A sample is taken of an ulcer in the inguinal region of a 29-year-old Malaysian male who has had unprotected sex in the past few months. Intracytoplasmic inclusions are seen in the Giemsa staining in Image A. On which of the following can the organism in the staining be grown?
Q12
A 22-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider with an unrelenting headache accompanied by fever, chills, and malaise for the past 4 days. She also complains of an earache and dry hacking cough. Past medical history is noncontributory. She takes oral contraceptives and a multivitamin with calcium daily. She drinks alcohol socially and smokes occasionally. Today, her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 104/min, respiratory rate is 20/min and blood pressure is 102/82 mm Hg. On physical exam, she appears uncomfortable, but not ill. Her heart rate is elevated with a regular rhythm and her lungs have mild rhonchi in the lower lobes bilaterally. A chest X-ray shows patchy, diffuse infiltrates of the interstitium bilaterally that is worse in the lower lobes. A sputum culture is taken for stereomicroscopy. The pathogen organism appears small, pleomorphic, and lacks a cell wall. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
Q13
A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of low-grade fever, dry cough, and shortness of breath. His symptoms began 6 days ago while he was on vacation in Thailand where he went to an urgent care clinic and was started on cefuroxime. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F). Physical examination shows decreased breath sounds at bilateral lung bases. An x-ray of the chest shows diffuse patchy infiltrates. Sputum analysis shows numerous neutrophils but no organisms. Giemsa stain shows epithelial cells with cytoplasmic inclusion bodies. This patient's condition did not improve after the initial treatment because of which of the following properties of the most likely causal pathogen?
Q14
A previously healthy 24-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fever, headache, myalgia, photophobia, and a nonproductive cough for 2 days. Three weeks ago, she received a parrot as a birthday present. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F). Pulmonary examination shows crackles at both lung bases. Her leukocyte count is 8,000/mm3. An x-ray of the chest shows diffuse patchy infiltrates that are most prominent in the lower lobes. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
Q15
A 45-year-old man presents to the physician with a complaint of recurrent chest pain for the last 2 weeks. He mentions that the pain is not present at rest, but when he walks for some distance, he feels pain like a pressure over the retrosternal region. The pain disappears within a few minutes of stopping the physical activity. He is an otherwise healthy man with no known medical disorder. He does not smoke or have any known dependence. There is no family history of ischemic heart disease or vascular disorder. On physical examination, his vital signs, including blood pressure, are normal. The diagnosis of coronary artery disease due to atherosclerosis is made. Which of the following is known to be an infection associated with this patient’s condition?
Q16
A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of severe burning with urination for the past 3 days. During this period, he has had clear urethral discharge early in the morning. He has no history of serious illness, except for a rash following treatment with erythromycin 20 years ago. The patient takes no medications. He is sexually active with one male and one female partner; they use condoms inconsistently. His younger brother was diagnosed with Crohn disease at the age of 24 years. The patient does not smoke. He drinks one to two beers on weekends. He appears well. Temperature is 36.8°C (98°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure is 135/78 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Gram stain of a urethral swab shows neutrophils but no organisms. Which of the following is the most likely causal pathogen?
Q17
A previously healthy 25-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of fever and fluid release from painful lumps in his right groin. He had an atraumatic ulceration of his penis about 1 month ago that was not painful and resolved on its own within 1 week. He works at an animal shelter for abandoned pets. He is sexually active with multiple male partners and does not use condoms. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F). Examination of the groin shows numerous tender nodules with purulent discharge. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely causal pathogen?
Atypical US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: A sample is taken of an ulcer in the inguinal region of a 29-year-old Malaysian male who has had unprotected sex in the past few months. Intracytoplasmic inclusions are seen in the Giemsa staining in Image A. On which of the following can the organism in the staining be grown?
A. Löwenstein-Jensen agar
B. Bordet-Gengou agar
C. Charcoal yeast extract agar with cysteine and iron
D. Yolk sac of a chick embryo (Correct Answer)
E. Eaton's agar
Explanation: ***Yolk sac of a chick embryo***
- The organism described, exhibiting **intracytoplasmic inclusions** and causing an inguinal ulcer following unprotected sex, is characteristic of *Chlamydia trachomatis* (specifically, types L1, L2, L3 which cause **lymphogranuloma venereum**).
