A 59-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea that began 12 hours ago. Three days ago, she ate undercooked chicken at a local restaurant. Blood cultures grow spiral and comma-shaped, oxidase-positive organisms at 42°C. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
Q112
A 22-year-old woman comes to the urgent care clinic with sudden onset of severe vomiting. She had been at a picnic with her boyfriend a few hours earlier, enjoying barbecue, potato salad, and cake. Shortly thereafter, she began vomiting and has vomited 5 times in the last 3 hours. She has no prior history of symptoms. After a few hours of observation, her symptoms abate, and she is safely discharged home. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her vomiting?
Q113
A 55-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a worsening cough. She states that she has had a cough for 5 months. Over the past 2 weeks, the cough has become more frequent and produces yellow sputum. She has dyspnea on exertion at baseline, which she feels is also worsening. She denies fever, hemoptysis, or chest pain. She has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and mild osteoarthritis. She uses inhaled ipratropium and takes ibuprofen as needed. She received the influenza vaccine 2 months ago. She smokes a half pack a day, and denies alcohol or recreational drug use. In addition to broad-spectrum antibiotics, which of the following is indicated?
Q114
Part of the success of the Streptococcus pyogenes bacterium lies in its ability to evade phagocytosis. Which of the following helps in this evasion?
Q115
A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fevers for 2 weeks. She works as a nurse and recently returned from a charity work trip to India, where she worked in a medically-underserved rural community. A tuberculin skin test 3 months ago prior to her trip showed an induration of 3 mm. Physical examination is unremarkable. An x-ray of the chest shows right-sided hilar lymphadenopathy. A sputum culture shows acid-fast bacilli. Which of the following immunologic processes most likely occurred first?
Q116
A 78-year-old man presented to his primary physician with a 3-month history of weight loss, fever, fatigue, night sweats, and cough. He is a former smoker. A recent HIV test was negative. A CT scan of the chest reveals a 3 cm lesion in the lower lobe of the left lung and calcification around the left lung hilus. A sputum smear was positive for acid fast organisms. These findings are most consistent with which of the following:
Q117
A 70-year-old man with loose stools over the last 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal pain, cramps, nausea, and anorexia, was hospitalized. Previously, the man was diagnosed with a lung abscess and was treated with clindamycin for 5 days. Past medical history was significant for non-erosive antral gastritis and hypertension. He takes esomeprazole and losartan. Despite the respiratory improvement, fevers and leukocytosis persisted. Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms would you expect to find in this patient?
Q118
A previously healthy 25-year-old male comes to his primary care physician with a painless solitary lesion on his penis that developed 4 days ago. He has not experienced anything like this before. He is currently sexually active with multiple partners and uses condoms inconsistently. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.7°F), pulse is 67/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Genitourinary examination shows a shallow, nontender, firm ulcer with a smooth base along the shaft of the penis. There is nontender inguinal adenopathy bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?
Q119
A 6-year-old boy presents with fever, sore throat, hoarseness, and neck enlargement. The symptoms started 3 days ago and progressed gradually with an elevated temperature and swollen lymph nodes. His family immigrated recently from Honduras. He was born via spontaneous vaginal delivery at 39 weeks after an uneventful gestational period and he is now on a catch-up vaccination schedule. He lives with several family members, including his parents, in a small apartment. No one in the apartment smokes tobacco. On presentation, the patient’s blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg, heart rate is 103/min, respiratory rate is 20/min, and temperature is 39.4°C (102.9°F). On physical examination, the child is acrocyanotic and somnolent. There is widespread cervical edema and enlargement of the cervical lymph nodes. The tonsils are covered with a gray, thick membrane which spreads beyond the tonsillar bed and reveals bleeding, erythematous mucosa with gentle scraping. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Which of the following is the target of the virulence factor produced by the pathologic organism infecting this child?
Q120
While testing various strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae, a researcher discovers that a certain strain of this bacteria is unable to cause disease in mice when deposited in their lungs. What physiological test would most likely deviate from normal in this strain of bacteria as opposed to a typical strain?
