A 61-year-old woman presents to the urgent care unit with a 2-week history of abdominal pain after meals. The patient reports vomiting over the past few days. The past medical history is significant for osteoarthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus. She regularly drinks alcohol. She does not smoke cigarettes. The patient currently presents with vital signs within normal limits. On physical examination, the patient appears to be in moderate distress, but she is alert and oriented. The palpation of the abdomen elicits tenderness in the epigastric region. The CT of the abdomen shows no signs of an acute process. The laboratory results are listed below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Na+ 139 mEq/L
K+ 4.4 mEq/L
Cl- 109 mmol/L
HCO3- 20 mmol/L
BUN 14 mg/dL
Cr 1.0 mg/dL
Glucose 101 mg/dL
Total cholesterol 187 mg/dL
LDL 110 mg/dL
HDL 52 mg/dL
TG 120 mg/dL
AST 65 IU/L
ALT 47 IU/L
GGT 27 IU/L
Amylase 512 U/L
Lipase 1,262 U/L
Q12
A 47-year-old woman with chronic epigastric pain comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of intermittent, loose, foul-smelling stools. She has also had a 6-kg (13-lb) weight loss. She has consumed 9–10 alcoholic beverages daily for the past 25 years. Seven years ago, she traveled to Mexico on vacation; she has not been outside the large metropolitan area in which she resides since then. She appears malnourished. The stool is pale and loose; fecal fat content is elevated. An immunoglobulin A serum anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody assay is negative. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
Q13
A 46-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past 4 hours. The pain is constant, radiates to his back, and is worse on lying down. He has had 3–4 episodes of greenish-colored vomit. He was treated for H. pylori infection around 2 months ago with triple-regimen therapy. He has atrial fibrillation and hypertension. He owns a distillery on the outskirts of a town. The patient drinks 4–5 alcoholic beverages daily. Current medications include dabigatran and metoprolol. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 102/min, and blood pressure is 138/86 mm Hg. Examination shows severe epigastric tenderness to palpation with guarding but no rebound. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. Rectal examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 53%
Leukocyte count 11,300/mm3
Serum
Na+ 133 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
K+ 3.1 mEq/L
Calcium 7.8 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 43 mg/dL
Glucose 271 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.0 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 0.7 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 61 U/L
AST 19 U/L
ALT 17 U/L
γ-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 88 u/L (N=5–50 U/L)
Lipase 900 U/L (N=14–280 U/L)
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q14
A 50-year-old Caucasian man is admitted to the ER with an 8-hour history of intense abdominal pain that radiates to the back, nausea, and multiple episodes of vomiting. Past medical history is insignificant. His blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 20/min, and body temperature is 37.8°C (100°F). Upon examination, he has significant epigastric tenderness, and hypoactive bowel sounds. Serum lipase and amylase are elevated and the patient rapidly deteriorates, requiring transfer to the intensive care unit for a month. After being stabilized, he is transferred to the general medicine floor with an abdominal computed tomography (CT) reporting a well-circumscribed collection of fluid of homogeneous density. Which of the following best describes the condition this patient has developed?
Q15
A 49-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for the first time in twelve years. His chief complaint is a new onset of diarrhea, which nothing seems to improve. He first noticed this diarrhea about a month ago. He complains of greasy stools, which leave a residue in his toilet bowl. Review of systems is notable for alcohol consumption of 12-16 cans of beer per day for the last two decades. Additionally, the patient endorses losing 12 lbs unintentionally over the last month. Vital signs are within normal limits and stable. Exam demonstrates a male who appears older than stated age; abdominal exam is notable for epigastric tenderness to palpation. What is the next step in diagnosis?
Q16
A 21-year-old college student comes to the emergency department because of a two-day history of vomiting and epigastric pain that radiates to the back. He has a history of atopic dermatitis and Hashimoto thyroiditis. His only medication is levothyroxine. He has not received any routine vaccinations. He drinks 1–2 beers on the weekends and occasionally smokes marijuana. The patient appears distressed and is diaphoretic. His temperature is 37.9°C (100.3°F), pulse is 105/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 130/78 mm Hg. Physical examination shows abdominal distention with tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium. There is no guarding or rebound tenderness. Skin examination shows several clusters of yellow plaques over the trunk and extensor surfaces of the extremities. Hemoglobin concentration is 15.2 g/dL and serum calcium concentration is 7.9 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?
