A 45-year-old homeless man is brought to the emergency department by the police. He was found intoxicated and passed out in a library. The patient has a past medical history of IV drug abuse, diabetes, alcohol abuse, and malnutrition. The patient has been hospitalized previously for multiple episodes of pancreatitis and sepsis. Currently, the patient is minimally responsive and only withdraws his extremities in response to painful stimuli. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 90/48 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. Physical exam is notable for tachycardia, a diastolic murmur at the left lower sternal border, and bilateral crackles on pulmonary exam. The patient is started on IV fluids, vancomycin, and piperacillin-tazobactam. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 30%
Leukocyte count: 11,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 297,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 28 mEq/L
BUN: 33 mg/dL
Glucose: 60 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.7 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.7 mg/dL
PT: 20 seconds
aPTT: 60 seconds
AST: 1,010 U/L
ALT: 950 U/L
The patient is admitted to the medical floor. Five days later, the patient's neurological status has improved. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 11/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Laboratory values are repeated as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 10 g/dL
Hematocrit: 32%
Leukocyte count: 9,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 199,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 31 mg/dL
Glucose: 100 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.0 mg/dL
PT: 40 seconds
aPTT: 90 seconds
AST: 150 U/L
ALT: 90 U/L
Which of the following is the best description of this patient’s current status?
Q132
A 17-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a bilateral tremor of the hands. He is a senior in high school and during the year, his grades have plummeted to the point that he is failing. He says his memory is now poor, and he has trouble focusing on tasks. His behavior has changed in the past 6 months, in that he has frequent episodes of depression, separated by episodes of bizarre behavior, including excessive alcohol drinking and shoplifting. His parents have started to suspect that he is using street drugs, which he denies. His handwriting has become very sloppy. His parents have noted slight slurring of his speech. Family history is irrelevant. Physical examination reveals upper extremity tremors, mild dystonia of the upper extremities, and mild incoordination involving his hands. The patient’s eye is shown. Which of the following best represents the etiology of this patient illness?
Q133
A 48-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his primary care physician with lethargy, joint pain, and impotence. Lab evaluation is notable for a ferritin of 1400 ug/L (nl <300 ug/L), increased total iron, increased transferrin saturation, and decreased total iron binding capacity. All of the following are true regarding this patient's condition EXCEPT:
Q134
A 71-year-old woman comes to the physician because of an 8-month history of fatigue. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 13.3 g/dL, a serum creatinine concentration of 0.9 mg/dL, and a serum alkaline phosphatase concentration of 100 U/L. Laboratory evaluation of which of the following parameters would be most helpful in determining the cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q135
A 47-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of generalized fatigue, mild fever, abdominal pain, and nausea. She attended the state fair over a month ago, where she tried a number of regional foods, and wonders if it might have been caused by something she ate. She has also noticed darkening of her urine, which she attributes to not drinking enough water recently. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus. She drinks 1–2 beers daily. She works as nursing assistant in a rehabilitation facility. Current medications include glyburide, sitagliptin, and a multivitamin. She appears tired. Her temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 99/min, and blood pressure is 110/74 mm Hg. Examination shows mild scleral icterus. The liver is palpated 2–3 cm below the right costal margin and is tender. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.6 g/dL
Leukocyte count 11600/mm3
Platelet count 221,000/mm3
Serum
Urea nitrogen 26 mg/dL
Glucose 122 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.3 mg/dL
Bilirubin 3.6 mg/dL
Total 3.6 mg/dL
Direct 2.4 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 72 U/L
AST 488 U/L
ALT 798 U/L
Hepatitis A IgG antibody (HAV-IgG) positive
Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) positive
Hepatitis B core IgG antibody (anti-HBc) positive
Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) positive
Hepatitis C antibody (anti-HCV) negative
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q136
A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department for a 2-week history of right upper quadrant abdominal pain. She has also been feeling tired and nauseous for the past 5 weeks. She has a history of depression and suicidal ideation. She is a social worker for an international charity foundation. She used intravenous illicit drugs in the past but quit 4 months ago. Her only medication is sertraline. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F), pulse is 100/min, and blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg. She is alert and oriented. Scleral icterus is present. Abdominal examination shows tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant. The liver edge is palpated 3 cm below the right costal margin. There is no rebound tenderness or guarding. The abdomen is non-distended and the fluid wave test is negative. She is able to extend her arms with wrists in full extension and hold them steady without flapping. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.8 g/dL
Leukocytes 13,700/mm3
Platelets 165,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 14 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time 35 seconds
Serum:
Total bilirubin 4.8 mg/dL
Direct bilirubin 1.3 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase 1852 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase 2497 U/L
Urea nitrogen 21 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Hepatitis A IgM antibody Negative
Hepatitis B surface antigen Negative
Hepatitis B surface antibody Negative
Hepatitis B core IgM antibody Positive
Hepatitis C antibody Positive
Hepatitis C RNA Negative
Urine beta-hCG Negative
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q137
A 53-year-old woman presents to your office with several months of fatigue and abdominal pain. The pain is dull in character and unrelated to meals. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis for which she is taking ibuprofen, methotrexate, and metformin. She has 2-3 drinks on the weekends and does not use tobacco products. On physical examination, there is mild tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant. The liver span is 15 cm at the midclavicular line. Laboratory results are as follows:
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 3.7 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 13 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase: 100 U/L
AST: 70 U/L
ALT: 120 U/L
Bilirubin (total): 0.5 mg/dL
Bilirubin (conjugated): 0.1 mg/dL
Amylase: 76 U/L
What is the most likely cause of her clinical presentation?
