A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department for bloody stools. The patient states that he has had bloody diarrhea for the past 3 days without improvement. He recently returned from a camping trip where he drank stream water and admits to eating undercooked meats which included beef, chicken, pork, and salmon. The patient's father died at age 40 due to colon cancer, and his mother died of breast cancer at the age of 52. The patient lives alone and drinks socially. The patient has unprotected sex with multiple male partners. His temperature is 98.3°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 107/58 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 9.2 g/dL
Hematocrit: 29%
Leukocyte count: 9,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 87,000/mm^3
Lactate dehydrogenase: 327 IU/L
Haptoglobin: 5 mg/dL
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 5.9 mEq/L
HCO3-: 19 mEq/L
BUN: 39 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
Q132
A 39-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of fever, chills, dyspnea, and a non-bloody productive cough. He was diagnosed with HIV infection 4 years ago and has been on highly active antiretroviral therapy since then. His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F). Examination shows crackles over the left lower lung base. His CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 520/mm3 (N ≥ 500). An x-ray of the chest shows an infiltrate in the left lower lobe. Sputum cultures grow colonies with a narrow zone of green hemolysis without clearing on blood agar. The most likely causal pathogen of this patient's condition produces which of the following virulence factors?
Q133
A 36-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of malaise and a painful, pruritic rash on his lower back and thighs. His temperature is 37.8°C (100°F). Physical examination shows the findings in the photograph. Skin scrapings from the thigh grow neutral colonies on MacConkey agar. The colony-producing bacteria are oxidase-positive. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for the patient's condition?
Q134
A 49-year-old male complains of abdominal discomfort that worsens following meals. A gastric biopsy reveals a 2 cm gastric ulcer, and immunohistochemical staining demonstrates the presence of a rod-shaped bacterium in the gastric mucosa. Which of the following is used by the infiltrating pathogen to neutralize gastric acidity?
Q135
A 35-year-old female presents to the emergency room complaining of diarrhea and dehydration. She has been experiencing severe watery diarrhea for the past 3 days. She reports that she has been unable to leave the bathroom for more than a few minutes at a time. The diarrhea is profuse and watery without visible blood or mucus. She recently returned from a volunteer trip to Yemen where she worked at an orphanage. Her past medical history is notable for psoriasis for which she takes sulfasalazine. The patient drinks socially and does not smoke. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 100/55 mmHg, pulse is 130/min, and respirations are 20/min. Mucous membranes are dry. Her eyes appear sunken. Capillary refill is 4 seconds. The patient is started on intravenous fluid resuscitation. Which of the following processes is capable of transmitting the genetic material for the toxin responsible for this patient's condition?
Q136
A 72-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of redness and swelling of her right leg and fever. She says the leg is very painful and the redness over it has become larger. She appears ill. Her temperature is 39.3°C (102.7°F), pulse is 103/min, and blood pressure is 138/90 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Examination shows an area of diffuse erythema and swelling over her anterior right lower leg; it is warm and tender to touch. Squeezing of the calf does not elicit tenderness. There is swelling of the right inguinal lymph nodes. Pedal pulses are palpable bilaterally. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
Q137
A 20-year-old woman presents to student health for a 7-day history of sinus congestion. She has also had fever, sore throat, and infectious gastroenteritis. Upon further questioning, she has had similar problems 2 or 3 times a year for as long as she can remember. These have included sinus infections, ear infections, and lung infections. At the clinic, her temperature is 38.6°C (101.4°F), heart rate is 70/min, blood pressure is 126/78 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical examination is notable for mucopurulent discharge from both nares and tenderness to palpation over her bilateral maxillae. Sputum gram stain shows gram-positive diplococci. Which of the following best describes the levels of immunoglobulins that would most likely be found upon testing this patient's serum?
Q138
A 6-month-old girl presents with recurring skin infections. Past medical history is significant for 3 episodes of acute otitis media since birth. The patient was born at 39 weeks via an uncomplicated, spontaneous transvaginal delivery, but there was delayed umbilical cord separation. She has met all developmental milestones. On physical examination, the skin around her mouth is inflamed and red. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this child’s clinical presentation?