Q17
A 43-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of severe epigastric pain and vomiting for 6 hours. The pain radiates to his back and he describes it as 9 out of 10 in intensity. He has had 3–4 episodes of vomiting during this period. He admits to consuming over 13 alcoholic beverages the previous night. There is no personal or family history of serious illness and he takes no medications. He is 177 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 55 kg (121 lb); BMI is 17.6 kg/m2. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), pulse is 97/min, and blood pressure is 128/78 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows severe epigastric tenderness to palpation. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Hematocrit 62%
Leukocyte count 13,800/mm3
Serum
Na+ 134 mEq/L
K+ 3.6 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
Calcium 8.3 mg/dL
Glucose 180 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Amylase 150 U/L
Lipase 347 U/L (N = 14–280)
Total bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 66 U/L
AST 19 U/L
ALT 18 U/L
LDH 360 U/L
Which of the following laboratory studies is the best prognostic indicator for this patient's condition?
Q18
A 58-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of abdominal pain and vomiting. Initially, the vomitus was food that he had recently eaten, but it is now bilious. He has had similar complaints several times in the past 6 years. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 25 years and drinks 24 oz of alcohol daily. He is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 48 kg (105 lb); BMI is 19 kg/m2. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows an epigastric mass. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q19
A 70-year-old male visits his primary care physician because of progressive weight loss. He has a 20-year history of smoking 2 packs of cigarettes a day and was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus 6 years ago. After physical examination, the physician tells the patient he suspects adenocarcinoma at the head of the pancreas. Which of the following physical examination findings would support the diagnosis?
Q20
A 45-year-old man with a history of biliary colic presents with one-day of intractable nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain radiating to the back. Temperature is 99.7 deg F (37.6 deg C), blood pressure is 102/78 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 22/min. On abdominal exam, he has involuntary guarding and tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant and epigastric regions. Laboratory studies show white blood cell count 18,200/uL, alkaline phosphatase 650 U/L, total bilirubin 2.5 mg/dL, amylase 500 U/L, and lipase 1160 U/L. Which of the patient's laboratory findings is associated with increased mortality?
Pancreatitis US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: A 61-year-old woman presents to the urgent care unit with a 2-week history of abdominal pain after meals. The patient reports vomiting over the past few days. The past medical history is significant for osteoarthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus. She regularly drinks alcohol. She does not smoke cigarettes. The patient currently presents with vital signs within normal limits. On physical examination, the patient appears to be in moderate distress, but she is alert and oriented. The palpation of the abdomen elicits tenderness in the epigastric region. The CT of the abdomen shows no signs of an acute process. The laboratory results are listed below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Na+ 139 mEq/L
K+ 4.4 mEq/L
Cl- 109 mmol/L
HCO3- 20 mmol/L
BUN 14 mg/dL
Cr 1.0 mg/dL
Glucose 101 mg/dL
Total cholesterol 187 mg/dL
LDL 110 mg/dL
HDL 52 mg/dL
TG 120 mg/dL
AST 65 IU/L
ALT 47 IU/L
GGT 27 IU/L
Amylase 512 U/L
Lipase 1,262 U/L
A. Acute liver failure
B. Acute pancreatitis (Correct Answer)
C. Acute mesenteric ischemia
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. Gastric ulcer
Explanation: **Acute pancreatitis**
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of **acute pancreatitis**, including **epigastric abdominal pain** that worsens after meals, and **vomiting**.
- Significantly elevated **amylase** (512 U/L) and **lipase** (1,262 U/L) levels (both more than three times the upper limit of normal) confirm the diagnosis. The patient's history of **alcohol consumption** is a major risk factor.
*Acute liver failure*
- Acute liver failure would typically present with significantly elevated **ALT and AST values**, often in the thousands, along with signs of **hepatic encephalopathy** or coagulopathy, none of which are present here.
- While the AST and ALT are mildly elevated, they are not indicative of acute liver failure, and the patient's other liver function tests (GGT, cholesterol panel) are relatively normal.