- *Chlamydia* species are **obligate intracellular bacteria** and cannot be grown on conventional artificial media; they require living cells, such as the **yolk sac of a chick embryo**, tissue culture, or laboratory animals for cultivation.
*Löwenstein-Jensen agar*
- This medium is specifically used for the culture of **mycobacteria**, such as *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*, which causes tuberculosis.
- It contains **malachite green** to inhibit the growth of other bacteria and an egg-based medium for nutritional support.
*Bordet-Gengou agar*
- This is a specialized medium used for the isolation of *Bordetella pertussis*, the causative agent of **whooping cough**.
- It typically contains **potato extract**, glycerol, and blood.
*Charcoal yeast extract agar with cysteine and iron*
- This medium, often referred to as BCYE agar, is specifically designed for the isolation and growth of *Legionella pneumophila*, which causes **Legionnaires' disease**.
- The requirement for **cysteine and iron salts** is critical for *Legionella* growth.
*Eaton's agar*
- Eaton's agar is a specialized medium primarily used for the cultivation of *Mycoplasma pneumoniae*, the causative agent of **atypical pneumonia**.
- This medium typically contains various supplements, including **horse serum** and yeast extract, to support the growth of mycoplasmas.
Question 12: A 22-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider with an unrelenting headache accompanied by fever, chills, and malaise for the past 4 days. She also complains of an earache and dry hacking cough. Past medical history is noncontributory. She takes oral contraceptives and a multivitamin with calcium daily. She drinks alcohol socially and smokes occasionally. Today, her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 104/min, respiratory rate is 20/min and blood pressure is 102/82 mm Hg. On physical exam, she appears uncomfortable, but not ill. Her heart rate is elevated with a regular rhythm and her lungs have mild rhonchi in the lower lobes bilaterally. A chest X-ray shows patchy, diffuse infiltrates of the interstitium bilaterally that is worse in the lower lobes. A sputum culture is taken for stereomicroscopy. The pathogen organism appears small, pleomorphic, and lacks a cell wall. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Legionella pneumophila
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae (Correct Answer)
E. Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation: ***Mycoplasma pneumoniae***
- The description of a pathogen that is small, **pleomorphic**, and **lacks a cell wall** is classic for *Mycoplasma pneumoniae*.
- Clinical features like **dry hacking cough**, malaise, and **patchy diffuse infiltrates** on chest X-ray in a young adult are characteristic of atypical pneumonia caused by this organism.
- *Mycoplasma* is resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics (which target cell walls) and is typically treated with macrolides or tetracyclines.
*Haemophilus influenzae*
- This bacterium is a **gram-negative coccobacillus** and **possesses a cell wall**, which directly contradicts the description of the pathogen.
- While it can cause respiratory infections, its microscopic appearance does not match the pleomorphic, cell wall-lacking organism described.
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- This organism consists of **gram-positive cocci** in clusters and **possesses a cell wall**.
- It typically causes more severe, consolidative pneumonia (often with cavitation or abscess formation), not the patchy interstitial infiltrates described.
- Post-influenza pneumonia with *S. aureus* presents more acutely with purulent sputum.
*Streptococcus pneumoniae*
- This organism is a **gram-positive diplococcus** (lancet-shaped pairs) and **possesses a cell wall**, making it inconsistent with the given microscopic description.
- It usually causes **lobar pneumonia** with acute onset, rusty-colored sputum, and consolidation on chest X-ray rather than patchy interstitial infiltrates.
*Legionella pneumophila*
- *Legionella pneumophila* is a **gram-negative rod** and **possesses a cell wall**, which does not fit the microscopic description of a pathogen lacking a cell wall.
- While it causes atypical pneumonia with similar symptoms (often with GI symptoms and hyponatremia), the **absence of a cell wall** is the key distinguishing feature that rules it out.