Q139
A 46-year-old obese man comes to the emergency room because of paresthesias in his feet and a hypopigmented skin lesion on his knee that he first noticed 6 weeks ago. He has also had fever, fatigue, and malaise for the last week. He has a history of chronic autoimmune thyroiditis for which he takes levothyroxine. He immigrated from Indonesia 3 years ago to join his family in the United States. His temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F) and blood pressure is 122/84 mm Hg. Physical exam shows a well-defined hypopigmented skin lesion approximately 3 cm in diameter over the anterior aspect of the right knee. The area has no hair growth and remains dry although he is diaphoretic. There is diminished sensation to light touch and pinprick in the skin lesion when compared to surrounding skin. There is reduced light touch sensation in the big toes bilaterally. After obtaining a skin biopsy of the lesion to confirm the diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy?
Q140
A 41-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with a fever. She has had intermittent fevers accompanied by malaise, weakness, and mild shortness of breath for the past 2 weeks. Her past medical history is notable for recurrent bloody diarrhea for over 3 years. She underwent a flexible sigmoidoscopy several months ago which demonstrated contiguously granular and hyperemic rectal mucosa. She has a distant history of intravenous drug use but has been sober for the past 15 years. Her temperature is 100.8°F (38.2°C), blood pressure is 126/76 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 17/min. On exam, she appears lethargic but is able to answer questions appropriately. A new systolic II/VI murmur is heard on cardiac auscultation. Subungual hemorrhages are noted. Multiple blood cultures are drawn and results are pending. Which of the following pathogens is most strongly associated with this patient's condition?
Bacteria US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department for bloody stools. The patient states that he has had bloody diarrhea for the past 3 days without improvement. He recently returned from a camping trip where he drank stream water and admits to eating undercooked meats which included beef, chicken, pork, and salmon. The patient's father died at age 40 due to colon cancer, and his mother died of breast cancer at the age of 52. The patient lives alone and drinks socially. The patient has unprotected sex with multiple male partners. His temperature is 98.3°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 107/58 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 9.2 g/dL
Hematocrit: 29%
Leukocyte count: 9,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 87,000/mm^3
Lactate dehydrogenase: 327 IU/L
Haptoglobin: 5 mg/dL
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 5.9 mEq/L
HCO3-: 19 mEq/L
BUN: 39 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Colon cancer
E. Escherichia coli (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Escherichia coli***
- The patient presents with **bloody diarrhea**, acute **kidney injury (elevated BUN)**, **thrombocytopenia**, and **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia** (indicated by low hemoglobin, low haptoglobin, and elevated LDH), which are classic signs of **hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)**.
- HUS is most commonly caused by **Shiga toxin-producing *E. coli* (STEC)**, typically O157:H7, often acquired through consumption of **undercooked meat**.
*Entamoeba histolytica*
- This parasite causes **amoebic dysentery** (bloody diarrhea), but it typically does not lead to **hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)**.
- While it can be acquired through contaminated water, the constellation of hematologic and renal findings (thrombocytopenia, AKI, hemolysis) points away from *E. histolytica*.
*Campylobacter jejuni*
- *Campylobacter jejuni* is a common cause of **bloody diarrhea** and can be acquired from undercooked poultry.
- However, it is more commonly associated with **Guillain-Barré syndrome** and **reactive arthritis**, rather than HUS.
*Giardia lamblia*
- *Giardia* typically causes **non-bloody, watery diarrhea**, often with **steatorrhea**, and is associated with camping and drinking untreated stream water.
- It does not cause bloody diarrhea, thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, or acute kidney injury.
*Colon cancer*
- While colon cancer can cause **bloody stools** and the patient has a family history, his acute presentation with **severe, acute bloody diarrhea**, **thrombocytopenia**, and **renal injury** is not typical for the initial presentation of colon cancer.
- The findings are more indicative of an **acute infectious process** leading to HUS.
