
- While both *Chlamydia* and *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* can cause severe PID with identical presentations, **statistical likelihood** makes *Chlamydia* the most likely single causative agent.
- Clinical presentation alone cannot reliably distinguish between these two organisms; **both require empiric coverage** in PID treatment.
*Neisseria gonorrhoeae*
- This is the **second most common** cause of PID (30-40% of cases) and frequently **co-exists** with *Chlamydia*.
- The clinical presentation described (fever, cervicitis, cervical motion tenderness) can occur with gonorrhea, but these features are **not specific** enough to distinguish it from chlamydial PID.
- When the question asks for "most likely" without specific diagnostic findings (Gram stain, culture), the **higher prevalence** of *Chlamydia* makes it the better answer.
*Mycoplasma genitalium*
- An **emerging pathogen** associated with cervicitis, urethritis, and PID.
- While it can cause symptoms similar to those described, it accounts for a **much smaller proportion** of PID cases compared to *Chlamydia* and *Neisseria*.
- Often presents with milder or chronic symptoms, though acute presentations can occur.
*Mycobacterium tuberculosis*
- **Genital tuberculosis** is rare in developed countries and typically presents with **chronic, insidious symptoms** such as infertility, menstrual irregularities, and chronic pelvic pain.
- Would **not** cause acute mucopurulent cervicitis with cervical friability.
- More common in endemic areas and immunocompromised patients.
*Streptococcus agalactiae*
- Group B Streptococcus is a common **vaginal colonizer** and causes infections primarily in **neonates** and **postpartum women**.
- **Not a typical pathogen** for acute PID in non-pregnant, sexually active young women.
- Does not commonly cause the mucopurulent cervicitis seen in this case.
Question 186: A 25-year-old woman presents to the ED with a diffuse, erythematous rash in the setting of nausea, vomiting, and fever for 2 days. Physical exam reveals a soaked tampon in her vagina. Blood cultures are negative. The likely cause of this patient's disease binds to which molecule on T cells?
A. Gamma chain of the IL-2 receptor
B. CD3
C. Variable beta portion of the T-cell receptor (Correct Answer)
D. Fas ligand
E. CD40 ligand
Explanation: ***Variable beta portion of the T-cell receptor***
- This patient's presentation with diffuse rash, fever, vomiting, and a retained tampon suggests **toxic shock syndrome (TSS)**, typically caused by toxins like TSST-1 from *Staphylococcus aureus*.
- **Superantigens** like TSST-1 bind directly to the **variable beta portion of the T-cell receptor (TCR Vβ)** and the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules, bypassing normal antigen presentation. This leads to massive, non-specific T-cell activation and cytokine storm.
*Gamma chain of the IL-2 receptor*
- The **gamma chain of the IL-2 receptor** is a common component of several cytokine receptors (IL-2, IL-4, IL-7, IL-9, IL-15, IL-21) and is crucial for T-cell proliferation and differentiation.
- While T-cells are activated in TSS and produce IL-2, the toxin does not directly bind to the IL-2 receptor to exert its primary effect.
*CD3*
- **CD3** is a multi-protein complex associated with the **T-cell receptor (TCR)** and is essential for signal transduction upon antigen binding.
- Superantigens do not directly bind to CD3; their primary binding sites are the TCR Vβ region and MHC class II.
*Fas ligand*
- **Fas ligand (FasL)** is a transmembrane protein on immune cells that binds to Fas (CD95) on target cells, inducing **apoptosis**.
- While apoptosis can occur in severe infections, superantigens primarily cause massive T-cell activation, not direct binding to FasL.
*CD40 ligand*
- **CD40 ligand (CD40L)**, found on activated T-cells, interacts with CD40 on B-cells and other antigen-presenting cells to provide co-stimulation necessary for B-cell activation, class switching, and memory cell formation.
- Superantigens do not directly bind to CD40L; their mechanism involves non-specific T-cell activation, which can indirectly affect B-cell responses.
Question 187: A 65-year-old woman presents to your office after three days of fever and productive cough. She is taking Tylenol for her fever and her last dose was yesterday morning. She reports reddish brown sputum. She has a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia for which she takes lisinopril and a statin. She has never smoked and drinks 1-2 glasses of wine a week. She recently returned from Italy and denies having any sick contacts. On physical exam, her temperature is 102.2°F (39°C), blood pressure is 130/78 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 21/min, and pulse oximetry is 95% on room air. She has decreased breath sounds in the left lower lobe. Chest x-ray is shown. The causative organism would most likely show which of the following?
