A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a fever and fatigue. He states that he has not felt well since he returned from a hiking trip in Alabama. He is generally healthy and has no other medical conditions. His temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 127/85 mmHg, pulse is 108/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam including a full dermatologic inspection is unremarkable. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 13 g/dL
Hematocrit: 39%
Leukocyte count: 2,200/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 77,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 19 mg/dL
Glucose: 98 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.3 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
AST: 92 U/L
ALT: 100 U/L
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q142
A 42-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever and severe back pain. The fever is high-grade, continuous, without chills and rigors. The back pain is severe, localized to the thoracic region, and aggravated by deep breathing. The patient tried taking ibuprofen with little improvement. Past medical history is significant for essential hypertension, dyslipidemia, hyperuricemia, and bronchial asthma. Current medicines include allopurinol, amlodipine, atorvastatin, clopidogrel, montelukast, and a corticosteroid inhaler. The patient reports a 25-pack-year smoking history and drinks alcohol only socially. His vital signs include: blood pressure 152/94 mm Hg, pulse 101/min, temperature 39.5°C (103.1°F). BMI 36.8 kg/m2. On physical examination, the patient is alert and oriented. Multiple injection marks are visible around the left-sided cubital fossa and hand veins. The neck is supple on head flexion. Point tenderness is present in the thoracic region at the midline. Motor and sensory examinations are unremarkable with normal deep tendon reflexes. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 14.5 mg/dL
White blood cell 24,500/mm3
Platelets 480,000/mm3
BUN 28 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
ESR 45 mm/hr
C-reactive protein 84 mg/dL
Sodium 144 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Calcium 9.7 mEq/L
A contrast MRI of the spine reveals a peripherally enhancing dorsal epidural process compressing the thecal sac and causing a mild leftwards displacement. Which of the following is the most likely risk factor for this patient’s condition?
Q143
A 24-year-old man presents with a painless genital ulcer for the past 2 weeks. He reports that he recently has been having unprotected sex with multiple partners. Past medical history is unremarkable. On physical examination, a single ulcer is present on the dorsal shaft of the penis which is circumscribed, indurated, and partially healed. There is moderate inguinal lymphadenopathy but no buboes. Which of the following tests would confirm the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q144
A 1-year-old girl is brought to the physician for a well-child examination. She has no history of serious illness. She receives a vaccine in which a polysaccharide is conjugated to a carrier protein. Which of the following pathogens is the most likely target of this vaccine?
Q145
A 10-year-old girl presents to your office with a fever and rash. Her mother first noticed the rash 2 days ago after a camping trip. The rash began on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her palms and the soles of her feet. This morning, she was feeling unwell and complaining of a headache. She had a fever of 102°F (39°C) prompting her mother to bring her to your office. She is otherwise healthy and does not take any medications. Her medical history is significant for a broken arm at age 8. On physical exam her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. You notice a petechial rash on the palms, soles, ankles, and wrists. Which of the following findings would confirm the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q146
A 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of abdominal cramping, vomiting, and watery diarrhea for the past 4 hours. One day ago, she went to a seafood restaurant with her family to celebrate her birthday. Three of the attendees have developed similar symptoms. The patient appears lethargic. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F). Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for this patient's current symptoms?
Q147
A child is brought into the emergency room by her mother. Her mother states that the 7-year-old child was playing with their dog, who is up to date on his vaccinations. When the dog started playing more aggressively, the child suffered a bite on the hand with two puncture wounds from the dog's canines. The child is up-to-date on her vaccinations and has no medical history. Her vitals are within normal limits. If this bite becomes infected, what is the most likely organism to be the cause of infection?
Q148
A 25-year-old G1P0 female of Middle Eastern descent gives birth to a male infant at 38 weeks' gestation. The child is in the 15th percentile for both height and weight. Over the course of the first six months of the child's life, he develops multiple severe skin and mucosal infections characterized by dramatically elevated white blood cell counts. The patient also demonstrates mental retardation soon after birth. A thorough hematologic analysis via flow cytometry reveals that the child's neutrophils lack Sialyl-Lewis X. Which of the following processes is likely deficient in this patient?