*Acute mesenteric ischemia*
- **Acute mesenteric ischemia** presents with severe, **disproportionate pain** to physical findings, often described as "pain out of proportion to examination." It is less commonly associated with elevated lipase and amylase.
- While patient has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus that could potentially increase the risk of thrombotic events, the absence of severe abdominal pain and the very high lipase levels make this less likely.
*Acute cholecystitis*
- **Acute cholecystitis** typically presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis, often precipitated by fatty meals. **Murphy's sign** is usually positive.
- While abdominal pain after meals and vomiting could occur, the pain is specifically epigastric, and there are no signs of inflammation (fever, WBC count not provided but general physical examination findings are not pointing to cholecystitis) and the remarkably elevated lipase and amylase are not features of cholecystitis.
*Gastric ulcer*
- A **gastric ulcer** typically causes **epigastric pain** that may be relieved by food (duodenal ulcer) or worsened by food (gastric ulcer), and can cause vomiting.
- However, the extremely high **amylase and lipase levels** are not characteristic of a gastric ulcer and point towards a pancreatic etiology.
Question 12: A 47-year-old woman with chronic epigastric pain comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of intermittent, loose, foul-smelling stools. She has also had a 6-kg (13-lb) weight loss. She has consumed 9–10 alcoholic beverages daily for the past 25 years. Seven years ago, she traveled to Mexico on vacation; she has not been outside the large metropolitan area in which she resides since then. She appears malnourished. The stool is pale and loose; fecal fat content is elevated. An immunoglobulin A serum anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody assay is negative. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Inflammation of subcutaneous fat
B. Pancreatic calcifications (Correct Answer)
C. Trophozoites on stool microscopy
D. Positive lactulose breath test
E. Villous atrophy of duodenal mucosa
Explanation: ***Pancreatic calcifications*** (Correct Answer)
- The patient's history of **chronic epigastric pain**, heavy **alcohol consumption** for 25 years, **steatorrhea** (foul-smelling, loose, pale stools with elevated fecal fat), and **weight loss** are classic signs of **chronic pancreatitis**.
- **Pancreatic calcifications** are a hallmark finding in chronic pancreatitis on imaging (CT scan or abdominal X-ray), often indicating irreversible damage and impaired exocrine function, leading to **malabsorption** and steatorrhea.
- This is the most likely finding on further evaluation given the clinical presentation.
*Inflammation of subcutaneous fat*
- This symptom, known as **panniculitis** (pancreatic panniculitis), is associated with pancreatic disease but is a rare complication and less specific diagnostic finding than pancreatic calcifications in chronic pancreatitis.
- While it can occur in severe pancreatitis due to **lipolytic enzymes** (lipase, amylase), the core presentation strongly points to underlying pancreatic dysfunction impacting digestion, not primarily skin involvement.
*Trophozoites on stool microscopy*
- **Trophozoites** in stool suggest parasitic infections like **Giardiasis**, which can cause steatorrhea and malabsorption.
- However, the patient's long history of **alcohol abuse** and chronic epigastric pain makes chronic pancreatitis a much more likely explanation for her symptoms than a parasitic infection, especially given her travel history was seven years prior.
*Positive lactulose breath test*
- A **positive lactulose breath test** indicates **small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO)**, which can cause malabsorption and steatorrhea.
- While SIBO can occur as a complication of chronic pancreatitis, it is a less direct explanation for the entire constellation of symptoms (chronic pain, severe alcohol history, and weight loss) compared to the structural pancreatic changes seen in chronic pancreatitis.
*Villous atrophy of duodenal mucosa*
- **Villous atrophy of the duodenal mucosa** is characteristic of **celiac disease**, which also causes malabsorption and steatorrhea.
- However, the patient's **negative anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody assay** effectively rules out celiac disease as the cause of her symptoms.