Bacteria US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 111: A 59-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea that began 12 hours ago. Three days ago, she ate undercooked chicken at a local restaurant. Blood cultures grow spiral and comma-shaped, oxidase-positive organisms at 42°C. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
A. Toxic megacolon
B. Segmental myelin degeneration (Correct Answer)
C. Peyer patch necrosis
D. Seizures
E. Erythema nodosum
Explanation: ***Segmental myelin degeneration***
- The description of the organism (spiral/comma-shaped, oxidase-positive, growing
at 42°C) combined with bloody diarrhea from undercooked chicken strongly
suggests **_Campylobacter jejuni_** infection.
- _Campylobacter jejuni_ infection is the most common antecedent infection
for **Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)**, which is characterized by **segmental
demyelination** of peripheral nerves.
*Toxic megacolon*
- This complication is more commonly associated with severe inflammatory bowel disease or
infections like **_Clostridium difficile_** or **_Entamoeba histolytica_**.
- While theoretically possible with any severe diarrheal illness, it is not the **greatest
risk** specifically linked to _Campylobacter_ in this context.
*Peyer patch necrosis*
- **Peyer patch necrosis** is a characteristic complication seen in **typhoid fever**, caused by
**_Salmonella Typhi_**, which would present differently (e.g., rose spots, bradycardia,
step-wise fever).
- _Campylobacter_ infection primarily causes inflammation of the
intestinal mucosa rather than necrosis of Peyer patches.
*Seizures*
- Seizures are not a typical or common direct complication of _Campylobacter
jejuni_ infection in adults, although severe electrolyte imbalances from any
diarrhea could rarely precipitate them.
- They are more commonly associated with direct CNS infections or severe systemic
inflammatory responses from other pathogens.
*Erythema nodosum*
- **Erythema nodosum** is a non-specific inflammatory condition that can be
associated with various infections, including streptococcal infections, tuberculosis,
and some fungal diseases, as well as inflammatory bowel disease.
- While it has been reported rarely with _Campylobacter_ infections, it is not the **most
significant or common complication** compared to GBS.
Question 112: A 22-year-old woman comes to the urgent care clinic with sudden onset of severe vomiting. She had been at a picnic with her boyfriend a few hours earlier, enjoying barbecue, potato salad, and cake. Shortly thereafter, she began vomiting and has vomited 5 times in the last 3 hours. She has no prior history of symptoms. After a few hours of observation, her symptoms abate, and she is safely discharged home. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her vomiting?
A. Toxin ingestion from spore-forming organism
B. Toxin ingestion from non-spore-forming organism (Correct Answer)
C. Hepatitis
D. Gallstones
E. Viral infection
Explanation: ***Toxin ingestion from non-spore-forming organism***
- The rapid onset (within hours) and prompt resolution of severe vomiting following a meal **strongly suggest preformed bacterial toxins** in the food.
- **Staphylococcus aureus** is the most common cause of such rapid-onset food poisoning, producing **preformed enterotoxins** in improperly stored foods (especially dairy products, mayonnaise-based salads, and cream-filled desserts).
- Classic presentation: **1-6 hour incubation**, predominant **vomiting** (often severe), and **rapid resolution** within 24 hours.
- The toxin is heat-stable and not destroyed by reheating food.
*Toxin ingestion from spore-forming organism*
- Spore-forming organisms include ***Clostridium perfringens*** and ***Bacillus cereus***.
- ***C. perfringens***: Incubation **8-16 hours**, causes predominantly **diarrhea and abdominal cramps** rather than immediate severe vomiting.
- ***B. cereus* (emetic form)**: Can cause rapid-onset vomiting (1-5 hours) but is **less common** than *S. aureus* in this clinical scenario.
- The rapid onset and resolution pattern in this case is **most consistent with *S. aureus*** rather than spore-forming organisms.
*Hepatitis*
- **Acute hepatitis** typically presents with fatigue, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and jaundice, but symptoms develop over **days to weeks**.
- The **sudden onset** and **rapid resolution** within hours make acute hepatitis an unlikely cause.