Q149
A 12-year-old boy presents to the emergency room with difficulty breathing after several days of severe sore throat. Further history reveals that his family immigrated recently from Eastern Europe and he has never previously seen a doctor. Physical exam shows cervical lymphadenopathy with extensive neck edema as well as the finding shown in the image provided. You suspect a bacteria that causes the disease by producing an AB type exotoxin. Which of the following is the proper medium to culture the most likely cause of this infection?
Q150
A previously healthy 46-year-old woman comes to the physician with a one-week history of productive cough and fatigue. Two weeks ago, she had fever, nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and myalgias that resolved with supportive care. She has not traveled out of the United States. Pulmonary examination shows dullness to percussion and increased fremitus at the right middle lobe. An x-ray of the chest is shown. A sputum sample is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Bacteria US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 141: A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a fever and fatigue. He states that he has not felt well since he returned from a hiking trip in Alabama. He is generally healthy and has no other medical conditions. His temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 127/85 mmHg, pulse is 108/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam including a full dermatologic inspection is unremarkable. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 13 g/dL
Hematocrit: 39%
Leukocyte count: 2,200/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 77,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 19 mg/dL
Glucose: 98 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.3 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
AST: 92 U/L
ALT: 100 U/L
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Lyme disease
B. Babesiosis
C. Influenza
D. Ehrlichiosis (Correct Answer)
E. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Explanation: ***Ehrlichiosis***
- This patient's symptoms (fever, fatigue), recent travel to an **endemic area** (Alabama), **leukopenia** (WBC 2,200/mm^3), **thrombocytopenia** (platelet 77,000/mm^3), and **elevated liver enzymes** (AST 92, ALT 100) are highly characteristic of ehrlichiosis, a **tick-borne disease**.
- The absence of a rash helps differentiate it from some other tick-borne illnesses.
*Lyme disease*
- While Lyme disease is also tick-borne, it typically presents with an **erythema migrans rash**, which is absent in this case.
- Lyme disease is less commonly associated with the **pronounced leukopenia** and **thrombocytopenia** seen here.
*Rocky Mountain spotted fever*
- Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) is characterized by a **maculopapular rash** that often starts on the ankles and wrists and spreads centrally, involving the palms and soles. This rash is absent in the patient.
- While RMSF can cause thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes, the **lack of rash is a key differentiator**.
*Babesiosis*
- Babesiosis is a tick-borne parasitic infection that causes **hemolytic anemia**, which is not clearly indicated by the patient's hemoglobin and hematocrit, and typically results in severe fatigue and sometimes splenomegaly.
- This condition is often seen in immunocompromised individuals or those without a spleen, and the labs here are more consistent with ehrlichiosis than babesiosis.
*Influenza*
- Influenza presents with fever, fatigue, myalgia, and respiratory symptoms, but it does not cause **thrombocytopenia**, **leukopenia**, or **elevated liver enzymes** to the extent seen in this patient.
- The symptoms are more indicative of a **tick-borne illness** given the travel history and specific lab abnormalities.
Question 142: A 42-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever and severe back pain. The fever is high-grade, continuous, without chills and rigors. The back pain is severe, localized to the thoracic region, and aggravated by deep breathing. The patient tried taking ibuprofen with little improvement. Past medical history is significant for essential hypertension, dyslipidemia, hyperuricemia, and bronchial asthma. Current medicines include allopurinol, amlodipine, atorvastatin, clopidogrel, montelukast, and a corticosteroid inhaler. The patient reports a 25-pack-year smoking history and drinks alcohol only socially. His vital signs include: blood pressure 152/94 mm Hg, pulse 101/min, temperature 39.5°C (103.1°F). BMI 36.8 kg/m2. On physical examination, the patient is alert and oriented. Multiple injection marks are visible around the left-sided cubital fossa and hand veins. The neck is supple on head flexion. Point tenderness is present in the thoracic region at the midline. Motor and sensory examinations are unremarkable with normal deep tendon reflexes. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 14.5 mg/dL
White blood cell 24,500/mm3
Platelets 480,000/mm3
BUN 28 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
ESR 45 mm/hr
C-reactive protein 84 mg/dL
Sodium 144 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Calcium 9.7 mEq/L
A contrast MRI of the spine reveals a peripherally enhancing dorsal epidural process compressing the thecal sac and causing a mild leftwards displacement. Which of the following is the most likely risk factor for this patient’s condition?