Q138
A 44-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of lower extremity swelling and frothy urine. He has a history of chronic hepatitis C infection. Physical examination shows 3+ pitting edema of the lower legs and ankles. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following?
Q139
A 71-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter after she found him to be extremely confused at home. She says that he appeared to be fine in the morning; however, upon returning home, she found that he was slumped in his chair and was hard to arouse. She was worried that he may have taken too many medications and rushed him to the emergency department. His past medical history is significant for bipolar disorder and absence seizures. He does not smoke and drinks 4 alcoholic beverages per night on average. On physical exam, he is found to have a flapping tremor of his hands, pitting ankle edema, and gynecomastia. He does not appear to have any focal neurologic deficits. Which of the following lab findings would most likely be seen in this patient?
Q140
A 20-year-old man, who was previously healthy, is taken to the emergency department due to agitation during the past 24 hours. During the past week, his family members noticed a yellowish coloring of his skin and eyes. He occasionally uses cocaine and ecstasy, and he drinks alcohol (about 20 g) on weekends. The patient also admits to high-risk sexual behavior and does not use appropriate protection. Physical examination shows heart rate of 94/min, respiratory rate of 13/min, temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), and blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg. The patient shows psychomotor agitation, and he is not oriented to time and space. Other findings include asterixis, jaundice on the skin and mucous membranes, and epistaxis. The rest of the physical examination is normal. The laboratory tests show:
Hemoglobin 16.3 g/dL
Hematocrit 47%
Leukocyte count 9,750/mm3
Neutrophils 58%
Bands 2%
Eosinophils 1%
Basophils 0%
Lymphocytes 24%
Monocytes 2%
Platelet count 365,000/mm3
Bilirubin 25 mg/dL
AST 600 IU/L
ALT 650 IU/L
TP activity < 40%
INR 1.5
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Liver disease US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: A 45-year-old homeless man is brought to the emergency department by the police. He was found intoxicated and passed out in a library. The patient has a past medical history of IV drug abuse, diabetes, alcohol abuse, and malnutrition. The patient has been hospitalized previously for multiple episodes of pancreatitis and sepsis. Currently, the patient is minimally responsive and only withdraws his extremities in response to painful stimuli. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 90/48 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. Physical exam is notable for tachycardia, a diastolic murmur at the left lower sternal border, and bilateral crackles on pulmonary exam. The patient is started on IV fluids, vancomycin, and piperacillin-tazobactam. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 30%
Leukocyte count: 11,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 297,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 28 mEq/L
BUN: 33 mg/dL
Glucose: 60 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.7 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.7 mg/dL
PT: 20 seconds
aPTT: 60 seconds
AST: 1,010 U/L
ALT: 950 U/L
The patient is admitted to the medical floor. Five days later, the patient's neurological status has improved. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 11/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Laboratory values are repeated as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 10 g/dL
Hematocrit: 32%
Leukocyte count: 9,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 199,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 31 mg/dL
Glucose: 100 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.0 mg/dL
PT: 40 seconds
aPTT: 90 seconds
AST: 150 U/L
ALT: 90 U/L
Which of the following is the best description of this patient’s current status?
A. Recovery from acute renal failure
B. Acute renal failure
C. Recovery from ischemic liver disease
D. Fulminant liver failure (Correct Answer)
E. Recovery from acute alcoholic liver disease
Explanation: ***Fulminant liver failure***
- The patient's **prolonged PT (40 seconds)** and **aPTT (90 seconds)** after 5 days, despite improvements in other parameters, indicate a severe impairment in hepatic synthesis of clotting factors, which is a hallmark of **fulminant liver failure**.