A. Beta hemolysis
B. Novobiocin sensitivity
C. Bacitracin sensitivity
D. Gamma hemolysis
E. Optochin sensitivity (S. pneumoniae) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Optochin sensitivity (S. pneumoniae)***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, productive cough with **reddish-brown sputum**, left lower lobe crackles, and chest X-ray findings) are highly suggestive of **pneumococcal pneumonia**.
- **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** is definitively identified via **optochin sensitivity** (it is sensitive) and alpha-hemolysis on blood agar.
*Beta hemolysis*
- **Beta-hemolysis** (complete lysis of red blood cells around bacterial colonies) is characteristic of organisms like _Streptococcus pyogenes_ (Group A Strep) or _Staphylococcus aureus_, which are less likely causes of this particular presentation of pneumonia.
- While some strains of _S. pneumoniae_ can show atypical hemolysis, it's primarily an alpha-hemolytic organism.
*Novobiocin sensitivity*
- **Novobiocin sensitivity** is a test used primarily to differentiate coagulase-negative staphylococci, specifically to distinguish **_Staphylococcus saprophyticus_** (resistant) from other species like _S. epidermidis_ (sensitive).
- This test is not relevant for identifying the common bacterial causes of community-acquired pneumonia.
*Bacitracin sensitivity*
- **Bacitracin sensitivity** is used to presumptively identify **_Streptococcus pyogenes_** (Group A Strep), which is sensitive to bacitracin.
- While _S. pyogenes_ can cause pneumonia, the clinical presentation with reddish-brown sputum is more classic for pneumococcal pneumonia.
*Gamma hemolysis*
- **Gamma hemolysis** indicates no hemolysis on blood agar. This is characteristic of organisms like **_Enterococcus faecalis_** or _Staphylococcus epidermidis_.
- These organisms are not typical primary causes of community-acquired bacterial pneumonia, especially with the described sputum.
Question 188: A 34-year-old woman with a seizure disorder comes to the physician because of fever, fatigue, and a productive cough with foul-smelling sputum for 2 weeks. Her temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F). Physical examination shows dullness to percussion over the right lung fields. An x-ray of the chest shows a cavitary infiltrate with an air-fluid level in the right lower lobe of the lung. Cultures of an aspirate of the infiltrate grow Peptostreptococcus and Prevotella species. Which of the following is the most likely predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
A. Periodontal infection (Correct Answer)
B. Recent hospitalization
C. Crowded housing situation
D. Contaminated air conditioning system
E. Intravenous drug use
Explanation: ***Periodontal infection***
- The presence of **Peptostreptococcus** and **Prevotella species** (anaerobic bacteria) in a lung abscess is highly suggestive of aspiration of oral flora, often linked to poor dental hygiene or **periodontal disease**.
- The patient's **seizure disorder** increases the risk for aspiration events during which oral contents, including these anaerobic bacteria, can be inhaled into the lungs.
*Recent hospitalization*
- While hospitalization can expose patients to nosocomial infections, it is less likely to specifically predispose to a lung abscess caused by **oral anaerobes** unless associated with other risk factors like aspiration.
- Common hospital-acquired pneumonias are caused by organisms like *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* or *Staphylococcus aureus*, not typically the anaerobic flora found here.
*Crowded housing situation*
- A crowded housing situation is a risk factor for droplet-borne infections such as tuberculosis or influenza, but not typically for a **lung abscess** caused by **anaerobic bacteria** unique to the oral cavity.
- This environmental factor does not directly explain the specific microbiology or the cavitary lesion.
*Contaminated air conditioning system*
- Contaminated air conditioning systems are most notoriously associated with **Legionnaires' disease**, caused by *Legionella pneumophila*.
- This bacterium does not cause lung abscesses with anaerobic flora like *Peptostreptococcus* or *Prevotella*, and the clinical presentation would be different.
*Intravenous drug use*
- Intravenous drug use is a major risk factor for **septic emboli** leading to lung abscesses, often caused by **Staphylococcus aureus** and typically presenting as multiple peripheral lesions.
- This patient's specific microbiology (oral anaerobes) and the single cavitating lesion are not characteristic of drug-use related septic emboli.
Question 189: A 61-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of fever, chills, and headache. He frequently has headaches, for which he takes aspirin, but says that this headache is more intense. His wife claims that he has also not been responding right away to her. He has a 20-year history of hypertension and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. His current medications include metformin and lisinopril. He has received all recommended childhood vaccines. His temperature is 39°C (102.2F°), pulse is 100/min, and blood pressure is 150/80 mm Hg. He is lethargic but oriented to person, place, and time. Examination shows severe neck rigidity with limited active and passive range of motion. Blood cultures are obtained and a lumbar puncture is performed. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae (Correct Answer)
E. Neisseria meningitidis
Explanation: ***Streptococcus pneumoniae***
- This patient presents with classic symptoms of **bacterial meningitis** (fever, severe headache, neck rigidity, altered mental status) and is in an older age group with comorbidities (diabetes, hypertension).