A. Alcohol use
B. Increased BMI
C. Inhaled steroid use
D. Intravenous drug use (Correct Answer)
E. Smoking
Explanation: ***Intravenous drug use***
- The patient presents with **fever**, **severe back pain**, and an MRI showing a **peripherally enhancing dorsal epidural process** compressing the thecal sac, which is highly suggestive of a **spinal epidural abscess**.
- The presence of **multiple injection marks** around the cubital fossa and hand veins, along with elevated inflammatory markers (**WBC 24,500/mm3**, **ESR 45 mm/hr**, **CRP 84 mg/dL**), strongly indicates **intravenous drug use (IVDU)** as the most likely risk factor, as it introduces bacteria directly into the bloodstream, leading to hematogenous spread to the spine.
*Alcohol use*
- While alcohol use can weaken the immune system and contribute to various infections, it is **not a direct risk factor** for **spinal epidural abscesses** in the same way intravenous drug use is, which directly introduces pathogens into the bloodstream.
- The patient reports only **social alcohol use**, making it a less likely primary contributor to such a severe infection compared to the clear signs of IVDU.
*Increased BMI*
- **Obesity (BMI 36.8 kg/m2)** is a risk factor for many health issues, including chronic back pain and surgical complications, but it is **not a specific or direct risk factor** for developing a **spinal epidural abscess**.
- While obesity can be associated with a compromised immune system, there is no direct causal link between increased BMI and the hematogenous spread of infection leading to an epidural abscess.
*Inhaled steroid use*
- **Inhaled corticosteroids** used for asthma are associated with localized effects and have **minimal systemic immunosuppressive effects** compared to oral or injected steroids.
- Therefore, their use is **unlikely to significantly predispose** the patient to a severe systemic infection like a spinal epidural abscess.
*Smoking*
- **Smoking** is a well-known risk factor for various health problems, including respiratory infections and general immune compromise.
- However, similar to alcohol use and increased BMI, it is **not as direct or significant a risk factor** for a **spinal epidural abscess** as the direct introduction of bacteria into the bloodstream via intravenous drug use.
Question 143: A 24-year-old man presents with a painless genital ulcer for the past 2 weeks. He reports that he recently has been having unprotected sex with multiple partners. Past medical history is unremarkable. On physical examination, a single ulcer is present on the dorsal shaft of the penis which is circumscribed, indurated, and partially healed. There is moderate inguinal lymphadenopathy but no buboes. Which of the following tests would confirm the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Perform a darkfield microscopic examination of a swab from the chancre (Correct Answer)
B. Swab the chancre and perform a saline wet mount
C. Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test
D. Frei test
E. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
Explanation: ***Perform a darkfield microscopic examination of a swab from the chancre***
- This patient's presentation with a **painless, indurated genital ulcer** (chancre) and regional lymphadenopathy is highly suggestive of **primary syphilis**.
- **Darkfield microscopy** directly visualizes the spirochetes (**_Treponema pallidum_**) from the chancre, providing a definitive and rapid diagnosis.
*Swab the chancre and perform a saline wet mount*
- A **saline wet mount** is used to identify mobile organisms like **_Trichomonas vaginalis_** or clue cells suggestive of **bacterial vaginosis**, neither of which are associated with this type of ulcer.
- This test would not reveal the spirochetes responsible for syphilis and is not appropriate for diagnosing a genital ulcer.
*Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test*
- The **FTA-ABS test** is a **treponemal-specific serological test** used to confirm a syphilis diagnosis, particularly in later stages or when non-treponemal tests are reactive.
- While sensitive for syphilis, it's typically reactive later in the disease course and cannot directly visualize the bacteria from the ulcer, making darkfield microscopy a more immediate and direct diagnostic tool for primary syphilis.
*Frei test*
- The **Frei test** is an obsolete intradermal skin test used to diagnose **lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)**, which typically presents with a transient, unnoticed lesion followed by severe lymphadenopathy and buboes.
- It is not used for the diagnosis of syphilis and would not be helpful for this patient's presentation.
*Viral and rickettsial disease research laboratory (VDRL) test*
- The **VDRL test** is a **non-treponemal serological test** for syphilis that detects antibodies against cardiolipin, a lipid released from damaged host cells.