Question 132: A 39-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of fever, chills, dyspnea, and a non-bloody productive cough. He was diagnosed with HIV infection 4 years ago and has been on highly active antiretroviral therapy since then. His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F). Examination shows crackles over the left lower lung base. His CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 520/mm3 (N ≥ 500). An x-ray of the chest shows an infiltrate in the left lower lobe. Sputum cultures grow colonies with a narrow zone of green hemolysis without clearing on blood agar. The most likely causal pathogen of this patient's condition produces which of the following virulence factors?
A. Protein A
B. M protein
C. Polysaccharide capsule (Correct Answer)
D. Type III secretion system
E. Lipopolysaccharide
Explanation: ***Polysaccharide capsule***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, chills, dyspnea, productive cough, crackles, left lower lobe infiltrate) are consistent with **bacterial pneumonia**. The sputum culture showing colonies with a **narrow zone of green hemolysis (alpha-hemolysis)** without clearing on blood agar is characteristic of *Streptococcus pneumoniae*.
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* is encased in a **polysaccharide capsule**, which is its primary virulence factor. This capsule helps the bacteria evade phagocytosis by preventing the attachment of antibodies and complement proteins, allowing it to survive and proliferate in the host.
*Protein A*
- **Protein A** is a major virulence factor associated with *Staphylococcus aureus*, not *Streptococcus pneumoniae*.
- It binds to the Fc region of antibodies, particularly IgG, interfering with opsonization and phagocytosis.
*M protein*
- **M protein** is a key virulence factor found in *Streptococcus pyogenes* (Group A Streptococcus), which typically causes pharyngitis, scarlet fever, and rheumatic fever.
- While *Streptococcus pyogenes* also causes hemolysis, it exhibits **beta-hemolysis** (complete clearing) on blood agar, unlike the alpha-hemolysis seen in this patient's culture.
*Type III secretion system*
- **Type III secretion systems** are complex protein machines that inject bacterial effector proteins directly into host cells, commonly found in gram-negative bacteria such as *Salmonella*, *Shigella*, and *Pseudomonas*.
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* is a **gram-positive bacterium** and does not possess a Type III secretion system.
*Lipopolysaccharide*
- **Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)**, also known as **endotoxin**, is a major component of the outer membrane of **gram-negative bacteria**.
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* is a **gram-positive bacterium** and therefore lacks LPS.
Question 133: A 36-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of malaise and a painful, pruritic rash on his lower back and thighs. His temperature is 37.8°C (100°F). Physical examination shows the findings in the photograph. Skin scrapings from the thigh grow neutral colonies on MacConkey agar. The colony-producing bacteria are oxidase-positive. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for the patient's condition?
A. Swimming in pool (Correct Answer)
B. Skin-to-skin contact
C. Rose pruning
D. Unprotected sexual intercourse
E. Outdoor camping
Explanation: ***Swimming in pool***
- The description of a **painful, pruritic rash** on the lower back and thighs, growing **oxidase-positive, neutral colonies on MacConkey agar**, is highly suggestive of **hot tub folliculitis** caused by *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*.
- *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* thrives in **warm, moist environments** like inadequately chlorinated hot tubs and swimming pools, making swimming a major risk factor.
*Skin-to-skin contact*
- While various skin infections can spread via skin-to-skin contact, *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* folliculitis is predominantly linked to **water exposure** rather than direct person-to-person spread.
- Infections like impetigo or herpes simplex virus are more typically associated with this mode of transmission.
*Rose pruning*
- **Rose gardener's disease** (sporotrichosis) is caused by the fungus *Sporothrix schenckii*, which is introduced through skin trauma, often from handling thorny plants like roses.
- The clinical presentation and causative organism are distinct from the described bacterial folliculitis.
*Unprotected sexual intercourse*
- This is a risk factor for **sexually transmitted infections (STIs)**, which typically present with genital lesions, urethritis, cervicitis, or systemic symptoms, rather than generalized folliculitis on the back and thighs.
- Examples include syphilis, gonorrhea, or herpes simplex virus.
