Management of stroke complications — MCQs

A 69-year-old man is brought in by his wife with acute onset aphasia for the past 5 hours. The patient's wife says that they were sitting having dinner when suddenly he was not able to speak. They delayed coming to the hospital because he had a similar episode 2 months ago which resolved within an hour. His past medical history is significant for hypercholesterolemia, managed with rosuvastatin, and a myocardial infarction (MI) 2 months ago, status post percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty complicated by residual angina. His family history is significant for his father who died of MI at age 60. The patient reports a 15-pack-year smoking history but denies any alcohol or recreational drug use. The vital signs include: temperature 37.0℃ (98.6℉), blood pressure 125/85 mm Hg, pulse 96/min, and respiratory rate 19/min. On physical examination, the patient has expressive aphasia. There is a weakness of the right-sided lower facial muscles. The strength in his upper and lower extremities is 4/5 on the right and 5/5 on the left. There is also a decreased sensation on his right side. A noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head is unremarkable. CT angiography (CTA) and diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain are acquired, and the findings are shown in the exhibit (see image). Which of the following is the best course of treatment in this patient?

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of right-sided weakness and slurring of speech for 1 hour. There is no history of head trauma, myocardial infarction, recent surgery, gastrointestinal or urinary bleeding. He has hypertension, chronic atrial fibrillation, and a 20 pack-year cigarette smoking history. The medication list includes valsartan and rivaroxaban. The vital signs include: blood pressure 180/92 mm Hg, pulse 144/min and irregular, and temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F). On physical examination, there is a facial asymmetry with a deviation of angle of mouth to the left side on smiling. Muscle strength is reduced in both upper and lower limbs on the right side while on the left side it’s normal. Random blood glucose is 104 mg/dL. A complete blood count is normal. A CT scan of the head is shown in the image. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 69-year-old male presents to the emergency department for slurred speech and an inability to use his right arm which occurred while he was eating dinner. The patient arrived at the emergency department within one hour. A CT scan was performed of the head and did not reveal any signs of hemorrhage. The patient is given thrombolytics and is then managed on the neurology floor. Three days later, the patient is recovering and is stable. He seems depressed but is doing well with his symptoms gradually improving as compared to his initial presentation. The patient complains of neck pain that has worsened slowly over the past few days for which he is being given ibuprofen. Laboratory values are ordered and return as indicated below: Serum: Na+: 130 mEq/L K+: 3.7 mEq/L Cl-: 100 mEq/L HCO3-: 24 mEq/L Urea nitrogen: 7 mg/dL Glucose: 70 mg/dL Creatinine: 0.9 mg/dL Ca2+: 9.7 mg/dL Urine: Appearance: dark Glucose: negative WBC: 0/hpf Bacterial: none Na+: 320 mEq/L/24 hours His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 95/min, blood pressure is 129/70 mmHg, respirations are 10/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department 1 hour after the sudden onset of a diffuse, dull, throbbing headache. She also reports blurred vision, nausea, and one episode of vomiting. She has a history of poorly controlled hypertension. A photograph of her fundoscopic examination is shown. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

A 77-year-old woman is brought by ambulance to the emergency department after she developed weakness of her right arm along with a right-sided facial droop. By the time the ambulance arrived, she was having difficulty speaking. Past medical history is significant for hypertension, diabetes mellitus type II, and hyperlipidemia. She takes lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, and atorvastatin. On arrival to the emergency department, her vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, she is awake and alert but the right side of her mouth is dropping, making it difficult for her to speak clearly. Her heart has a regular rate and rhythm and her lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Fingerstick glucose is 85 mg/dL. Her right upper extremity strength is 2/5 and her left upper extremity strength is 5/5. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department for sudden weakness. He was doing mechanical work on his car where he acutely developed right-leg weakness and fell to the ground. He is accompanied by his wife, who said that this has never happened before. He was last seen neurologically normal approximately 2 hours prior to presentation. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and type II diabetes. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 177/108 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Neurological exam reveals that he is having trouble speaking and has profound weakness of his right upper and lower extremity. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 77-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife because of headache, nausea, and vomiting for 24 hours. His wife says that over the past 2 weeks, he has been more irritable and has had trouble remembering to do routine errands. Two weeks ago, he fell during a skiing accident but did not lose consciousness. He has coronary artery disease and hypertension. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 50 years. He has had 2 glasses of wine daily since his retirement 10 years ago. Current medications include atenolol, enalapril, furosemide, atorvastatin, and aspirin. He appears acutely ill. He is oriented to person but not to place or time. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 99/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg. During the examination, he is uncooperative and unable to answer questions. Deep tendon reflexes are 4+ on the left and 2+ on the right. Babinski's sign is present on the left. There is mild weakness of the left iliopsoas and hamstring muscles. A CT scan of the head without contrast shows a high-density, 15-mm crescentic collection across the right hemispheric convexity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

An 8-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She is concerned that her son has had intermittent periods of severe abdominal pain over the past several days that has been associated with emesis and "currant jelly" stool. Of note, the family lives in a rural part of the state, requiring a 2 hour drive to the nearest hospital. He currently appears to be in significant pain and has vomited twice in the past hour. On physical examination, a sausage-shaped mass is noted on palpation of the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. Ultrasound of the abdomen was consistent with a diagnosis of intussusception. An air-contrast barium enema was performed, which confirmed the diagnosis and also successfully reduced the intussusception. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?

A researcher is studying the brains of patients who recently died from stroke-related causes. One specimen has a large thrombus in an area of the brain that is important in relaying many modalities of sensory information from the periphery to the sensory cortex. Which of the following embryologic structures gave rise to the part of the brain in question?

A female presents with a 1 × 1 cm thyroid swelling. What is the next best step in management?