*Gallstones*
- **Cholecystitis** or **biliary colic** due to gallstones can cause nausea and vomiting, typically associated with severe **right upper quadrant pain**, especially after fatty meals.
- The lack of abdominal pain and quick resolution without intervention make gallstone-related issues less probable.
*Viral infection*
- **Viral gastroenteritis** (e.g., norovirus) typically has an incubation period of **12-48 hours**, making rapid onset within a few hours unlikely.
- While it can cause sudden vomiting and diarrhea, symptoms usually persist for **24-72 hours**, not resolving within a few hours as described.
Question 113: A 55-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a worsening cough. She states that she has had a cough for 5 months. Over the past 2 weeks, the cough has become more frequent and produces yellow sputum. She has dyspnea on exertion at baseline, which she feels is also worsening. She denies fever, hemoptysis, or chest pain. She has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and mild osteoarthritis. She uses inhaled ipratropium and takes ibuprofen as needed. She received the influenza vaccine 2 months ago. She smokes a half pack a day, and denies alcohol or recreational drug use. In addition to broad-spectrum antibiotics, which of the following is indicated?
A. Inhaled bronchodilators
B. Oxygen therapy
C. Chest physiotherapy
D. Systemic corticosteroids (Correct Answer)
E. Mucolytic agents
Explanation: ***Systemic corticosteroids***
- This patient is experiencing an **acute exacerbation of COPD**, indicated by worsening cough, increased sputum production, and increased dyspnea. Systemic corticosteroids are **anti-inflammatory agents** that help reduce airway inflammation and improve lung function during exacerbations.
- Guidelines recommend a short course of oral corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 days) in addition to broad-spectrum antibiotics for moderate to severe COPD exacerbations.
*Inhaled bronchodilators*
- The patient already uses **inhaled ipratropium**, an anticholinergic bronchodilator, for her COPD, and the question asks what else is indicated *in addition* to other treatments. While bronchodilators are fundamental for COPD management, the primary additional intervention for an exacerbation, beyond her baseline treatment and antibiotics, is systemic corticosteroids.
- Although increasing the frequency or dosage of short-acting bronchodilators (e.g., albuterol) might be part of exacerbation management, it's not the *most critical additional treatment* compared to systemic corticosteroids which address the underlying inflammation.
*Oxygen therapy*
- Oxygen therapy is indicated for patients with **hypoxemia**, but the vignette does not provide information about her oxygen saturation or arterial blood gas results to suggest she is hypoxemic.
- While it's a critical supportive treatment for severe exacerbations with hypoxemia, it's not universally indicated for every COPD exacerbation, especially in the absence of documented low oxygen levels.
*Chest physiotherapy*
- Chest physiotherapy techniques (e.g., percussion, postural drainage) are primarily used to help clear secretions in conditions like **cystic fibrosis** or **bronchiectasis**.
- While it *can* assist with sputum clearance in some COPD patients, it's not a standard *first-line treatment* for an acute exacerbation, nor is it as universally indicated as systemic corticosteroids for reducing inflammation and symptoms.
*Mucolytic agents*
- Mucolytic agents (e.g., N-acetylcysteine) can help **thin mucus** and make it easier to clear, and may be considered in some patients with chronic productive cough.
- However, they are not a primary treatment for an **acute COPD exacerbation** and are not as effective as systemic corticosteroids in rapidly resolving the inflammatory component of the exacerbation.
Question 114: Part of the success of the Streptococcus pyogenes bacterium lies in its ability to evade phagocytosis. Which of the following helps in this evasion?
A. Streptolysin S
B. Streptolysin O
C. Streptokinase
D. M protein (Correct Answer)
E. Pyrogenic toxin
Explanation: ***M protein***
- The **M protein** is a major virulence factor of *Streptococcus pyogenes* that **inhibits phagocytosis** by binding to factor H, a host complement regulatory protein, preventing C3b deposition.
- It also helps the bacterium adhere to host cells and resist killing by neutrophils.