*Outdoor camping*
- Outdoor camping can increase exposure to various pathogens, such as those causing **Lyme disease** (from ticks) or **leptospirosis** (from contaminated water/soil).
- These conditions have distinct clinical presentations and are not characterized by *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* folliculitis from water exposure.
Question 134: A 49-year-old male complains of abdominal discomfort that worsens following meals. A gastric biopsy reveals a 2 cm gastric ulcer, and immunohistochemical staining demonstrates the presence of a rod-shaped bacterium in the gastric mucosa. Which of the following is used by the infiltrating pathogen to neutralize gastric acidity?
A. Mucinase
B. LT toxin
C. Flagella
D. Bismuth
E. Urease (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Urease***
- The presence of a rod-shaped bacterium in the gastric mucosa causing ulcers points to **Helicobacter pylori**.
- **H. pylori** produces **urease**, an enzyme that converts urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, creating a more alkaline environment around the bacterium, thus neutralizing gastric acid and allowing its survival.
*Mucinase*
- **Mucinase** is an enzyme produced by some bacteria that breaks down the protective mucus layer, contributing to mucosal damage.
- While contributing to pathogenesis, mucinase does not directly neutralize gastric acidity.
*LT toxin*
- **LT toxin** (heat-labile toxin) is primarily associated with **enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)** and causes watery diarrhea by increasing cAMP.
- This toxin is not produced by **H. pylori** and does not play a role in neutralizing gastric acid.
*Flagella*
- **Flagella** are **locomotor appendages** that allow **H. pylori** to move through the gastric mucus layer and colonize the gastric epithelium.
- While crucial for host colonization, flagella do not directly neutralize gastric acid.
*Bismuth*
- **Bismuth** is a component of some multi-drug regimens used to treat **H. pylori** infection, acting as an antimicrobial and mucosal protectant.
- It is not produced by the bacterium but is a medication given to the patient.
Question 135: A 35-year-old female presents to the emergency room complaining of diarrhea and dehydration. She has been experiencing severe watery diarrhea for the past 3 days. She reports that she has been unable to leave the bathroom for more than a few minutes at a time. The diarrhea is profuse and watery without visible blood or mucus. She recently returned from a volunteer trip to Yemen where she worked at an orphanage. Her past medical history is notable for psoriasis for which she takes sulfasalazine. The patient drinks socially and does not smoke. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 100/55 mmHg, pulse is 130/min, and respirations are 20/min. Mucous membranes are dry. Her eyes appear sunken. Capillary refill is 4 seconds. The patient is started on intravenous fluid resuscitation. Which of the following processes is capable of transmitting the genetic material for the toxin responsible for this patient's condition?
A. Transposition
B. Conjugation
C. Endospore formation
D. Transduction (Correct Answer)
E. Transformation
Explanation: ***Transduction***
- The patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of **cholera**, caused by *Vibrio cholerae*, which produces **cholera toxin**.
- The genes for cholera toxin are carried on a **bacteriophage (CTXφ)**, and their transfer between bacteria occurs via **transduction**.
*Transposition*
- **Transposition** involves the movement of **transposons ("jumping genes")** within a genome or between DNA molecules.
- While transposons can carry antimicrobial resistance genes or virulence factors, this mechanism is not typically associated with the transfer of the primary cholera toxin genes.
*Conjugation*
- **Conjugation** is the transfer of genetic material between bacteria through direct cell-to-cell contact, often involving a **pilus** and the transfer of **plasmids**.
- While *Vibrio cholerae* can engage in conjugation, the cholera toxin genes are predominantly acquired via specialized transduction with the CTXφ phage, not typically plasmid-mediated conjugation.
*Endospore formation*
- **Endospore formation** is a survival mechanism used by certain bacteria (e.g., *Clostridium*, *Bacillus*) to withstand harsh environmental conditions.
- It is not a mechanism for **horizontal gene transfer** or the transmission of toxin-encoding genetic material between bacteria.
*Transformation*
- **Transformation** is the uptake of **naked DNA** from the environment by a bacterial cell.