- While used for screening and monitoring treatment response, it can be **negative in early primary syphilis** (before seroconversion) and may not be positive at the time of presentation with a fresh chancre.
Question 144: A 1-year-old girl is brought to the physician for a well-child examination. She has no history of serious illness. She receives a vaccine in which a polysaccharide is conjugated to a carrier protein. Which of the following pathogens is the most likely target of this vaccine?
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Varicella zoster virus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae (Correct Answer)
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Clostridium tetani
Explanation: ***Streptococcus pneumoniae***
- This pathogen is a common cause of **pneumonia**, **otitis media**, and **meningitis** in young children. The **pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV)** targets *Streptococcus pneumoniae*'s polysaccharide capsule by conjugating it to a carrier protein.
- Conjugating the polysaccharide to a protein carrier allows for a **T-cell-dependent immune response**, which is crucial for eliciting a robust and long-lasting antibody response in infants and young children, whose immune systems are not yet mature enough to respond effectively to unconjugated polysaccharide antigens.
*Hepatitis A virus*
- The vaccine for **Hepatitis A virus** is an **inactivated vaccine** containing whole killed virus particles, not a polysaccharide conjugated to a carrier protein.
- It is typically given to children to prevent **Hepatitis A infection**, which causes liver inflammation.
*Varicella zoster virus*
- The **varicella vaccine** for **Varicella zoster virus** is a **live, attenuated vaccine**, meaning it contains a weakened form of the live virus.
- This vaccine aims to prevent **chickenpox** and is not a polysaccharide-protein conjugate vaccine.
*Bordetella pertussis*
- The vaccine for **Bordetella pertussis** (whooping cough) is part of the **DTaP vaccine** and is an **acellular vaccine**, containing purified components of the bacterium.
- These components are primarily **toxoids** (inactivated toxins) or other bacterial proteins, not polysaccharides.
*Clostridium tetani*
- The vaccine for **Clostridium tetani** is a **toxoid vaccine**, meaning it contains an inactivated form of the **tetanus toxin**.
- This is part of the **DTaP vaccine** and works by stimulating an immune response against the toxin, not bacterial polysaccharides.
Question 145: A 10-year-old girl presents to your office with a fever and rash. Her mother first noticed the rash 2 days ago after a camping trip. The rash began on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her palms and the soles of her feet. This morning, she was feeling unwell and complaining of a headache. She had a fever of 102°F (39°C) prompting her mother to bring her to your office. She is otherwise healthy and does not take any medications. Her medical history is significant for a broken arm at age 8. On physical exam her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. You notice a petechial rash on the palms, soles, ankles, and wrists. Which of the following findings would confirm the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Granulocytes with morulae in the cytoplasm
B. Cross-reactivity of serum with proteus antigens (Correct Answer)
C. Monocytes with morulae in the cytoplasm
D. Positive Borrelia burgdorferi antibodies
E. Positive fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS)
Explanation: ***Cross-reactivity of serum with proteus antigens***
- The patient's presentation (fever, rash starting on wrists/ankles and spreading to palms/soles, petechiae, headache, camping/tick exposure history) is **classic for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)**, caused by *Rickettsia rickettsii*.
- The **Weil-Felix test** detects antibodies that cross-react with *Proteus vulgaris* antigens (OX-19 and OX-2), and has been historically used to diagnose **rickettsial infections** including RMSF.
- While modern diagnosis relies on **immunofluorescence assays (IFA)** or **PCR**, the Weil-Felix test represents the classic serological finding. Due to low sensitivity and specificity, it has largely been replaced but remains a recognized diagnostic marker for RMSF.
- **Important**: RMSF requires **prompt empiric treatment with doxycycline** without waiting for confirmatory testing, as delay can be fatal.
*Granulocytes with morulae in the cytoplasm*
- The presence of **morulae** (mulberry-like clusters) within **granulocytes** is characteristic of **anaplasmosis**, caused by *Anaplasma phagocytophilum*.
- While anaplasmosis is also a **tick-borne illness** with fever and headache, the **rash is uncommon** and when present does **not have the characteristic centripetal distribution** (wrists/ankles → palms/soles) seen in RMSF.
- Morulae are **NOT seen in RMSF**, which involves endothelial cell infection.