- The initial presentation with **elevated AST/ALT (over 1000 U/L)** coupled with **encephalopathy (minimally responsive)** and subsequent worsening coagulopathy points towards acute liver failure, even if transaminases are improving.
*Recovery from acute renal failure*
- While the initial **creatinine (1.7 mg/dL)** was mildly elevated, it remained largely unchanged (1.6 mg/dL) after 5 days, indicating no significant acute renal failure or subsequent recovery.
- The patient’s fluid resuscitation and improved hemodynamics would likely lead to a more pronounced improvement in creatinine if significant acute renal failure had occurred and was recovering.
*Acute renal failure*
- The creatinine level, while slightly elevated, does not meet the criteria for significant **acute renal failure** (e.g., a >50% increase from baseline or a >0.3 mg/dL increase within 48 hours relative to his baseline, which is unknown but likely lower than 1.7 mg/dL given his other conditions).
- Furthermore, if true acute renal failure was present on admission, 5 days later with improved vitals, we would expect a clearer trend of either worsening or recovering creatinine, neither of which is strongly evident here.
*Recovery from ischemic liver disease*
- While the initial very high transaminases (AST 1010, ALT 950) could suggest **ischemic liver injury**, the subsequent significant prolongation of **PT and aPTT** (from 20 to 40 seconds and 60 to 90 seconds, respectively) indicates worsening synthetic dysfunction, not recovery.
- Recovery from ischemic liver disease would typically show improving coagulation parameters alongside decreasing transaminases.
*Recovery from acute alcoholic liver disease*
- Similar to recovery from ischemic liver disease, recovery from **acute alcoholic liver disease** would involve an improvement in liver synthetic function, reflected by a **shortening of PT/aPTT**, not a progressive prolongation as seen here.
- The patient's initial presentation is consistent with acute alcoholic hepatitis or other acute liver injury given his history and high LFTs, but the subsequent worsening coagulopathy rules out recovery.
Question 132: A 17-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a bilateral tremor of the hands. He is a senior in high school and during the year, his grades have plummeted to the point that he is failing. He says his memory is now poor, and he has trouble focusing on tasks. His behavior has changed in the past 6 months, in that he has frequent episodes of depression, separated by episodes of bizarre behavior, including excessive alcohol drinking and shoplifting. His parents have started to suspect that he is using street drugs, which he denies. His handwriting has become very sloppy. His parents have noted slight slurring of his speech. Family history is irrelevant. Physical examination reveals upper extremity tremors, mild dystonia of the upper extremities, and mild incoordination involving his hands. The patient’s eye is shown. Which of the following best represents the etiology of this patient illness?
A. Autoimmune process following infection with group A streptococci
B. Mineral accumulation in the basal ganglia (Correct Answer)
C. Autosomal dominant, trinucleotide repeat disorder
D. Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the nigrostriatal pathway
E. Central nervous system demyelination
Explanation: ***Mineral accumulation in the basal ganglia***
- This patient presents with a classic constellation of symptoms consistent with **Wilson's disease**, including **neurological symptoms** (tremor, dystonia, incoordination, slurred speech, handwriting changes), **psychiatric symptoms** (depression, bizarre behavior, memory issues), and **hepatic involvement** (though not explicitly stated, often implied by the systemic nature). The image of the eye likely shows a **Kayser-Fleischer ring**, which is pathognomonic for copper deposition in the cornea.
- Wilson's disease is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by impaired copper excretion, leading to **copper accumulation** in the liver, brain (especially **basal ganglia**), and other organs.
*Autoimmune process following infection with group A streptococci*
- This describes **Sydenham chorea**, a manifestation of acute rheumatic fever, characterized by rapid, involuntary movements.
- While it can cause neurological symptoms, the presentation here with **tremors**, **dystonia**, and **Kayser-Fleischer rings** is inconsistent.
*Autosomal dominant, trinucleotide repeat disorder*
- This describes **Huntington's disease**, which presents with chorea, cognitive decline, and psychiatric symptoms.
- However, Huntington's disease typically manifests later in life and does not feature **Kayser-Fleischer rings** or the specific constellation of motor symptoms seen here.
*Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the nigrostriatal pathway*
- This is the hallmark of **Parkinson's disease**, characterized by resting tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity, and postural instability.
- The patient's age (17 years old) and the specific presentation (dystonia, Kayser-Fleischer rings) make Parkinson's disease highly unlikely.
*Central nervous system demyelination*
- This describes conditions like **multiple sclerosis**, which involves neurological deficits that can be varied, including motor, sensory, and cognitive symptoms.