Question 13: A 46-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past 4 hours. The pain is constant, radiates to his back, and is worse on lying down. He has had 3–4 episodes of greenish-colored vomit. He was treated for H. pylori infection around 2 months ago with triple-regimen therapy. He has atrial fibrillation and hypertension. He owns a distillery on the outskirts of a town. The patient drinks 4–5 alcoholic beverages daily. Current medications include dabigatran and metoprolol. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 102/min, and blood pressure is 138/86 mm Hg. Examination shows severe epigastric tenderness to palpation with guarding but no rebound. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. Rectal examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 53%
Leukocyte count 11,300/mm3
Serum
Na+ 133 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
K+ 3.1 mEq/L
Calcium 7.8 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 43 mg/dL
Glucose 271 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.0 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 0.7 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 61 U/L
AST 19 U/L
ALT 17 U/L
γ-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 88 u/L (N=5–50 U/L)
Lipase 900 U/L (N=14–280 U/L)
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Crystalloid fluid infusion (Correct Answer)
B. Fomepizole therapy
C. Calcium gluconate therapy
D. Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography
E. Laparotomy
Explanation: ***Crystalloid fluid infusion***
- The patient presents with **acute pancreatitis**, indicated by severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, vomiting, epigastric tenderness, and markedly elevated **lipase** (900 U/L).
- He shows clear signs of **hypovolemia**: elevated hematocrit (53%), elevated BUN/Cr ratio (43/2.0 = 21.5), and tachycardia.
- Pancreatitis causes significant **fluid shifts** and third-spacing, requiring aggressive **intravenous fluid resuscitation** with crystalloids (preferably lactated Ringer's) to prevent hypovolemic shock, acute kidney injury, and organ dysfunction.
- Early aggressive fluid resuscitation (250–500 mL/h initially) is the **cornerstone of acute pancreatitis management** and improves outcomes.
*Fomepizole therapy*
- **Fomepizole** is an antidote for **methanol** or **ethylene glycol** poisoning, which cause a high anion gap metabolic acidosis and visual disturbances.
- While the patient owns a distillery, his symptoms and lab findings (elevated lipase, hypocalcemia, mild leukocytosis) are consistent with **alcoholic pancreatitis**, not toxic alcohol ingestion.
- No anion gap is present, and there are no visual symptoms.
*Calcium gluconate therapy*
- Although the patient has **hypocalcemia** (7.8 mg/dL), which is common in severe pancreatitis due to fat saponification and calcium sequestration, routine calcium gluconate administration is generally **not recommended unless symptomatic**.
- Symptomatic hypocalcemia includes tetany, paresthesias, seizures, or prolonged QT interval, none of which are present.
- Aggressive fluid resuscitation and management of the underlying pancreatitis are higher priorities.
*Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography*
- **ERCP** is primarily indicated for **gallstone pancreatitis with cholangitis** or persistent biliary obstruction.
- This patient likely has **alcoholic pancreatitis** (heavy alcohol use, elevated GGT), and there's no evidence of biliary obstruction (normal bilirubin, AST, ALT, ALP).
- Routine early ERCP in acute pancreatitis without cholangitis is not beneficial and carries procedural risks.
*Laparotomy*
- **Laparotomy** (surgical exploration) is rarely indicated in the initial management of acute pancreatitis.
- It might be considered for complications such as infected necrosis, pancreatic abscess, or abdominal compartment syndrome, but there is no indication for surgical intervention in this patient at this stage.
- Initial management focuses on medical stabilization with fluid resuscitation and supportive care.
Question 14: A 50-year-old Caucasian man is admitted to the ER with an 8-hour history of intense abdominal pain that radiates to the back, nausea, and multiple episodes of vomiting. Past medical history is insignificant. His blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 20/min, and body temperature is 37.8°C (100°F). Upon examination, he has significant epigastric tenderness, and hypoactive bowel sounds. Serum lipase and amylase are elevated and the patient rapidly deteriorates, requiring transfer to the intensive care unit for a month. After being stabilized, he is transferred to the general medicine floor with an abdominal computed tomography (CT) reporting a well-circumscribed collection of fluid of homogeneous density. Which of the following best describes the condition this patient has developed?
A. Acute necrotic collection
B. Fistula formation
C. Walled-off necrosis
D. Pancreatic pseudocyst (Correct Answer)
E. Pancreatic cancer
Explanation: ***Pancreatic pseudocyst***
- The patient experienced an episode of **severe acute pancreatitis**, followed by the development of a well-circumscribed collection of fluid with homogeneous density, which is characteristic of a **pancreatic pseudocyst**.