*Positive Borrelia burgdorferi antibodies*
- *Borrelia burgdorferi* causes **Lyme disease**, which typically presents with **erythema migrans** (bull's-eye rash), fever, and later arthralgia or cardiac/neurologic complications.
- The rash in this case (petechial, starting on extremities and spreading to palms/soles) is **not consistent with erythema migrans**, which is an expanding erythematous patch with central clearing.
*Monocytes with morulae in the cytoplasm*
- The presence of morulae within the **cytoplasm of monocytes** is characteristic of **ehrlichiosis**, caused by *Ehrlichia chaffeensis*.
- Ehrlichiosis is also a **tick-borne illness** with similar symptoms (fever, headache), but **rash is less common** (about 30% of cases) and does not typically show the centripetal distribution characteristic of RMSF.
- Like anaplasmosis, morulae are **not seen in RMSF**.
*Positive fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS)*
- The **FTA-ABS test** is a specific confirmatory test for **syphilis**, caused by *Treponema pallidum*.
- Syphilis has a completely different presentation (painless chancre in primary, maculopapular rash including palms/soles in secondary) and is **sexually transmitted**, not tick-borne.
Question 146: A 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of abdominal cramping, vomiting, and watery diarrhea for the past 4 hours. One day ago, she went to a seafood restaurant with her family to celebrate her birthday. Three of the attendees have developed similar symptoms. The patient appears lethargic. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F). Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for this patient's current symptoms?
A. Vibrio parahaemolyticus (Correct Answer)
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Salmonella enterica
D. Campylobacter jejuni
E. Listeria monocytogenes
Explanation: ***Vibrio parahaemolyticus***
- This organism is commonly associated with the consumption of **raw or undercooked seafood** and causes **acute gastroenteritis** with vomiting, watery diarrhea, and abdominal cramps.
- The **24-hour incubation period** (symptoms began 4 hours ago after eating seafood 1 day ago) fits well with *V. parahaemolyticus*, which typically has an incubation of **12-24 hours** (range 4-96 hours).
- The involvement of multiple individuals who ate at the same seafood restaurant strongly points to a **foodborne infection** from contaminated seafood.
- The presence of fever (38.8°C) is consistent with *V. parahaemolyticus* gastroenteritis.
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- *S. aureus* causes food poisoning with a very **short incubation period (1-6 hours)** due to preformed enterotoxin, which does **not** match the 24-hour timeline in this case.
- While it can cause rapid-onset vomiting and diarrhea, it is more commonly associated with contaminated **dairy products, mayonnaise salads, or meats**, not typically seafood.
- Fever is uncommon in *S. aureus* enterotoxin-mediated food poisoning.
*Salmonella enterica*
- *Salmonella* infections typically have an incubation period of **6-72 hours** (often 12-36 hours) and could fit the timeline, but are more commonly associated with **poultry, eggs, or contaminated produce** rather than seafood as the primary source.
- While it causes fever, vomiting, and diarrhea, the **seafood exposure** makes *Vibrio parahaemolyticus* the more likely pathogen.
*Campylobacter jejuni*
- *Campylobacter jejuni* usually causes **inflammatory diarrhea** (often bloody) with an incubation period of **2-5 days**, which is longer than the 24-hour period in this case.
- It is commonly linked to **undercooked poultry or unpasteurized milk**, not typically seafood.
- The watery (non-bloody) diarrhea presentation also makes this less likely.
*Listeria monocytogenes*
- *Listeria monocytogenes* is associated with **deli meats, soft cheeses, and unpasteurized dairy products**, and has a much longer and highly variable incubation period **(1-70 days, median ~3 weeks)**.
- While it can cause gastroenteritis, its primary concern is severe invasive disease in immunocompromised individuals, pregnant women, and the elderly.
- The rapid 24-hour onset with seafood exposure does not fit *Listeria*.
Question 147: A child is brought into the emergency room by her mother. Her mother states that the 7-year-old child was playing with their dog, who is up to date on his vaccinations. When the dog started playing more aggressively, the child suffered a bite on the hand with two puncture wounds from the dog's canines. The child is up-to-date on her vaccinations and has no medical history. Her vitals are within normal limits. If this bite becomes infected, what is the most likely organism to be the cause of infection?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Fusobacterium
C. Pasteurella multocida (Correct Answer)
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation: ***Pasteurella multocida***
- This bacterium is a **common commensal** in the oral cavity of cats and dogs and is the **most frequent cause** of wound infections following animal bites.