Question 13: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of low-grade fever, dry cough, and shortness of breath. His symptoms began 6 days ago while he was on vacation in Thailand where he went to an urgent care clinic and was started on cefuroxime. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F). Physical examination shows decreased breath sounds at bilateral lung bases. An x-ray of the chest shows diffuse patchy infiltrates. Sputum analysis shows numerous neutrophils but no organisms. Giemsa stain shows epithelial cells with cytoplasmic inclusion bodies. This patient's condition did not improve after the initial treatment because of which of the following properties of the most likely causal pathogen?
A. Lack of peptidoglycan in cell wall (Correct Answer)
B. Production of β-lactamase enzymes
C. Enclosure by polysaccharide capsule
D. Formation of biofilms
E. Rapid alteration of drug binding sites
Explanation: ***Lack of peptidoglycan in cell wall***
- The patient's presentation with **diffuse patchy infiltrates**, dry cough, and failure to respond to **cefuroxime** (a beta-lactam antibiotic) strongly suggests an atypical pneumonia.
- The **cytoplasmic inclusion bodies on Giemsa stain** are pathognomonic for ***Chlamydia* species** (*C. pneumoniae* or *C. psittaci*), which are obligate intracellular bacteria that **lack a peptidoglycan cell wall**.
- Without peptidoglycan, these pathogens are **inherently resistant to antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis**, such as beta-lactams (penicillins, cephalosporins like cefuroxime).
- Treatment requires antibiotics that penetrate intracellularly: **macrolides** (azithromycin), **tetracyclines** (doxycycline), or **fluoroquinolones**.
*Production of β-lactamase enzymes*
- Beta-lactamase production is a mechanism of acquired resistance in bacteria that **have peptidoglycan cell walls**, such as *Haemophilus influenzae* or *Moraxella catarrhalis*.
- These bacteria would typically present with more purulent sputum and would show organisms on Gram stain, not inclusion bodies on Giemsa stain.
- The presence of **cytoplasmic inclusion bodies** specifically points to *Chlamydia*, which lacks a cell wall entirely rather than producing enzymes to destroy beta-lactams.
*Enclosure by polysaccharide capsule*
- A polysaccharide capsule is a virulence factor that helps bacteria evade phagocytosis but does **not confer resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics**.
- Encapsulated bacteria like *Streptococcus pneumoniae* typically **respond well to cefuroxime** and present with lobar consolidation rather than diffuse patchy infiltrates.
- The dry cough and inclusion bodies point away from typical bacterial pneumonia.
*Formation of biofilms*
- Biofilm formation is a mechanism of resistance in certain chronic infections (e.g., *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* in cystic fibrosis or device-related infections), but it doesn't explain **acute atypical pneumonia**.
- The primary issue here is the **intrinsic resistance** due to absent cell wall, not biofilm-mediated resistance.
- Biofilms are not characteristic of *Chlamydia* infections.
*Rapid alteration of drug binding sites*
- Rapid alteration of drug binding sites (e.g., mutations in penicillin-binding proteins) is a mechanism of resistance that can occur in bacteria **with cell walls**.
- This mechanism is irrelevant when the pathogen **lacks the entire target structure** (peptidoglycan cell wall) that beta-lactams are designed to inhibit.
- *Chlamydia* species are intrinsically resistant due to absence of peptidoglycan, not due to altered binding sites.
Question 14: A previously healthy 24-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fever, headache, myalgia, photophobia, and a nonproductive cough for 2 days. Three weeks ago, she received a parrot as a birthday present. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F). Pulmonary examination shows crackles at both lung bases. Her leukocyte count is 8,000/mm3. An x-ray of the chest shows diffuse patchy infiltrates that are most prominent in the lower lobes. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Francisella tularensis
C. Babesia microti
D. Chlamydia psittaci (Correct Answer)
E. Leptospira interrogans
Explanation: ***Chlamydia psittaci***
- The patient's recent acquisition of a **parrot** and subsequent development of **fever, headache, myalgia, photophobia, nonproductive cough**, and **diffuse patchy infiltrates** on CXR are highly characteristic of **psittacosis** (ornithosis), caused by *Chlamydia psittaci*.