- While some symptoms like incoordination could overlap, the presence of **Kayser-Fleischer rings**, psychiatric disturbances, and the specific tremor/dystonia pattern are not typical of demyelinating diseases.
Question 133: A 48-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his primary care physician with lethargy, joint pain, and impotence. Lab evaluation is notable for a ferritin of 1400 ug/L (nl <300 ug/L), increased total iron, increased transferrin saturation, and decreased total iron binding capacity. All of the following are true regarding this patient's condition EXCEPT:
A. It is associated with an increased risk for hepatocellular carcinoma
B. It may improve with serial phlebotomy
C. It may lead to a decline in cardiac function
D. It results in skin bronzing
E. It may improve with calcium chelators (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***It may improve with calcium chelators***
- This patient presents with symptoms and lab findings consistent with **hereditary hemochromatosis**, an iron overload disorder. **Calcium chelators** are used for calcium overload conditions, not for iron overload, and thus would not improve this patient's condition.
- The primary treatment for **iron overload** is **therapeutic phlebotomy** or iron chelators such as **deferoxamine**, **deferiprone**, or **deferasirox**.
*It is associated with an increased risk for hepatocellular carcinoma*
- **Hereditary hemochromatosis** significantly increases the risk of developing **hepatocellular carcinoma** due to chronic liver damage and cirrhosis caused by iron accumulation.
- This risk is particularly high in patients who develop **cirrhosis** as a complication of hemochromatosis.
*It may improve with serial phlebotomy*
- **Serial therapeutic phlebotomy** is the mainstay of treatment for primary hemochromatosis, as it effectively removes excess iron from the body.
- Regular blood draws help to reduce **iron stores**, lower ferritin levels, and prevent further organ damage.
*It may lead to a decline in cardiac function*
- **Iron deposition** in the heart muscle (cardiomyopathy) can lead to impaired cardiac function, resulting in **dilated cardiomyopathy**, arrhythmias, and eventually **heart failure**.
- This is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in untreated hemochromatosis.
*It results in skin bronzing*
- **Iron deposition** in the skin can lead to a characteristic **bronze or grayish discoloration**, often referred to as "bronze diabetes" when diabetes is also present.
- This skin pigmentation is a common clinical feature of advanced hemochromatosis.
Question 134: A 71-year-old woman comes to the physician because of an 8-month history of fatigue. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 13.3 g/dL, a serum creatinine concentration of 0.9 mg/dL, and a serum alkaline phosphatase concentration of 100 U/L. Laboratory evaluation of which of the following parameters would be most helpful in determining the cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Cancer antigen 27-29
B. Calcitriol
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Ferritin (Correct Answer)
E. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase
Explanation: ***Correct: Ferritin***
- The patient's fatigue associated with a normal hemoglobin and creatinine suggests a subtle cause for fatigue, and **iron deficiency without anemia** (iron deficiency anemia can cause decrease in hemoglobin levels) is a common cause, which would be identified by low ferritin levels.
- Ferritin is a **storage protein for iron**, and its levels accurately reflect the body's iron stores and are the most sensitive indicator for iron deficiency.
*Incorrect: Cancer antigen 27-29*
- This marker is primarily used to monitor **breast cancer recurrence** or progression, not for initial diagnosis or as a general screen for fatigue.
- There is no clinical indication in the patient's presentation that suggests breast cancer, making this an unlikely and unhelpful test.
*Incorrect: Calcitriol*
- Calcitriol is the active form of vitamin D, primarily involved in **calcium and phosphorus metabolism** and bone health.
- While vitamin D deficiency can cause fatigue, the patient's normal alkaline phosphatase (ALP is elevated in vitamin D deficiency due to secondary hyperparathyroidism) and absence of other related symptoms make calcitriol assessment less likely to be the most helpful first step.
*Incorrect: Lactate dehydrogenase*
- **LDH is a general marker of tissue damage and cell turnover**, elevated in conditions like hemolysis, malignancy, or liver disease.
- It is a non-specific marker that would not pinpoint the cause of fatigue in this patient with otherwise normal baseline labs.
*Incorrect: Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase*
- GGT is an enzyme primarily used to assess **liver function and bile duct obstruction**, often in conjunction with alkaline phosphatase.
- Given the patient's normal alkaline phosphatase and no other signs of liver disease, GGT would not be a helpful test for fatigue in this context.