*Streptolysin S*
- **Streptolysin S** is a **hemolysin** that causes beta-hemolysis on blood agar and contributes to tissue damage by lysing cells.
- While contributing to virulence, its primary role is not direct inhibition of phagocytosis but rather cell lysis.
*Streptolysin O*
- **Streptolysin O (SLO)** is another **hemolysin** that produces pore-forming toxins, leading to cell lysis and tissue destruction.
- It is highly antigenic and often used as a diagnostic marker (ASO titer) for past *S. pyogenes* infections, but it does not directly prevent phagocytosis.
*Streptokinase*
- **Streptokinase** is an enzyme that activates plasminogen, leading to the breakdown of fibrin clots, which helps in the **spread of infection** within tissues.
- Its main function is not to evade phagocytosis but rather to facilitate invasion by dissolving blood clots that would typically wall off the infection.
*Pyrogenic toxin*
- **Pyrogenic toxins** (also known as erythrogenic toxins) are superantigens that cause symptoms like fever and rash (e.g., in scarlet fever) by stimulating a massive, non-specific T-cell activation.
- These toxins contribute to the systemic manifestations of infection but do not directly interfere with the process of phagocytosis.
Question 115: A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fevers for 2 weeks. She works as a nurse and recently returned from a charity work trip to India, where she worked in a medically-underserved rural community. A tuberculin skin test 3 months ago prior to her trip showed an induration of 3 mm. Physical examination is unremarkable. An x-ray of the chest shows right-sided hilar lymphadenopathy. A sputum culture shows acid-fast bacilli. Which of the following immunologic processes most likely occurred first?
A. Production of interferon-gamma by T-helper cells
B. Migration of T-helper cells to the lungs
C. Replication of bacteria within alveolar macrophages (Correct Answer)
D. Formation of a nodular tubercle in the lung
E. Transportation of bacterial peptides to regional lymph nodes
Explanation: ***Replication of bacteria within alveolar macrophages***
- After initial infection, **Mycobacterium tuberculosis** is phagocytosed by **alveolar macrophages** in the lungs, where it **replicates unimpeded** for about 2–4 weeks before the adaptive immune response is fully mounted.
- This phase of unchecked bacterial growth precedes the immune system's attempt to contain the infection, making it the first significant immunologic event.
*Transportation of bacterial peptides to regional lymph nodes*
- This process involves **antigen-presenting cells** (APCs) — typically macrophages or dendritic cells — migrating from the lungs to regional lymph nodes to present bacterial antigens to T cells.
- This step occurs *after* the initial bacterial replication and phagocytosis but *before* a robust T-cell mediated immune response develops, as T-cells need to be activated in the lymph nodes.
*Formation of a nodular tubercle in the lung*
- The **tubercle** (granuloma) is a hallmark of tuberculosis, representing the body's attempt to contain the infection.
- Its formation is a complex process involving activated macrophages, T cells, and fibroblasts, and it occurs *after* the initial bacterial replication and the subsequent immune cell activation and recruitment.
*Migration of T-helper cells to the lungs*
- **T-helper cells** migrate to the lungs only after they have been **activated** in the regional lymph nodes by antigen-presenting cells.
- This migration is crucial for orchestrating the immune response and containing the infection but happens *after* initial bacterial proliferation and antigen presentation.
*Production of interferon-gamma by T-helper cells*
- **Interferon-gamma** (IFN-$\gamma$) is a key cytokine produced by activated T-helper cells (Th1 cells) that activates macrophages to become more effective at killing intracellular bacteria.
- This production signifies a mature adaptive immune response and occurs *after* T-helper cell activation in the lymph nodes and subsequent migration to the infected site.
Question 116: A 78-year-old man presented to his primary physician with a 3-month history of weight loss, fever, fatigue, night sweats, and cough. He is a former smoker. A recent HIV test was negative. A CT scan of the chest reveals a 3 cm lesion in the lower lobe of the left lung and calcification around the left lung hilus. A sputum smear was positive for acid fast organisms. These findings are most consistent with which of the following:
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Secondary tuberculosis (Correct Answer)
C. Miliary tuberculosis
D. Primary tuberculosis
E. Coccidioidomycosis infection
Explanation: ***Correct: Secondary tuberculosis***
- The **hilar calcification** indicates **prior primary TB infection** that was contained, forming a healed Ghon complex, which is now **reactivating**.