- Infections with *Pasteurella multocida* typically present rapidly within **24 hours** with **erythema, swelling, tenderness, and purulent discharge** at the bite site.
*Clostridium tetani*
- This organism causes **tetanus**, characterized by **muscle spasms and lockjaw**, not focal wound infection, and is typically associated with penetrating injuries contaminated with soil.
- The child is stated to be **up-to-date on vaccinations**, making tetanus highly unlikely.
*Fusobacterium*
- *Fusobacterium* species are anaerobic bacteria often found in the oral cavity and can cause polymicrobial infections, but they are **not the primary or most likely organism** in dog bite infections.
- They are more commonly associated with **periodontal disease** and certain severe, invasive infections like Lemierre's syndrome.
*Clostridium perfringens*
- This bacterium is a significant cause of **gas gangrene** (clostridial myonecrosis), which is characterized by rapid tissue necrosis and gas production.
- While it can be associated with contaminated wounds, it is **not the most common pathogen** in dog bites and presents with a more severe, systemic picture.
*Pseudomonas aeruginosa*
- *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* is an opportunistic pathogen often associated with **water contamination**, **hospital-acquired infections**, or infections in immunocompromised individuals.
- It is **not a primary pathogen** in the oral flora of dogs and therefore uncommonly causes dog bite infections.
Question 148: A 25-year-old G1P0 female of Middle Eastern descent gives birth to a male infant at 38 weeks' gestation. The child is in the 15th percentile for both height and weight. Over the course of the first six months of the child's life, he develops multiple severe skin and mucosal infections characterized by dramatically elevated white blood cell counts. The patient also demonstrates mental retardation soon after birth. A thorough hematologic analysis via flow cytometry reveals that the child's neutrophils lack Sialyl-Lewis X. Which of the following processes is likely deficient in this patient?
A. Chemoattraction
B. Diapedesis
C. Transmigration through the extracellular matrix
D. Rolling (Correct Answer)
E. Tight adhesion
Explanation: ***Rolling***
- The absence of **Sialyl-Lewis X** on neutrophils impairs their ability to bind to **P-selectin** and **E-selectin** on endothelial cells, which is crucial for the initial rolling phase of leukocyte extravasation.
- This deficiency is characteristic of **Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency Type 2 (LAD2)**, also known as **congenital disorder of glycosylation IIc (CDGIIc)**, leading to recurrent infections and developmental delays due to impaired leukocyte trafficking to sites of infection.
*Chemoattraction*
- **Chemoattraction** involves leukocytes moving along a chemical gradient towards inflammatory signals, which occurs after initial rolling and adhesion.
- While essential for reaching the site of infection, the primary defect here is in the initial binding and rolling, rather than the ability to respond to chemokines once bound.
*Diapedesis*
- **Diapedesis**, or transmigration, is the process where leukocytes squeeze between endothelial cells into the tissue.
- This step occurs after stable adhesion, and while it would eventually be inhibited by preceding adhesion defects, it is not the primary process directly affected by the lack of Sialyl-Lewis X.
*Transmigration through the extracellular matrix*
- **Transmigration through the extracellular matrix (ECM)** is the final step where leukocytes move once they are in the tissue, navigating the ECM to reach the infectious agent.
- This process is dependent on successful extravasation and is distinct from the initial adhesion and rolling mechanisms affected by Sialyl-Lewis X deficiency.
*Tight adhesion*
- **Tight adhesion** involves firm binding between leukocyte integrins and endothelial cell adhesion molecules (e.g., ICAM-1) and occurs after rolling.
- Although LAD2 may indirectly affect tight adhesion by preventing sufficient rolling and subsequent integrin activation, the direct defect in Sialyl-Lewis X impacts the initial weak interactions (rolling) rather than the strong, stable adhesive bonds.
Question 149: A 12-year-old boy presents to the emergency room with difficulty breathing after several days of severe sore throat. Further history reveals that his family immigrated recently from Eastern Europe and he has never previously seen a doctor. Physical exam shows cervical lymphadenopathy with extensive neck edema as well as the finding shown in the image provided. You suspect a bacteria that causes the disease by producing an AB type exotoxin. Which of the following is the proper medium to culture the most likely cause of this infection?