Question 135: A 47-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of generalized fatigue, mild fever, abdominal pain, and nausea. She attended the state fair over a month ago, where she tried a number of regional foods, and wonders if it might have been caused by something she ate. She has also noticed darkening of her urine, which she attributes to not drinking enough water recently. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus. She drinks 1–2 beers daily. She works as nursing assistant in a rehabilitation facility. Current medications include glyburide, sitagliptin, and a multivitamin. She appears tired. Her temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 99/min, and blood pressure is 110/74 mm Hg. Examination shows mild scleral icterus. The liver is palpated 2–3 cm below the right costal margin and is tender. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.6 g/dL
Leukocyte count 11600/mm3
Platelet count 221,000/mm3
Serum
Urea nitrogen 26 mg/dL
Glucose 122 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.3 mg/dL
Bilirubin 3.6 mg/dL
Total 3.6 mg/dL
Direct 2.4 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 72 U/L
AST 488 U/L
ALT 798 U/L
Hepatitis A IgG antibody (HAV-IgG) positive
Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) positive
Hepatitis B core IgG antibody (anti-HBc) positive
Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) positive
Hepatitis C antibody (anti-HCV) negative
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute hepatitis B infection
B. Resolved acute hepatitis B infection
C. Active chronic hepatitis B infection (Correct Answer)
D. Alcoholic hepatitis
E. Inactive chronic hepatitis B infection
Explanation: ***Active chronic hepatitis B infection***
- The presence of **HBsAg positive**, **anti-HBc IgG positive** (not IgM), and **HBeAg positive** indicates chronic hepatitis B infection with active viral replication.
- The key distinguishing feature is **anti-HBc IgG** rather than anti-HBc IgM. In acute hepatitis B, **anti-HBc IgM** would be positive, whereas **anti-HBc IgG** indicates infection that occurred more than 6 months ago (chronic infection).
- The **HBeAg positivity** indicates active viral replication and high infectivity, making this an "active" chronic infection rather than an inactive carrier state.
- The markedly elevated **AST (488 U/L)** and **ALT (798 U/L)** levels indicate significant hepatocellular damage with active inflammation.
- Clinical features of **scleral icterus**, **dark urine** (conjugated hyperbilirubinemia), **fever**, **fatigue**, and **abdominal pain** are consistent with active hepatitis.
*Acute hepatitis B infection*
- This is ruled out by the presence of **anti-HBc IgG** rather than **anti-HBc IgM**.
- In acute hepatitis B infection, **anti-HBc IgM** (the IgM class antibody to core antigen) would be positive, indicating recent infection.
- The presence of IgG class antibody indicates the infection occurred more than 6 months ago, establishing chronicity.
*Resolved acute hepatitis B infection*
- In resolved infection, **HBsAg** would be negative, and **anti-HBs** (Hepatitis B surface antibody) would be positive, indicating immunity.
- This patient is **HBsAg positive**, ruling out resolved infection.
- Resolved infection would not cause the current hepatocellular injury.
*Alcoholic hepatitis*
- Although the patient drinks 1-2 beers daily (modest consumption), the **AST:ALT ratio** (488:798 = 0.61) is less than 2:1.
- In alcoholic hepatitis, the AST:ALT ratio is typically **>2:1** due to alcohol-induced pyridoxine deficiency affecting ALT more than AST.
- The specific **viral serology markers** (positive HBsAg, HBeAg, and anti-HBc IgG) definitively establish hepatitis B as the cause of liver inflammation.
*Inactive chronic hepatitis B infection*
- In inactive chronic hepatitis B (also called inactive carrier state), **HBsAg** would be positive, but **HBeAg** would be negative with positive **anti-HBe** antibody.
- **ALT levels** are typically normal or minimally elevated (<40-50 U/L) in inactive carriers, not markedly elevated as in this case (ALT 798 U/L).
- The positive **HBeAg** and significantly elevated transaminases indicate active viral replication and inflammation, not an inactive state.
Question 136: A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department for a 2-week history of right upper quadrant abdominal pain. She has also been feeling tired and nauseous for the past 5 weeks. She has a history of depression and suicidal ideation. She is a social worker for an international charity foundation. She used intravenous illicit drugs in the past but quit 4 months ago. Her only medication is sertraline. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F), pulse is 100/min, and blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg. She is alert and oriented. Scleral icterus is present. Abdominal examination shows tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant. The liver edge is palpated 3 cm below the right costal margin. There is no rebound tenderness or guarding. The abdomen is non-distended and the fluid wave test is negative. She is able to extend her arms with wrists in full extension and hold them steady without flapping. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.8 g/dL
Leukocytes 13,700/mm3
Platelets 165,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 14 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time 35 seconds
Serum:
Total bilirubin 4.8 mg/dL
Direct bilirubin 1.3 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase 1852 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase 2497 U/L
Urea nitrogen 21 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Hepatitis A IgM antibody Negative
Hepatitis B surface antigen Negative
Hepatitis B surface antibody Negative
Hepatitis B core IgM antibody Positive
Hepatitis C antibody Positive
Hepatitis C RNA Negative
Urine beta-hCG Negative
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Supportive therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Vaccination against Hepatitis B
C. Ribavirin and interferon
D. Tenofovir
E. Pegylated interferon-alpha
Explanation: ***Supportive therapy***
- The patient has **acute hepatitis B** based on positive **hepatitis B core IgM antibody** and highly elevated **ALT** and **AST** (>2000 U/L).