- The **3 cm active lesion** with positive **acid-fast organisms** in sputum represents **reactivation tuberculosis** (secondary TB) occurring in a patient with previous exposure.
- In elderly patients (78 years old), **immunosenescence** increases risk of reactivation from latent foci, even in non-apical locations.
- Constitutional symptoms (weight loss, fever, night sweats) and positive sputum smear confirm active TB disease.
*Incorrect: Primary tuberculosis*
- Primary TB represents the **initial infection** in a previously unexposed individual, typically resulting in a Ghon complex (calcified primary focus + lymph node).
- This patient has **evidence of prior TB** (hilar calcification), making this a reactivation, not primary infection.
- Primary TB usually presents with **lymphadenopathy and pleural effusion** rather than cavitary lesions and positive sputum.
*Incorrect: Coccidioidomycosis infection*
- While coccidioidomycosis can cause lung lesions and constitutional symptoms, it is a **fungal infection** and would not present with **acid-fast organisms** in sputum.
- It is geographically localized to the **southwestern United States** and parts of Central/South America.
- Hilar calcification from prior TB would be coincidental, not related to current coccidioidal infection.
*Incorrect: Adenocarcinoma*
- Adenocarcinoma can cause lung lesions, weight loss, and fatigue in a former smoker, but it is a **malignancy**.
- Sputum would show **malignant cells**, not **acid-fast organisms**.
- The positive AFB smear definitively indicates mycobacterial infection, not cancer.
*Incorrect: Miliary tuberculosis*
- **Miliary TB** involves hematogenous dissemination resulting in **diffuse bilateral micronodular lesions** (1-3 mm) throughout both lungs.
- This patient has a **single 3 cm lesion**, which is inconsistent with the military (millet seed-like) pattern.
- Miliary TB typically occurs in severely immunocompromised patients; this patient is HIV-negative.
Question 117: A 70-year-old man with loose stools over the last 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal pain, cramps, nausea, and anorexia, was hospitalized. Previously, the man was diagnosed with a lung abscess and was treated with clindamycin for 5 days. Past medical history was significant for non-erosive antral gastritis and hypertension. He takes esomeprazole and losartan. Despite the respiratory improvement, fevers and leukocytosis persisted. Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms would you expect to find in this patient?
A. Glucosylation of Rho family GTPases (Correct Answer)
B. Inactivation of elongation factor EF-2
C. Inactivation of the 60S ribosome subunit
D. Cell membrane degradation by lecithinase
E. ADP-ribosylation of Gs-alpha subunit of G-protein coupled receptors
Explanation: ***Glucosylation of Rho family GTPases***
- The clinical presentation (clindamycin use, loose stools, abdominal pain, fever, leukocytosis) strongly suggests **_Clostridioides difficile_ infection (CDI)**. The **_C. difficile_ toxins A and B** are glucosyltransferases that modify and inactivate Rho family GTPases.
- **Inactivation of Rho GTPases** leads to disruption of the **cytoskeleton**, loss of tight junctions between enterocytes, and ultimately causes **cell death and colonic inflammation**, resulting in pseudomembranous colitis.
*Inactivation of elongation factor EF-2*
- This is the mechanism of action of **diphtheria toxin** (produced by **_Corynebacterium diphtheriae_**) and **_Pseudomonas aeruginosa_ exotoxin A**.
- These toxins **ADP-ribosylate elongation factor 2 (EF-2)**, inhibiting protein synthesis and leading to cell death. This does not align with the patient's symptoms or antibiotic history.
*Inactivation of the 60S ribosome subunit*
- This mechanism is associated with **Shiga toxin** (produced by **_Shigella dysenteriae_** and **enterohemorrhagic _E. coli_ (EHEC)**) and **ricin toxin**.