- This **atypical pneumonia** often presents with systemic symptoms out of proportion to respiratory findings and can mimic other viral illnesses.
*Cryptococcus neoformans*
- This is a **fungal infection** typically affecting immunocompromised individuals, causing **meningitis** or **pulmonary infections**.
- While it can cause pneumonia, the direct link to a parrot and the specific constellation of symptoms point away from *Cryptococcus* in an otherwise healthy individual.
*Francisella tularensis*
- This bacterium causes **tularemia**, often associated with **rabbit or rodent exposure** or **tick bites**.
- It presents with fever, ulceroglandular or pneumonic forms, but a history of parrot exposure makes it unlikely.
*Babesia microti*
- This is an **intraerythrocytic parasite** transmitted by **ticks**, causing **babesiosis**.
- Symptoms include fever, hemolytic anemia, and fatigue, but it does not typically cause the described respiratory symptoms or diffuse patchy infiltrates.
*Leptospira interrogans*
- This spirochete causes **leptospirosis**, an infection associated with **exposure to animal urine** or contaminated water.
- While it can present with fever, headache, and myalgia, the prominent respiratory symptoms and the specific parrot exposure do not fit well with leptospirosis, which more commonly involves liver and kidney dysfunction.
Question 15: A 45-year-old man presents to the physician with a complaint of recurrent chest pain for the last 2 weeks. He mentions that the pain is not present at rest, but when he walks for some distance, he feels pain like a pressure over the retrosternal region. The pain disappears within a few minutes of stopping the physical activity. He is an otherwise healthy man with no known medical disorder. He does not smoke or have any known dependence. There is no family history of ischemic heart disease or vascular disorder. On physical examination, his vital signs, including blood pressure, are normal. The diagnosis of coronary artery disease due to atherosclerosis is made. Which of the following is known to be an infection associated with this patient’s condition?
A. Coxiella burnetii
B. Rickettsia rickettsii
C. Chlamydophila pneumoniae (Correct Answer)
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
E. Legionella pneumophila
Explanation: ***Chlamydophila pneumoniae***
- *Chlamydophila pneumoniae* has been implicated in the pathogenesis of **atherosclerosis** and **coronary artery disease**.
- **Chronic low-grade inflammation** induced by persistent *C. pneumoniae* infection is thought to contribute to plaque formation and instability.
*Coxiella burnetii*
- *Coxiella burnetii* is the causative agent of **Q fever**, which can manifest as **endocarditis** in its chronic form.
- While *C. burnetii* can cause cardiovascular complications like endocarditis, it is not directly associated with the development of **atherosclerosis** itself.
*Rickettsia rickettsii*
- *Rickettsia rickettsii* causes **Rocky Mountain spotted fever**, a tick-borne illness.
- This infection primarily causes widespread **vasculitis** and can lead to organ damage, but it is not a known risk factor for the development of chronic **atherosclerosis**.
*Mycoplasma pneumoniae*
- *Mycoplasma pneumoniae* is a common cause of **atypical pneumonia** and tracheobronchitis.
- It is not recognized as a direct infectious agent contributing to the development of **atherosclerosis** or coronary artery disease.
*Legionella pneumophila*
- *Legionella pneumophila* causes **Legionnaires' disease**, a severe form of pneumonia.
- While it can cause systemic inflammation during an acute infection, there is no established link between *L. pneumophila* and the long-term development of **atherosclerosis**.
Question 16: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of severe burning with urination for the past 3 days. During this period, he has had clear urethral discharge early in the morning. He has no history of serious illness, except for a rash following treatment with erythromycin 20 years ago. The patient takes no medications. He is sexually active with one male and one female partner; they use condoms inconsistently. His younger brother was diagnosed with Crohn disease at the age of 24 years. The patient does not smoke. He drinks one to two beers on weekends. He appears well. Temperature is 36.8°C (98°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure is 135/78 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Gram stain of a urethral swab shows neutrophils but no organisms. Which of the following is the most likely causal pathogen?
A. Adenovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Chlamydia trachomatis (Correct Answer)
E. Trichomonas vaginalis
Explanation: ***Chlamydia trachomatis***
- The presentation of **dysuria** (burning with urination), **clear urethral discharge**, and a **Gram stain showing neutrophils but no organisms** is highly characteristic of **non-gonococcal urethritis**, with *Chlamydia trachomatis* being the most common cause.
- The patient's **inconsistent condom use** and **multiple sexual partners** increase the risk of sexually transmitted infections like chlamydia.
*Adenovirus*
- Adenovirus can cause **urethritis**, but it is more commonly associated with symptoms like **pharyngitis**, **conjunctivitis**, and **acute respiratory disease**.
- While it can cause clear discharge, the clinical picture is more suggestive of a common STI.
*Herpes simplex virus*
- Herpes simplex virus (HSV) typically causes **painful genital ulcers or vesicles**, not primarily clear urethral discharge, although it can cause dysuria if the urethra is involved.
- The absence of external lesions and the presence of persistent discharge make HSV less likely.
*Neisseria gonorrhoeae*
- **Gonococcal urethritis** typically presents with a **purulent** (creamy, yellow, or greenish) urethral discharge and frequently shows **Gram-negative intracellular diplococci** on microscopy.
- The **clear discharge** and **absence of organisms** on Gram stain rule out *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* as the cause of this presentation.
*Trichomonas vaginalis*
- *Trichomonas vaginalis* can cause **urethritis** with discharge, but the discharge is typically described as **frothy**, **yellowish-green**, and associated with **itching**.
- While Gram stain might show neutrophils without other organisms, the classic discharge description and common co-occurrence with vaginitis in female partners are not present.
Question 17: A previously healthy 25-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of fever and fluid release from painful lumps in his right groin. He had an atraumatic ulceration of his penis about 1 month ago that was not painful and resolved on its own within 1 week. He works at an animal shelter for abandoned pets. He is sexually active with multiple male partners and does not use condoms. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F). Examination of the groin shows numerous tender nodules with purulent discharge. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely causal pathogen?
A. Haemophilus ducreyi
B. Klebsiella granulomatis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Bartonella henselae
E. Chlamydia trachomatis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Chlamydia trachomatis***
- The presentation of a **painless penile ulcer** followed by **painful inguinal lymphadenopathy** (buboes) with **purulent discharge** is classic for **lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)**, caused by specific serovars (L1, L2, L3) of **Chlamydia trachomatis**.
- **Sexual activity with multiple male partners** and **lack of condom use** are risk factors for sexually transmitted infections, including LGV.
*Haemophilus ducreyi*
- This pathogen causes **chancroid**, which typically presents with **multiple, painful genital ulcers** and often painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, but the initial ulcer described here was painless.
- The initial lesion in chancroid is usually soft and ragged, distinguishing it from the firm, painless chancre of syphilis.
*Klebsiella granulomatis*
- This bacterium causes **granuloma inguinale (donovanosis)**, characterized by **painless, progressively enlarging ulcerative lesions** in the anogenital area that are highly vascular and bleed easily.
- It does not typically present with the dramatic inguinal lymphadenopathy and purulent discharge seen in LGV, although pseudobuboes can occur.
*Treponema pallidum*
- This spirochete causes **syphilis**. The primary lesion of syphilis is a **painless chancre**, similar to the initial penile ulcer described.
- However, the subsequent **inguinal lymphadenopathy** in primary syphilis is typically **non-tender, bilateral**, and firm, unlike the painful, suppurative nodes observed here.
*Bartonella henselae*
- This bacterium is the causative agent of **cat scratch disease**, which typically presents with a **papule or pustule at the site of a cat scratch** followed by regional lymphadenopathy.
- The patient's job at an animal shelter might suggest exposure, but the presentation of a penile ulcer followed by suppurative inguinal lymphadenitis is not characteristic of cat scratch disease.