- While *Vibrio cholerae* can be naturally competent for transformation, the cholera toxin genes are primarily acquired through **phage-mediated transduction**, not free DNA uptake.
Question 136: A 72-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of redness and swelling of her right leg and fever. She says the leg is very painful and the redness over it has become larger. She appears ill. Her temperature is 39.3°C (102.7°F), pulse is 103/min, and blood pressure is 138/90 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Examination shows an area of diffuse erythema and swelling over her anterior right lower leg; it is warm and tender to touch. Squeezing of the calf does not elicit tenderness. There is swelling of the right inguinal lymph nodes. Pedal pulses are palpable bilaterally. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
A. Cigarette smoking
B. Graves disease
C. Tinea pedis (Correct Answer)
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Immobility
Explanation: ***Tinea pedis***
- The patient's presentation of **unilateral leg redness, swelling, warmth, tenderness, and fever** is highly suggestive of **bacterial cellulitis**.
- **Tinea pedis (athlete's foot)** causes breaks in the skin barrier, allowing bacteria (typically *Streptococcus pyogenes* or *Staphylococcus aureus*) to enter and cause infection.
*Cigarette smoking*
- While smoking has numerous negative health effects, it is **not a direct predisposing factor for cellulitis**.
- Smoking can impair wound healing and immune function generally, but it does not specifically increase the risk of skin barrier breakdown in the way fungal infections do.
*Graves disease*
- **Graves disease** is an autoimmune condition causing hyperthyroidism and is not directly linked to an increased risk of cellulitis.
- It can cause **pretibial myxedema**, which involves skin changes but does not typically lead to skin breakdown and bacterial infection.
*Rheumatoid arthritis*
- **Rheumatoid arthritis** is a chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease primarily affecting joints.
- While patients on immunosuppressive therapy for RA may have a higher risk of infections in general, RA itself does not directly predispose to cellulitis by causing skin barrier disruption.
*Immobility*
- **Immobility** can lead to conditions like **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** or **pressure ulcers**, but it is not the strongest direct predisposing factor for cellulitis in this clinical scenario.
- While immobility often accompanies conditions that impair skin integrity (e.g., venous insufficiency), it doesn't directly cause the primary break in the skin that leads to cellulitis as Tinea pedis does.
Question 137: A 20-year-old woman presents to student health for a 7-day history of sinus congestion. She has also had fever, sore throat, and infectious gastroenteritis. Upon further questioning, she has had similar problems 2 or 3 times a year for as long as she can remember. These have included sinus infections, ear infections, and lung infections. At the clinic, her temperature is 38.6°C (101.4°F), heart rate is 70/min, blood pressure is 126/78 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical examination is notable for mucopurulent discharge from both nares and tenderness to palpation over her bilateral maxillae. Sputum gram stain shows gram-positive diplococci. Which of the following best describes the levels of immunoglobulins that would most likely be found upon testing this patient's serum?
A. IgM Level: Low, IgG Level: Low, IgA Level: Low
B. IgM Level: Normal, IgG Level: Low, IgA Level: Low
C. IgM Level: Elevated, IgG Level: Low, IgA Level: Low
D. IgM Level: Normal, IgG Level: Normal, IgA Level: Low (Correct Answer)
E. IgM Level: Normal, IgG Level: Normal, IgA Level: Normal
Explanation: ***IgM Level: Normal, IgG Level: Normal, IgA Level: Low***
- The recurrent sinopulmonary and gastrointestinal infections, along with the chronic nature starting from childhood, are highly suggestive of **Selective IgA Deficiency (SIgAD)**. Individuals with SIgAD typically have normal levels of IgM and IgG.
- **Selective IgA deficiency** is the most common primary immunodeficiency; its key characteristic is isolated low or absent IgA with otherwise normal levels of other immunoglobulins.
*IgM Level: Low, IgG Level: Low, IgA Level: Low*
- This profile, involving deficiencies in all major immunoglobulin classes, would indicate a more severe combined immunodeficiency, such as **Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)** or **Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)**.
- While patients with these conditions also experience recurrent infections, the typical presentation is often more severe and may include failure to thrive, which is not suggested in this case of a 20-year-old woman.