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* is the **most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults**, especially in those over 60 years old or with underlying medical conditions, despite prior vaccinations, as vaccine efficacy can wane or cover specific serotypes.
*Streptococcus agalactiae*
- *Streptococcus agalactiae* (**Group B Streptococcus**) is primarily known as a cause of **neonatal meningitis** and sepsis.
- While it can cause disease in immunocompromised adults, it is a less common cause of meningitis in a 61-year-old with this specific presentation compared to *S. pneumoniae*.
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- *Staphylococcus aureus* meningitis typically occurs in the setting of **neurosurgery**, **trauma with dural breach**, or **endocarditis** with septic emboli, none of which are suggested here.
- While possible, it is not as common a cause of community-acquired bacterial meningitis in this demographic as *S. pneumoniae*.
*Escherichia coli*
- *Escherichia coli* is a frequent cause of meningitis in **neonates** and sometimes in the **elderly with compromised immune systems** or following urinary tract infections.
- While the patient is elderly and has diabetes, *S. pneumoniae* is a more likely cause given the general presentation of community-acquired meningitis in this age group.
*Neisseria meningitidis*
- *Neisseria meningitidis* meningitis is common in **children and young adults**, often presenting with a **petechial or purpuric rash**, which is not described in this patient.
- While this patient received childhood vaccines, the typical age group for meningococcal disease makes *S. pneumoniae* a more probable pathogen for his current presentation.
Question 190: A 10-year-old boy is brought to the pediatric clinic because of a sore throat of 1-week duration. He also has a cough and fever. He has pain when swallowing and sometimes water regurgitates from his nose when drinking. He was diagnosed with acute tonsillitis by his primary care physician 1 month ago, for which he received a week-long course of amoxicillin. His immunization status is unknown as he recently moved to the US from Asia. On examination, he is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. On inspection of his oral cavity, an edematous tongue with a grey-white membrane on the soft palate and tonsils is noted. The neck is diffusely swollen with bilateral tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the cause of this patient’s condition and could have been prevented through vaccinations in childhood?
A. Candida albicans
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae (Correct Answer)
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Haemophilus influenzae b
E. Epstein Barr virus
Explanation: ***Corynebacterium diphtheriae***
- The presence of an **edematous tongue** with a **grey-white membrane** on the soft palate and tonsils, along with sore throat, fever, and difficulty swallowing (suggesting **palatal paralysis** secondary to diphtheria toxin), is highly characteristic of **diphtheria**.
- Diphtheria is caused by **_Corynebacterium diphtheriae_** and is preventable by childhood vaccination (the DTaP vaccine).
*Candida albicans*
- **_Candida albicans_** causes **oral thrush** (candidiasis), which presents with white plaques on the oral mucosa and tongue, particularly in immunocompromised individuals or after antibiotic use.
- However, these plaques are **easily removable** (revealing red, inflamed mucosa underneath), unlike the **firmly adherent grey-white pseudomembrane** of diphtheria; there is **no vaccine** against _Candida_.
*Streptococcus pyogenes*
- **_Streptococcus pyogenes_** causes **streptococcal pharyngitis** (strep throat), which typically presents with a sore throat, fever, and sometimes exudates on the tonsils, but it does **not form a pseudomembrane** with these specific characteristics (grey-white, firmly adherent).
- While pharyngitis caused by _Streptococcus pyogenes_ can lead to complications, there is **no vaccine** against it.
*Haemophilus influenzae b*
- Prior to vaccination, **_Haemophilus influenzae_ type b (Hib)** was a major cause of bacterial meningitis, epiglottitis, and other invasive infections in children.
- While it can cause respiratory infections, the classic presentation of **diphtheria with a pseudomembrane** and palatal paralysis is not typical for Hib infection; the Hib vaccine primarily targets invasive diseases.
*Epstein Barr virus*
- **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** causes **infectious mononucleosis**, which can present with a sore throat, fever, fatigue, and lymphadenopathy, sometimes with exudates on the tonsils.
- However, it **does not typically form a firmly adherent grey-white pseudomembrane** with associated airway compromise or palatal paralysis; there is currently **no vaccine** for EBV.