- The serological pattern (**HBsAg negative, HBcore IgM positive, HBsAb negative**) represents the **"window period"** of acute hepatitis B, occurring when HBsAg has cleared but HBsAb has not yet developed.
- Acute hepatitis B in **immunocompetent adults** is typically **self-limiting** (>95% clearance rate), making **supportive care** the appropriate management.
- No signs of **hepatic encephalopathy** (no asterixis), **coagulopathy** (PT normal), or **fulminant hepatic failure** are present, so antiviral therapy is not indicated.
- While she has **Hepatitis C antibody positive**, the **Hepatitis C RNA is negative**, indicating **resolved past infection** (likely from prior IV drug use) and not the cause of her current acute hepatitis.
*Vaccination against Hepatitis B*
- **Vaccination is contraindicated** during active/acute hepatitis B infection, as evidenced by positive **Hepatitis B core IgM antibody**.
- Vaccination is for **prevention**, not treatment, of existing infection.
*Ribavirin and interferon*
- This combination therapy was historically used for **chronic hepatitis C infection**, which this patient does not have (negative HCV RNA indicates resolved infection).
- It is **not indicated for acute hepatitis B** treatment.
*Tenofovir*
- **Tenofovir** is an antiviral agent used to treat **chronic hepatitis B** or **severe/fulminant acute hepatitis B** with signs of liver failure.
- Given the patient's **immunocompetent status**, absence of hepatic decompensation, and the typically **self-limiting nature of acute HBV** in adults, antiviral therapy is **not indicated**.
- Treatment would only be considered if signs of **fulminant hepatic failure** develop (encephalopathy, severe coagulopathy, rapidly rising bilirubin).
*Pegylated interferon-alpha*
- **Pegylated interferon-alpha** is used in some cases of **chronic hepatitis B and C**, but it is **not indicated for acute hepatitis B** in immunocompetent adults.
- The infection is expected to resolve spontaneously with supportive care in >95% of immunocompetent adults.
- Side effects are significant, and its use is reserved for chronic cases, not acute self-limiting presentations.
Question 137: A 53-year-old woman presents to your office with several months of fatigue and abdominal pain. The pain is dull in character and unrelated to meals. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis for which she is taking ibuprofen, methotrexate, and metformin. She has 2-3 drinks on the weekends and does not use tobacco products. On physical examination, there is mild tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant. The liver span is 15 cm at the midclavicular line. Laboratory results are as follows:
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 3.7 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 13 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase: 100 U/L
AST: 70 U/L
ALT: 120 U/L
Bilirubin (total): 0.5 mg/dL
Bilirubin (conjugated): 0.1 mg/dL
Amylase: 76 U/L
What is the most likely cause of her clinical presentation?
A. Copper accumulation in hepatocytes
B. Autoimmune destruction of the intralobular bile ducts
C. Fatty infiltration of hepatocytes (Correct Answer)
D. Alcohol-induced destruction of hepatocytes
E. Drug-induced liver damage
Explanation: ***Fatty infiltration of hepatocytes***
- The patient's history of **type 2 diabetes mellitus** and **obesity** (implied by diabetes and fatty liver risk) makes **non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)**, primarily fatty infiltration, the most probable cause of her elevated liver enzymes (ALT > AST) and fatigue.
- NAFLD often presents with **mildly elevated transaminases** and can cause fatigue and dull right upper quadrant pain, consistent with her symptoms and physical exam findings.
*Copper accumulation in hepatocytes*
- This presentation suggests **Wilson's disease**, which typically manifests at a younger age and includes psychiatric or neurological symptoms not described here.
- Hepatic copper accumulation usually leads to significantly worse liver function and may present with Kayser-Fleischer rings.
*Autoimmune destruction of the intralobular bile ducts*
- This describes **primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)**, which is characterized by elevated **alkaline phosphatase** and positive **anti-mitochondrial antibodies**.
- The patient's alkaline phosphatase is normal, and there is no mention of pruritus or jaundice, making PBC less likely.