*IgM Level: Normal, IgG Level: Low, IgA Level: Low*
- While IgA is low, a low IgG in addition to a low IgA would point towards conditions like **Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)**, which affects multiple immunoglobulin classes.
- CVID typically presents with more polymorphic clinical features and a broader range of infections, often later in life, although recurrent sinopulmonary infections are common.
*IgM Level: Elevated, IgG Level: Low, IgA Level: Low*
- An elevated IgM with low IgG and IgA is characteristic of **Hyper-IgM Syndrome**.
- This syndrome is usually associated with recurrent infections, often opportunistic, and can also lead to neutropenia, which is not indicated in the provided clinical picture.
*IgM Level: Normal, IgG Level: Normal, IgA Level: Normal*
- This immunoglobulin profile represents a **healthy immune system**.
- Given the patient's history of recurrent and chronic infections, it is highly unlikely that her immunoglobulin levels are all normal.
Question 138: A 6-month-old girl presents with recurring skin infections. Past medical history is significant for 3 episodes of acute otitis media since birth. The patient was born at 39 weeks via an uncomplicated, spontaneous transvaginal delivery, but there was delayed umbilical cord separation. She has met all developmental milestones. On physical examination, the skin around her mouth is inflamed and red. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this child’s clinical presentation?
A. Deficiency in NADPH oxidase
B. IL-12 receptor deficiency
C. Absence of CD18 molecule on the surface of leukocytes (Correct Answer)
D. A microtubule dysfunction
E. Defect in tyrosine kinase
Explanation: ***Absence of CD18 molecule on the surface of leukocytes***
- The combination of **recurrent bacterial skin infections**, **otitis media**, and **delayed umbilical cord separation** is highly characteristic of **leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1 (LAD-1)**.
- LAD-1 is caused by a defect in the **CD18 subunit of integrins**, leading to impaired leukocyte extravasation to sites of infection.
*Deficiency in NADPH oxidase*
- This defect is associated with **chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)**, which presents with recurrent infections by **catalase-positive organisms** and granuloma formation.
- While recurrent infections occur, **delayed umbilical cord separation** is not a typical feature of CGD.
*IL-12 receptor deficiency*
- This deficiency leads to impaired cellular immunity, particularly against **intracellular bacteria (e.g., mycobacteria)** and **fungi**.
- It does not typically present with the specific combination of **pyogenic infections** and **delayed umbilical cord separation** seen in this patient.
*A microtubule dysfunction*
- Microtubule dysfunction can be seen in conditions like **Chédiak-Higashi syndrome**, which involves impaired lysosomal trafficking and leads to **recurrent pyogenic infections**, **oculocutaneous albinism**, and **neuropathy**.
- **Delayed umbilical cord separation** is not a characteristic feature of Chédiak-Higashi syndrome.
*Defect in tyrosine kinase*
- Defects in tyrosine kinase, such as **Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK)**, cause **X-linked agammaglobulinemia**, leading to recurrent infections with **encapsulated bacteria** due to impaired B cell development.
- This condition is characterized by a lack of mature B cells and **low immunoglobulin levels**, but it does not typically present with **delayed umbilical cord separation**.
Question 139: A 46-year-old obese man comes to the emergency room because of paresthesias in his feet and a hypopigmented skin lesion on his knee that he first noticed 6 weeks ago. He has also had fever, fatigue, and malaise for the last week. He has a history of chronic autoimmune thyroiditis for which he takes levothyroxine. He immigrated from Indonesia 3 years ago to join his family in the United States. His temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F) and blood pressure is 122/84 mm Hg. Physical exam shows a well-defined hypopigmented skin lesion approximately 3 cm in diameter over the anterior aspect of the right knee. The area has no hair growth and remains dry although he is diaphoretic. There is diminished sensation to light touch and pinprick in the skin lesion when compared to surrounding skin. There is reduced light touch sensation in the big toes bilaterally. After obtaining a skin biopsy of the lesion to confirm the diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy?