- These toxins enzymatically remove an adenine residue from the 28S rRNA of the 60S ribosomal subunit, thereby **halting protein synthesis** and causing cell damage.
*Cell membrane degradation by lecithinase*
- **Lecithinase (alpha-toxin)** produced by **_Clostridium perfringens_** is a phospholipase that degrades **lecithin** in cell membranes.
- This leads to **hemolysis, myonecrosis, and tissue destruction** characteristic of gas gangrene, which is not consistent with the patient's diarrheal illness.
*ADP-ribosylation of Gs-alpha subunit of G-protein coupled receptors*
- This is the mechanism of action of **cholera toxin** (produced by **_Vibrio cholerae_**) and **heat-labile enterotoxin (LT)** of **enterotoxigenic _E. coli_ (ETEC)**.
- **ADP-ribosylation of Gs-alpha subunit** permanently activates adenylate cyclase, leading to increased intracellular **cAMP**, which causes excessive **secretion of water and electrolytes** into the gut lumen, resulting in watery diarrhea, but without significant inflammation as seen in the patient.
Question 118: A previously healthy 25-year-old male comes to his primary care physician with a painless solitary lesion on his penis that developed 4 days ago. He has not experienced anything like this before. He is currently sexually active with multiple partners and uses condoms inconsistently. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.7°F), pulse is 67/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Genitourinary examination shows a shallow, nontender, firm ulcer with a smooth base along the shaft of the penis. There is nontender inguinal adenopathy bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Rapid plasma reagin
B. Urine polymerase chain reaction
C. Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test
D. Swab culture
E. Dark-field microscopy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Dark-field microscopy***
- The patient's presentation with a **painless, firm, shallow ulcer** (chancre) on the penis and **bilateral nontender inguinal adenopathy**, in the context of high-risk sexual behavior, is highly suggestive of **primary syphilis**.
- **Dark-field microscopy** of exudate from the chancre allows for direct visualization of motile *Treponema pallidum* spirochetes and is the definitive method for confirming primary syphilis, especially before serological tests become positive.
*Rapid plasma reagin*
- **RPR is a nontreponemal serological test** used for screening syphilis. It typically becomes reactive 1-3 weeks after the appearance of a chancre.
- Given that the lesion developed only 4 days ago, the RPR might still be **negative due to the lag phase** before antibody production.
*Urine polymerase chain reaction*
- A **urine PCR** is primarily used to detect nucleic acids of infectious agents, commonly for conditions like chlamydia or gonorrhea.
- It is **not the standard or most accurate method** for diagnosing syphilis, which is caused by a spirochete and typically diagnosed by direct visualization or serology.
*Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test*
- The **FTA-ABS is a treponemal-specific serological test** that usually becomes reactive earlier than non-treponemal tests (like RPR), but still typically weeks after infection.
- While sensitive, it is generally used as a **confirmatory test** for positive nontreponemal results or when clinical suspicion is high and nontreponemal tests are initially negative. It is not a direct detection method.
*Swab culture*
- **Swab culture** is used to grow bacteria for identification and susceptibility testing.
- *Treponema pallidum*, the causative agent of syphilis, **cannot be cultured on artificial media**, making swab culture an inappropriate diagnostic method for syphilis.
Question 119: A 6-year-old boy presents with fever, sore throat, hoarseness, and neck enlargement. The symptoms started 3 days ago and progressed gradually with an elevated temperature and swollen lymph nodes. His family immigrated recently from Honduras. He was born via spontaneous vaginal delivery at 39 weeks after an uneventful gestational period and he is now on a catch-up vaccination schedule. He lives with several family members, including his parents, in a small apartment. No one in the apartment smokes tobacco. On presentation, the patient’s blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg, heart rate is 103/min, respiratory rate is 20/min, and temperature is 39.4°C (102.9°F). On physical examination, the child is acrocyanotic and somnolent. There is widespread cervical edema and enlargement of the cervical lymph nodes. The tonsils are covered with a gray, thick membrane which spreads beyond the tonsillar bed and reveals bleeding, erythematous mucosa with gentle scraping. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Which of the following is the target of the virulence factor produced by the pathologic organism infecting this child?