*Alcohol-induced destruction of hepatocytes*
- While alcohol can cause liver damage, her reported consumption of "2-3 drinks on the weekends" is considered **moderate** and unlikely to cause significant alcoholic hepatitis or fatty liver disease with these specific lab findings.
- Alcoholic liver disease typically presents with an **AST:ALT ratio of 2:1 or more**, which is not seen here (AST 70, ALT 120).
*Drug-induced liver damage*
- Although the patient is on **methotrexate**, which can cause hepatotoxicity, the pattern of liver enzyme elevation (ALT > AST) and her comorbidities (diabetes) make NAFLD a more direct and common cause for this presentation.
- While ibuprofen can cause mild liver injury, it's not typically the primary cause of chronic transaminitis in this context.
Question 138: A 44-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of lower extremity swelling and frothy urine. He has a history of chronic hepatitis C infection. Physical examination shows 3+ pitting edema of the lower legs and ankles. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Decreased cholesterol
B. Decreased blood urea nitrogen
C. Increased antithrombin III
D. Decreased cystatin C
E. Increased lipoproteins (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increased lipoproteins***
- The patient's symptoms (**lower extremity swelling**, **frothy urine**) and history of **hepatitis C infection** are highly suggestive of **nephrotic syndrome**.
- **Nephrotic syndrome** is characterized by severe proteinuria, leading to **hypoalbuminemia**, edema, and often **compensatory hyperlipidemia** (increased lipoproteins) due to increased hepatic synthesis of lipids.
*Decreased cholesterol*
- **Nephrotic syndrome** typically leads to **hyperlipidemia**, including **elevated cholesterol levels**, not decreased, as the liver compensates for protein loss by increasing lipid synthesis.
- This is a key diagnostic feature differentiating nephrotic syndrome from other conditions that might cause edema.
*Decreased blood urea nitrogen*
- In **nephrotic syndrome**, kidney function might initially be preserved, or kidney injury could lead to **increased BUN** if glomerular filtration rate (GFR) significantly declines.
- **Decreased BUN** is usually seen in conditions like liver failure, overhydration, or low protein diet, which are not suggested by the clinical picture.
*Increased antithrombin III*
- Patients with **nephrotic syndrome** typically have **decreased levels of antithrombin III** due to urinary loss of this anticoagulant protein, increasing their risk of **thrombosis**.
- Therefore, an increase in antithrombin III would be highly unlikely and is contrary to the pathophysiology of nephrotic syndrome.
*Decreased cystatin C*
- **Cystatin C** is an endogenous marker of **renal function** (similar to creatinine), and its levels usually **increase** when glomerular filtration rate (GFR) decreases, indicating kidney impairment.
- A decrease in cystatin C would suggest improved or hyper-filtration, which is not consistent with the signs of kidney damage seen in nephrotic syndrome.
Question 139: A 71-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter after she found him to be extremely confused at home. She says that he appeared to be fine in the morning; however, upon returning home, she found that he was slumped in his chair and was hard to arouse. She was worried that he may have taken too many medications and rushed him to the emergency department. His past medical history is significant for bipolar disorder and absence seizures. He does not smoke and drinks 4 alcoholic beverages per night on average. On physical exam, he is found to have a flapping tremor of his hands, pitting ankle edema, and gynecomastia. He does not appear to have any focal neurologic deficits. Which of the following lab findings would most likely be seen in this patient?
A. Increased d-dimer levels
B. Increased antidepressant levels
C. Increased bleeding time
D. Increased prothrombin time (Correct Answer)
E. Increased anticonvulsant levels
Explanation: ***Increased prothrombin time***
- The patient's history of **bipolar disorder** and **absence seizures** suggests he is likely on **valproic acid** or **carbamazepine**. His presentation of confusion, **flapping tremor** (asterixis), **pitting edema**, and **gynecomastia** are signs of **hepatic encephalopathy** due to **liver cirrhosis**.
- **Chronic alcohol consumption** (4 drinks/night) is a significant risk factor for cirrhosis. **Liver cirrhosis** impairs the synthesis of **coagulation factors** produced by the liver, leading to a **prolonged prothrombin time (PT)** and an **elevated international normalized ratio (INR)**.
*Increased d-dimer levels*
- **Increased d-dimer levels** indicate activation of the coagulation and fibrinolytic systems, typically seen in conditions like **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**, **pulmonary embolism (PE)**, or **disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)**.
- While liver disease can be associated with coagulation abnormalities, the patient's symptoms and signs are more consistent with liver failure and its impact on clotting factor production, rather than acute thrombotic events that would primarily elevate d-dimer.