A. Topical fluconazole
B. Oral rifampicin and dapsone (Correct Answer)
C. Topical betamethasone
D. Intravenous amphotericin
E. Oral hydroxychloroquine
Explanation: ***Oral rifampicin and dapsone***
- The patient's symptoms (hypopigmented, anesthetic skin lesion, paresthesias, fever, fatigue) and history (immigrant from **Indonesia**, an endemic area for leprosy) are classic for **leprosy (Hansen's disease)**.
- For **paucibacillary leprosy**, treatment typically involves **rifampicin** and **dapsone** for 6 months.
*Topical fluconazole*
- **Fluconazole** is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections, such as candidiasis.
- The patient's clinical presentation is not consistent with a fungal infection and would not address the neurological symptoms.
*Topical betamethasone*
- **Betamethasone** is a potent topical corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and itching in various dermatological conditions.
- While it might temporarily alleviate skin inflammation, it would not treat the underlying mycobacterial infection or peripheral neuropathy.
*Intravenous amphotericin*
- **Amphotericin B** is a broad-spectrum antifungal medication reserved for severe systemic fungal infections.
- It is not indicated for bacterial infections like leprosy, and its intravenous administration carries significant side effects.
*Oral hydroxychloroquine*
- **Hydroxychloroquine** is an antimalarial drug with immunomodulatory properties, used in conditions like lupus and rheumatoid arthritis.
- It has no role in the treatment of leprosy.
Question 140: A 41-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with a fever. She has had intermittent fevers accompanied by malaise, weakness, and mild shortness of breath for the past 2 weeks. Her past medical history is notable for recurrent bloody diarrhea for over 3 years. She underwent a flexible sigmoidoscopy several months ago which demonstrated contiguously granular and hyperemic rectal mucosa. She has a distant history of intravenous drug use but has been sober for the past 15 years. Her temperature is 100.8°F (38.2°C), blood pressure is 126/76 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 17/min. On exam, she appears lethargic but is able to answer questions appropriately. A new systolic II/VI murmur is heard on cardiac auscultation. Subungual hemorrhages are noted. Multiple blood cultures are drawn and results are pending. Which of the following pathogens is most strongly associated with this patient's condition?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus viridans
C. Streptococcus gallolyticus (Correct Answer)
D. Candida albicans
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation: ***Streptococcus gallolyticus***
- The patient's history of **intermittent fevers**, a **new cardiac murmur**, and **subungual hemorrhages** are classic signs of **infective endocarditis**.
- **_Streptococcus gallolyticus_** (formerly _Streptococcus bovis_) is strongly associated with infective endocarditis in patients with concomitant **gastrointestinal pathology**, particularly **colorectal cancer** or other inflammatory bowel conditions, which aligns with her history of chronic bloody diarrhea and contiguous granular and hyperemic rectal mucosa suggestive of **ulcerative colitis**.
*Staphylococcus epidermidis*
- This pathogen is a common cause of **prosthetic valve endocarditis** or catheter-related infections due to its ability to form biofilms on foreign materials.
- The patient in this case has no history of prosthetic valves or recent catheter use, making this less likely.
*Streptococcus viridans*
- **_Streptococcus viridans_** is a common cause of **native valve endocarditis**, especially after dental procedures, and is often associated with poor oral hygiene.
- While it can cause endocarditis, the strong association with **gastrointestinal disease** in this patient points more specifically to _Streptococcus gallolyticus_.
*Candida albicans*
- **_Candida albicans_** can cause endocarditis, particularly in immunocompromised individuals, those with indwelling catheters, or intravenous drug users.
- Although the patient has a distant history of IV drug use, the current presentation does not strongly suggest fungemia, and the GI link is a more prominent feature.
*Pseudomonas aeruginosa*
- **_Pseudomonas aeruginosa_** endocarditis is typically seen in patients with **nosocomial infections**, **intravenous drug use**, or compromised immune systems.
- While her distant IV drug use history is noted, the primary clues (GI pathology, classic endocarditis signs) do not specifically point to _Pseudomonas_.