A. Thayer-Martin Agar
B. Charcoal Yeast Agar
C. Tellurite Agar (Correct Answer)
D. Eaton's Agar
E. Bordet-Gengou Agar
Explanation: ***Tellurite Agar***
- The clinical picture (sore throat, neck edema, cervical lymphadenopathy, difficulty breathing, recent immigration from Eastern Europe, unvaccinated) is highly suggestive of **diphtheria**, caused by *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*.
- **Tellurite agar** (e.g., cysteine-tellurite blood agar or Tinsdale medium) is the selective medium used to isolate *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*, which forms characteristic **gray-black colonies** due to the reduction of tellurite.
*Thayer-Martin Agar*
- This is a selective medium primarily used for the isolation of **Neisseria gonorrhoeae** and **Neisseria meningitidis**.
- It contains antibiotics to inhibit the growth of other bacteria and fungi, which would not be appropriate for *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*.
*Charcoal Yeast Agar*
- **Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract (BCYE) agar** is the specific medium used for the isolation of **Legionella species**, particularly *Legionella pneumophila*.
- *Legionella* requires **L-cysteine** and **iron salts** for growth, which are provided in BCYE agar.
*Bordet-Gengou Agar*
- This medium is specifically designed for the isolation of **Bordetella pertussis**, the causative agent of **whooping cough**.
- It contains potato extract, glycerol, and blood, which are necessary for the fastidious *Bordetella pertussis* to grow.
*Eaton's Agar*
- **Eaton's agar** is a specialized liquid or semi-solid medium used for the cultivation of **Mycoplasma pneumoniae**.
- *Mycoplasma pneumoniae* is a common cause of **atypical pneumonia** and lacks a cell wall, making it difficult to culture on standard media.
Question 150: A previously healthy 46-year-old woman comes to the physician with a one-week history of productive cough and fatigue. Two weeks ago, she had fever, nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and myalgias that resolved with supportive care. She has not traveled out of the United States. Pulmonary examination shows dullness to percussion and increased fremitus at the right middle lobe. An x-ray of the chest is shown. A sputum sample is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Septate, acute-branching hyphae
B. Silver-staining, gram-negative bacilli
C. Encapsulated, gram-negative coccobacilli
D. Gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci
E. Gram-positive, alpha-hemolytic diplococci (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gram-positive, alpha-hemolytic diplococci***
- The patient's history of **viral illness** followed by a **productive cough** and signs of **lobar consolidation** (dullness to percussion, increased fremitus, and infiltrates on X-ray) is classic for **secondary bacterial pneumonia**.
- **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia following viral respiratory infections and exhibits these characteristic findings on Gram stain and culture.
- _S. pneumoniae_ appears as **gram-positive diplococci** (lancet-shaped pairs) and shows **alpha-hemolysis** (greenish discoloration) on blood agar.
*Septate, acute-branching hyphae*
- This describes **_Aspergillus_** species, which typically cause invasive fungal infections in **immunocompromised** individuals or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, not typical post-viral bacterial pneumonia.
- The clinical presentation and patient's immune status do not suggest a fungal infection.
*Silver-staining, gram-negative bacilli*
- This morphology points to organisms like **_Legionella pneumophila_**, which causes *atypical pneumonia* and requires silver stain for visualization.
- **_Legionella_** is typically associated with exposure to contaminated water sources (cooling towers, hot tubs) and would present with more systemic symptoms, which are not described here.
*Encapsulated, gram-negative coccobacilli*
- This description fits **_Haemophilus influenzae_**, which can cause community-acquired pneumonia, particularly in patients with COPD or in children.
- However, **_S. pneumoniae_** is more common in this demographic and clinical presentation, especially as a complication of viral respiratory infection.
*Gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci*
- This describes **_Staphylococcus aureus_**, which can cause severe post-influenza pneumonia, often presenting with necrotizing pneumonia, cavitation, or empyema.
- While _S. aureus_ is an important consideration after influenza, it typically causes more severe disease and is less common than _S. pneumoniae_ in otherwise healthy individuals with uncomplicated post-viral pneumonia.