- **Pseudocysts** are collections of pancreatic fluid and inflammatory exudates that become encapsulated by a fibrous wall, typically appearing around 4 weeks after an episode of acute pancreatitis.
*Acute necrotic collection*
- An **acute necrotic collection** is an early phase (within 4 weeks) of peripancreatic fluid collection that contains both fluid and non-viable pancreatic or peripancreatic tissue, which is not described as homogeneous in density.
- This term usually refers to the initial, unorganized collection of necrotic material, prior to the development of a well-defined wall.
*Fistula formation*
- **Fistula formation** involves an abnormal connection between two epithelialized organs or between an organ and the skin, which is not described by a well-circumscribed fluid collection.
- While it can be a complication of pancreatitis, the CT finding of a homogeneous fluid collection does not directly indicate a fistula.
*Walled-off necrosis*
- **Walled-off necrosis (WON)** is a mature collection (typically >4 weeks) of pancreatic and/or peripancreatic necrotic tissue that has developed a well-defined inflammatory wall but contains a significant solid/necrotic component.
- The CT description of a "homogeneous density" fluid collection does not align with WON, which would typically show heterogeneous density due to solid necrotic debris.
*Pancreatic cancer*
- **Pancreatic cancer** is an abnormal growth of cells within the pancreas and would typically present as a mass lesion, often with tissue invasion.
- While a pseudocyst can sometimes mimic a cystic tumor, the history of acute pancreatitis and the specific CT description of a homogeneous fluid collection make pancreatic cancer less likely in this context.
Question 15: A 49-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for the first time in twelve years. His chief complaint is a new onset of diarrhea, which nothing seems to improve. He first noticed this diarrhea about a month ago. He complains of greasy stools, which leave a residue in his toilet bowl. Review of systems is notable for alcohol consumption of 12-16 cans of beer per day for the last two decades. Additionally, the patient endorses losing 12 lbs unintentionally over the last month. Vital signs are within normal limits and stable. Exam demonstrates a male who appears older than stated age; abdominal exam is notable for epigastric tenderness to palpation. What is the next step in diagnosis?
A. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
B. Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy
C. d-Xylose absorption test
D. CT abdomen with IV contrast (Correct Answer)
E. EGD with biopsy of gastric mucosa
Explanation: ***CT abdomen with IV contrast***
- Given the patient's history of **heavy chronic alcohol intake**, **weight loss**, **new-onset diarrhea**, **greasy stools (steatorrhea)**, and **epigastric tenderness**, **chronic pancreatitis** with **exocrine pancreatic insufficiency** is highly suspected.
- A **CT scan of the abdomen with IV contrast** is the initial diagnostic test of choice to evaluate the pancreas for changes consistent with chronic pancreatitis, such as **calcifications**, **ductal dilation**, or **atrophy**, and also to rule out other causes like pancreatic tumors.
*Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)*
- **ERCP** is an **invasive procedure** primarily used therapeutically for conditions like **bile duct stones** or **strictures**, or sometimes for detailed pancreatic duct imaging.
- It is generally **not the first-line diagnostic test** for suspected chronic pancreatitis due to its invasive nature and risk of complications like pancreatitis.
*Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy*
- This imaging technique is primarily used to detect **neuroendocrine tumors (NETs)**, particularly those that express somatostatin receptors.
- While diarrhea can be a symptom of certain NETs (e.g., **VIPoma**), the patient's strong history of chronic alcohol abuse and steatorrhea points more directly to pancreatic exocrine insufficiency, making a CT scan a more appropriate initial investigation.
*d-Xylose absorption test*
- The **d-xylose absorption test** is used to assess **small bowel mucosal function** and differentiate between primary mucosal disease and pancreatic insufficiency as causes of malabsorption.
- In this case, with strong indicators for pancreatic dysfunction (greasy stools, chronic alcohol use), directly evaluating the pancreas via imaging is a more targeted next step.
*EGD with biopsy of gastric mucosa*
- **Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)** with biopsy is indicated for evaluating upper gastrointestinal symptoms, such as **dysphagia**, **gastric ulcers**, or **celiac disease**.