*Increased antidepressant levels*
- The patient has **bipolar disorder**, but the current presentation of **hepatic encephalopathy** is not primarily related to antidepressant toxicity, although some antidepressants are metabolized by the liver.
- The constellation of symptoms (confusion, asterixis, edema, gynecomastia) points towards **liver dysfunction** rather than an overdose of antidepressants.
*Increased bleeding time*
- **Increased bleeding time** suggests a problem with **platelet function** or **platelet count**, such as in **thrombocytopenia** or **von Willebrand disease**.
- While patients with **liver cirrhosis** can develop **thrombocytopenia** due to **hypersplenism** or reduced **thrombopoietin**, the primary coagulation abnormality directly linked to impaired liver synthetic function is a **prolonged PT/INR**, reflecting deficiencies in factors II, VII, IX, and X.
*Increased anticonvulsant levels*
- While the patient is likely on **anticonvulsants** for absence seizures and **mood stabilizers** for bipolar disorder (some of which are also anticonvulsants, like valproic acid), the clinical picture of **hepatic encephalopathy** due to **cirrhosis** is the more encompassing diagnosis.
- High levels of certain anticonvulsants can cause confusion, but the additional physical signs like **gynecomastia**, **edema**, and **asterixis** strongly point to **liver failure**, which would then affect the metabolism of these drugs, rather than simply an isolated anticonvulsant overdose.
Question 140: A 20-year-old man, who was previously healthy, is taken to the emergency department due to agitation during the past 24 hours. During the past week, his family members noticed a yellowish coloring of his skin and eyes. He occasionally uses cocaine and ecstasy, and he drinks alcohol (about 20 g) on weekends. The patient also admits to high-risk sexual behavior and does not use appropriate protection. Physical examination shows heart rate of 94/min, respiratory rate of 13/min, temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), and blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg. The patient shows psychomotor agitation, and he is not oriented to time and space. Other findings include asterixis, jaundice on the skin and mucous membranes, and epistaxis. The rest of the physical examination is normal. The laboratory tests show:
Hemoglobin 16.3 g/dL
Hematocrit 47%
Leukocyte count 9,750/mm3
Neutrophils 58%
Bands 2%
Eosinophils 1%
Basophils 0%
Lymphocytes 24%
Monocytes 2%
Platelet count 365,000/mm3
Bilirubin 25 mg/dL
AST 600 IU/L
ALT 650 IU/L
TP activity < 40%
INR 1.5
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fulminant hepatic failure (Correct Answer)
B. Ecstasy intoxication
C. Alcoholic hepatitis
D. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
E. Cocaine-abstinence syndrome
Explanation: ***Fulminant hepatic failure***
- The patient's **acute onset of jaundice**, **hepatic encephalopathy** (agitation, disorientation, asterixis), and significantly elevated **liver transaminases (AST, ALT)**, along with impaired synthetic function (prolonged INR, reduced TP activity), are characteristic of fulminant hepatic failure.
- The history of high-risk sexual behavior and drug use (cocaine, ecstasy) suggests potential causes like **viral hepatitis** (e.g., hepatitis B or C), which can lead to this severe condition, although the specific etiology is not explicitly stated.
*Ecstasy intoxication*
- While ecstasy use can cause **hyperthermia** and **hyponatremia**, leading to altered mental status, it typically does not cause such marked **hepatic dysfunction** with **jaundice** and **coagulopathy** without very high doses or pre-existing liver disease.
- The patient's presentation with **jaundice** and **coagulopathy** indicates severe liver damage beyond what is typically expected from acute ecstasy intoxication alone.
*Alcoholic hepatitis*
- Although the patient consumes alcohol, the amount (20g on weekends) is **not sufficient to cause severe alcoholic hepatitis**.
- Alcoholic hepatitis typically presents with a history of **heavy chronic alcohol use**, and AST is usually higher than ALT (AST:ALT ratio > 2:1), which is not the case here (AST 600, ALT 650).
*Hemolytic uremic syndrome*
- HUS is characterized by a triad of **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia**, **thrombocytopenia**, and **acute kidney injury**.
- Although this patient has some neurological symptoms and epistaxis (suggesting potential bleeding diathesis), the **severe jaundice**, **markedly elevated transaminases**, and **prolonged INR** are not typical features of HUS.
*Cocaine-abstinence syndrome*
- **Cocaine withdrawal** symptoms include fatigue, vivid dreams, insomnia or hypersomnia, increased appetite, and psychomotor agitation or retardation.
- This syndrome does **not explain the severe liver dysfunction**, jaundice, or coagulopathy observed in this patient.