A. Desmoglein
B. SNAP-25
C. ADP-ribosylation factor 6
D. Eukaryotic elongation factor-2 (eEF-2) (Correct Answer)
E. RNA polymerase II
Explanation: ***Eukaryotic elongation factor-2 (eEF-2)***
- The clinical presentation (fever, sore throat, hoarseness, neck enlargement, and a **gray, thick membrane** on tonsils that bleeds on scraping, accompanied by **acrocyanosis and somnolence**) is highly suggestive of **diphtheria**, caused by *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*.
- The **diphtheria toxin** produced by *C. diphtheriae* is an **exotoxin** that acts by **ADP-ribosylating and inactivating eukaryotic elongation factor-2 (eEF-2)**, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis and leading to cell death.
*Desmoglein*
- **Desmoglein** is a component of **desmosomes** targeted by **autoantibodies** in **pemphigus vulgaris**, a blistering skin disease.
- This is not related to the mechanism of action of the diphtheria toxin.
*SNAP-25*
- **SNAP-25** is a protein involved in the release of **neurotransmitters** at the **neuromuscular junction**.
- It is cleaved by **botulinum toxin** (produced by *Clostridium botulinum*), leading to flaccid paralysis; it is not the target of diphtheria toxin.
*ADP-ribosylation factor 6*
- **ADP-ribosylation factor 6 (ARF6)** is a small GTPase involved in regulating vesicular trafficking and actin dynamics.
- While other bacterial toxins, such as **cholera toxin** and **pertussis toxin**, also cause ADP-ribosylation, their targets and clinical effects differ significantly from diphtheria toxin.
*RNA polymerase II*
- **RNA polymerase II** is responsible for transcribing **mRNA** in eukaryotes.
- Some toxins, like **alpha-amanitin** from *Amanita phalloides* mushrooms, inhibit RNA polymerase II, but this is not the target of the diphtheria toxin.
Question 120: While testing various strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae, a researcher discovers that a certain strain of this bacteria is unable to cause disease in mice when deposited in their lungs. What physiological test would most likely deviate from normal in this strain of bacteria as opposed to a typical strain?
A. Quellung reaction (Correct Answer)
B. Hemolytic reaction when grown on sheep blood agar
C. Bile solubility
D. Optochin sensitivity
E. Motility
Explanation: ***Quellung reaction***
- The **Quellung reaction** tests for the presence of the **polysaccharide capsule**, which is the primary virulence factor of *S. pneumoniae*.
- An **avirulent strain** that cannot cause disease would most likely lack the capsule and show a **negative Quellung reaction** (no capsular swelling), deviating from the **positive reaction** seen in typical encapsulated pathogenic strains.
- The capsule enables *S. pneumoniae* to evade phagocytosis and complement-mediated killing, which is essential for establishing infection in the lungs.
*Hemolytic reaction when grown on sheep blood agar*
- Both virulent and avirulent strains of *S. pneumoniae* typically exhibit **alpha-hemolysis** (partial hemolysis, producing a greenish discoloration) on sheep blood agar due to the production of pneumolysin.
- This characteristic does not differentiate between pathogenic and non-pathogenic strains in terms of disease-causing ability.
*Bile solubility*
- *S. pneumoniae* is characteristically **bile-soluble** due to the presence of autolysin enzymes that are activated by bile salts, leading to cellular lysis.
- This property is a **species characteristic** present in both virulent and avirulent strains, thus it would not explain the inability to cause disease.
*Optochin sensitivity*
- *S. pneumoniae* is universally **sensitive to optochin**, a chemical agent that inhibits its growth and is used for laboratory identification.
- This characteristic is used for **species identification** but does not correlate with strain virulence or disease-causing ability.
*Motility*
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* is a **non-motile** bacterium; it lacks flagella.
- This characteristic is consistent across all strains and is not a virulence factor for this species.