- While it could evaluate for celiac disease, the patient's history of heavy alcohol use and greasy stools makes **pancreatic insufficiency** a more probable cause of malabsorption, and EGD would not directly assess pancreatic function or structure.
Question 16: A 21-year-old college student comes to the emergency department because of a two-day history of vomiting and epigastric pain that radiates to the back. He has a history of atopic dermatitis and Hashimoto thyroiditis. His only medication is levothyroxine. He has not received any routine vaccinations. He drinks 1–2 beers on the weekends and occasionally smokes marijuana. The patient appears distressed and is diaphoretic. His temperature is 37.9°C (100.3°F), pulse is 105/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 130/78 mm Hg. Physical examination shows abdominal distention with tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium. There is no guarding or rebound tenderness. Skin examination shows several clusters of yellow plaques over the trunk and extensor surfaces of the extremities. Hemoglobin concentration is 15.2 g/dL and serum calcium concentration is 7.9 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?
A. Measure serum mumps IgM titer
B. Measure serum lipid levels (Correct Answer)
C. Obtain an upright x-ray of the abdomen
D. Perform a pilocarpine-induced sweat test
E. Measure stool elastase level
Explanation: ***Measure serum lipid levels***
- This patient presents with **epigastric pain radiating to the back**, vomiting, and potential signs of systemic inflammation (fever, tachycardia), suggestive of **pancreatitis**. One of the most common causes of pancreatitis, especially in the absence of gallstones or significant alcohol abuse, is **severe hypertriglyceridemia**.
- The presence of **yellow plaques over the trunk and extensor surfaces** (likely **eruptive xanthomas**) is a strong indicator of **severe hypertriglyceridemia**, making serum lipid measurement the most appropriate next step to confirm this etiology for his pancreatitis.
*Measure serum mumps IgM titer*
- While mumps can cause pancreatitis, this patient has not received routine vaccinations, but there is no specific exposure history or other symptoms (like **parotitis**) to strongly suggest mumps as the primary cause.
- The more compelling physical finding of eruptive xanthomas points more directly to **hypertriglyceridemia** as the cause of pancreatitis.
*Obtain an upright x-ray of the abdomen*
- An upright abdominal x-ray is primarily used to look for **free air under the diaphragm** as an indicator of a perforated viscus, which would present with peritonitis and guarding. This patient has **no guarding or rebound tenderness**.
- While it can show signs of ileus, it is not the most targeted test for diagnosing the *cause* of pancreatitis or conditions indicated by eruptive xanthomas.
*Perform a pilocarpine-induced sweat test*
- A **pilocarpine-induced sweat test** is used to diagnose **cystic fibrosis (CF)**, which can cause pancreatic insufficiency and pancreatitis, especially in younger individuals.
- While CF could be considered in a young patient with pancreatic symptoms, his presentation with clear signs of **hyperlipidemia (eruptive xanthomas)** makes this a less direct or immediate next step.
*Measure stool elastase level*
- **Stool elastase** is a test for **exocrine pancreatic insufficiency**, indicating chronic damage to the pancreas.
- This patient is presenting with acute pancreatitis, not chronic insufficiency, and the prominent physical findings point to an **acute metabolic cause** rather than chronic pancreatic dysfunction as the primary differential at this stage.
Question 17: A 43-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of severe epigastric pain and vomiting for 6 hours. The pain radiates to his back and he describes it as 9 out of 10 in intensity. He has had 3–4 episodes of vomiting during this period. He admits to consuming over 13 alcoholic beverages the previous night. There is no personal or family history of serious illness and he takes no medications. He is 177 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 55 kg (121 lb); BMI is 17.6 kg/m2. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), pulse is 97/min, and blood pressure is 128/78 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows severe epigastric tenderness to palpation. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Hematocrit 62%
Leukocyte count 13,800/mm3
Serum
Na+ 134 mEq/L
K+ 3.6 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
Calcium 8.3 mg/dL
Glucose 180 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Amylase 150 U/L
Lipase 347 U/L (N = 14–280)
Total bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 66 U/L
AST 19 U/L
ALT 18 U/L
LDH 360 U/L
Which of the following laboratory studies is the best prognostic indicator for this patient's condition?
A. AST/ALT ratio
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Total bilirubin
D. Lipase
E. Hematocrit (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hematocrit***
- A rising **hematocrit** (due to **hemoconcentration**) or one that fails to fall after initial fluid resuscitation is an important indicator of volume depletion and a **poor prognostic sign** in **acute pancreatitis**.
- This patient's hematocrit is elevated at **62%**, suggesting significant hemoconcentration and a higher risk for complications like **pancreatic necrosis**.
*AST/ALT ratio*
- While an elevated AST/ALT ratio can suggest **alcoholic liver disease**, it is not a direct **prognostic indicator** for the severity or outcome of **acute pancreatitis**.
- In pancreatitis, liver enzymes are typically elevated secondarily to inflammation or biliary obstruction, but their ratio does not directly predict the course of the pancreatitis itself.
*Alkaline phosphatase*
- **Alkaline phosphatase** is an indicator of **biliary obstruction** or **cholestasis**, which can be a cause of pancreatitis (e.g., gallstone pancreatitis).
- Its value does not directly predict the **severity** or **prognosis** of acute pancreatitis once it has developed, especially in a case of alcoholic pancreatitis.
*Total bilirubin*
- **Total bilirubin** levels primarily reflect **biliary obstruction** or **liver dysfunction**.
- While gallstone pancreatitis can increase bilirubin, it is not a primary prognostic marker for the development of severe complications in **acute pancreatitis**, nor is it significantly elevated in this patient.
*Lipase*
- **Elevated lipase** is highly specific and sensitive for the **diagnosis of acute pancreatitis**, confirming the diagnosis in this case.
- However, the absolute level of lipase does **not correlate** with the **severity** or **prognosis** of acute pancreatitis; even mild pancreatitis can have very high lipase levels.
Question 18: A 58-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of abdominal pain and vomiting. Initially, the vomitus was food that he had recently eaten, but it is now bilious. He has had similar complaints several times in the past 6 years. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 25 years and drinks 24 oz of alcohol daily. He is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 48 kg (105 lb); BMI is 19 kg/m2. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows an epigastric mass. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Retroperitoneal fibrosis
B. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
C. Pancreatic pseudocyst (Correct Answer)
D. Gastric adenocarcinoma
E. Chronic cholecystitis
Explanation: ***Pancreatic pseudocyst***
- The patient's history of **heavy alcohol use**, recurrent abdominal pain, and vomiting suggests **chronic pancreatitis**, a common cause of pseudocyst formation.
- The **epigastric mass** and symptoms consistent with **gastric outlet obstruction** (vomiting undigested food followed by bilious emesis) are classic presentations of a large pseudocyst compressing adjacent structures.
*Retroperitoneal fibrosis*
- This condition typically presents with symptoms related to **ureteral obstruction** (e.g., flank pain, renal failure) or vascular compression, not primarily with gastric outlet obstruction.
- While it can cause an abdominal mass, an epigastric location with recurrent vomiting is less characteristic.
*Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis*
- This condition is almost exclusively seen in **infants** (typically 3-6 weeks old) and is characterized by non-bilious projectile vomiting due to hypertrophy of the pylorus.
- It is highly unlikely in a 58-year-old man, and the vomiting eventually becoming bilious indicates obstruction *distal* to the ampulla of Vater.
*Gastric adenocarcinoma*
- While gastric adenocarcinoma can cause an epigastric mass and vomiting, it typically causes obstruction at or proximal to the pylorus, resulting in **non-bilious** vomiting rather than bilious emesis.
- The patient's long history of **recurrent similar episodes over 6 years** and heavy alcohol use makes **chronic pancreatitis** with pseudocyst formation a more likely etiology than a primary gastric malignancy.
*Chronic cholecystitis*
- This condition typically causes **right upper quadrant pain**, often radiating to the back or shoulder, and can be associated with nausea and vomiting, especially after fatty meals.
- It does not typically present with an **epigastric mass** or symptoms of gastric outlet obstruction.
Question 19: A 70-year-old male visits his primary care physician because of progressive weight loss. He has a 20-year history of smoking 2 packs of cigarettes a day and was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus 6 years ago. After physical examination, the physician tells the patient he suspects adenocarcinoma at the head of the pancreas. Which of the following physical examination findings would support the diagnosis?
A. Lymphadenopathy of the umbilicus
B. Splenomegaly
C. Acanthosis nigricans
D. Palpable gallbladder (Correct Answer)
E. Renal artery bruits
Explanation: ***Palpable gallbladder***
- A palpable, non-tender gallbladder in the presence of **jaundice** (often caused by obstruction of the common bile duct) is known as **Courvoisier's sign**, which is highly suggestive of pancreatic head adenocarcinoma.
- The tumor in the head of the pancreas can compress the distal common bile duct, leading to bile stasis and gallbladder distension.
*Lymphadenopathy of the umbilicus*
- **Umbilical lymphadenopathy**, specifically a **Sister Mary Joseph nodule**, indicates distant metastatic disease, often from intra-abdominal cancers like gastrointestinal or ovarian.
- While it points to an advanced malignancy, it is not a direct physical finding specific for initial suspicion of primary pancreatic head adenocarcinoma.
*Splenomegaly*
- **Splenomegaly** can be a feature of pancreatic cancer if there is splenic vein thrombosis due to tumor invasion, leading to **portal hypertension**.
- However, it is not a primary sign of pancreatic head adenocarcinoma and typically occurs in more advanced or specific cases.
*Acanthosis nigricans*
- **Acanthosis nigricans** is characterized by hyperpigmented, velvety plaques, often in skin folds, and can be a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with various malignancies, including pancreatic cancer.
- While possible, it is a less direct and less specific sign for pancreatic head adenocarcinoma compared to Courvoisier's sign.
*Renal artery bruits*
- **Renal artery bruits** indicate turbulent blood flow through the renal arteries, most commonly due to **renal artery stenosis**, which can cause hypertension.
- This finding is unrelated to pancreatic adenocarcinoma and would not support such a diagnosis.
Question 20: A 45-year-old man with a history of biliary colic presents with one-day of intractable nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain radiating to the back. Temperature is 99.7 deg F (37.6 deg C), blood pressure is 102/78 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 22/min. On abdominal exam, he has involuntary guarding and tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant and epigastric regions. Laboratory studies show white blood cell count 18,200/uL, alkaline phosphatase 650 U/L, total bilirubin 2.5 mg/dL, amylase 500 U/L, and lipase 1160 U/L. Which of the patient's laboratory findings is associated with increased mortality?
A. White blood cell count (Correct Answer)
B. Lipase
C. Amylase
D. Total bilirubin
E. Alkaline phosphatase
Explanation: ***White blood cell count***
- An **elevated white blood cell count (leukocytosis)** above 16,000/uL is a component of the **Ranson criteria** and can indicate severe inflammation and systemic response, which is associated with increased mortality in acute pancreatitis.
- This finding, in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory signs, points towards a more severe inflammatory process and potential for complications leading to worse outcomes.
*Lipase*
- While significantly elevated **lipase** levels (more than three times the upper limit of normal) are diagnostic for acute pancreatitis, the absolute value itself is not directly correlated with the severity or prognosis of the disease.
- Extremely high lipase levels confirm the diagnosis but do not reliably predict increased mortality.
*Amylase*
- Similar to lipase, markedly elevated **amylase** levels are crucial for diagnosing acute pancreatitis but do not significantly correlate with disease severity or mortality.
- The degree of amylase elevation does not predict the likelihood of complications or death.
*Total bilirubin*
- An elevated **total bilirubin** suggests biliary obstruction, which is often the underlying cause of gallstone pancreatitis in this case.
- While it points to the etiology, isolated bilirubin elevation is not a direct prognostic marker for increased mortality in acute pancreatitis unless it leads to severe complications like cholangitis or liver failure.
*Alkaline phosphatase*
- An elevated **alkaline phosphatase** also indicates cholestasis or biliary obstruction.
- Similar to bilirubin, it helps identify the cause of pancreatitis but is not included in common prognostic scoring systems (like Ranson's or APACHE II) as a direct predictor of increased mortality in acute pancreatitis itself.