A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department after vomiting blood an hour ago. He says this happens to him occasionally but denies feeling pain in these episodes. The man is disheveled and has slurred speech as he describes his symptoms. He is reluctant to give further history and wants immediate treatment of his condition. Upon examination, the patient has evidence of tortuous veins visible on his abdomen plus a yellow tinge to his sclerae. He suddenly begins vomiting copious amounts of blood and soon becomes unresponsive. His blood pressure drops to 70/40 mm Hg. He is given 3 units of whole blood but passes away shortly after the incident. Which of the following was the most likely cause of his vomiting of blood?
Q102
A 33-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. She was treated for a urinary stone 1 year ago with medical expulsive therapy. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive pill that she has been taking for 12 years. She appears healthy. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A complete blood count, serum creatinine, and electrolytes are within the reference range. Urinalysis is within normal limits. An ultrasound of the abdomen shows a well-demarcated hyperechoic 3-cm (1.2-in) hepatic lesion. A contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen shows a well-demarcated 3-cm hepatic lesion with peripheral enhancement and subsequent centripetal flow followed by rapid clearance of contrast. There is no hypoattenuating central scar. In addition to stopping the oral contraceptive pill, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q103
A 19-year-old man comes to the physician because of recurrent yellowing of his eyes over the past 2 years. He reports that each episode lasts 1–2 weeks and resolves spontaneously. He has no family history of serious illness. He recently spent a week in Mexico for a vacation. He is sexually active with two partners and uses condoms inconsistently. He does not drink alcohol or use illicit drugs. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows jaundice of the conjunctivae and the skin. The abdomen is soft with no organomegaly. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Total bilirubin 4.0 mg/dL
Direct bilirubin 3.0 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 75 U/L
AST 12 U/L
ALT 12 U/L
Anti-HAV IgG positive
HBsAg negative
Anti-HBsAg positive
HCV RNA negative
Urine
Bilirubin present
Urobilinogen normal
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
Q104
A 58-year-old man with a history of hepatitis C presents with unintentional weight loss, weakness, jaundice, splenomegaly, and caput medusae. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial test to assess the degree of hepatocellular injury?
Q105
A 32-year-old woman visits the office with a complaint of recurrent abdominal pain for the past 2 months. She says the pain has been increasing every day and is located in the right upper quadrant. She has been using oral contraceptive pills for the past 2 years. She is a nonsmoker and does not drink alcohol. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 85/min, respiratory rate of 16/min, temperature of 37.6 °C (99.68 °F), and blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals right upper quadrant tenderness and hepatomegaly 3 cm below the right costal border. Her serology tests for viral hepatitis are as follows:
HBsAg Negative
Anti-HBs Negative
IgM anti-HBc Negative
Anti-HCV Negative
A hepatic ultrasound shows hepatomegaly with diffusely increased echogenicity and a well-defined, predominantly hypoechoic mass in segment VI of the right lobe of the liver. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q106
A 47-year-old man with alcoholic cirrhosis comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Examination of the skin shows erythema over the thenar and hypothenar eminences of both hands. He also has numerous blanching lesions over the trunk and upper extremities that have a central red vessel with thin extensions radiating outwards. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of these findings?
Q107
A 42-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with recent swelling in his legs that has now spread to the lower part of his thighs. He sometimes has difficulty putting on his shoes and pants. He also noticed puffiness under his eyes over the last 3 weeks. A 24-hour urine collection confirms proteinuria of 5 g/day. Electron microscopy of a renal biopsy specimen reveals subepithelial deposits with a spike and dome pattern. Which of the following is associated with this patient’s condition?
Q108
A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department when he was found obtunded at the homeless shelter. The patient is currently not responsive and smells of alcohol. The patient has a past medical history of alcohol use, IV drug use, and hepatitis C. His temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 95/65 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. The patient is started on IV fluids, and his pulse decreases to 70/min. On physical exam, the patient has an abdominal exam notable for distension and a positive fluid wave. The patient displays mild yellow discoloration of his skin. The patient has notable poor dentition and poor hygiene overall. A systolic murmur is heard along the left sternal border on cardiac exam. Pulmonary exam is notable for mild bibasilar crackles. Laboratory values are ordered, and return as below:
Hemoglobin: 10 g/dL
Hematocrit: 32%
Leukocyte count: 7,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 227,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 125 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 5.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 51 mg/dL
Glucose: 89 mg/dL
Creatinine: 2.2 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.0 mg/dL
AST: 22 U/L
ALT: 19 U/L
Urine:
Color: Amber
Nitrites: Negative
Sodium: 12 mmol/24 hours
Red blood cells: 0/hpf
Over the next 24 hours, the patient produces very little urine. Which of the following best explains this patient’s renal findings?
Q109
A 72-year-old man comes to the emergency department for progressively worsening abdominal pain. The pain began 2 weeks ago and is localized to the right upper quadrant. He feels sick and fatigued. He also reports breathlessness when climbing the stairs to his first-floor apartment. He is a retired painter. He has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is sexually active with one female partner and does not use condoms consistently. He began having sexual relations with his most recent partner 2 months ago. He smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years but quit 10 years ago. He does not drink alcohol. Current medications include insulin and enalapril. He is 181 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 110 kg (264 lb); BMI is 33.5 kg/m2. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows jaundice, a distended abdomen, and tender hepatomegaly. There is no jugular venous distention. A grade 2/6 systolic ejection murmur is heard along the right upper sternal border. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 18.9 g/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase 450 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase 335 U/L
Total bilirubin 2.1 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Q110
A 45-year-old man presents for a routine checkup. He says he has arthralgia in his hands and wrists. No significant past medical history. The patient takes no current medications. Family history is significant for his grandfather who died of liver cirrhosis from an unknown disease. He denies any alcohol use or alcoholism in the family. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is bronze hyperpigmentation of the skin and significant hepatomegaly is noted. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is true about this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
Liver disease US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department after vomiting blood an hour ago. He says this happens to him occasionally but denies feeling pain in these episodes. The man is disheveled and has slurred speech as he describes his symptoms. He is reluctant to give further history and wants immediate treatment of his condition. Upon examination, the patient has evidence of tortuous veins visible on his abdomen plus a yellow tinge to his sclerae. He suddenly begins vomiting copious amounts of blood and soon becomes unresponsive. His blood pressure drops to 70/40 mm Hg. He is given 3 units of whole blood but passes away shortly after the incident. Which of the following was the most likely cause of his vomiting of blood?
A. Increased pressure in the distal esophageal vein due to increased pressure in the left gastric vein (Correct Answer)
B. Decreased GABA activity due to downregulation of receptors
C. Lacerations of the mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction
D. Inflammation of the portal tract due to a chronic viral illness
E. Perforation of the gastric mucosa
Explanation: ***Increased pressure in the distal esophageal vein due to increased pressure in the left gastric vein***
- This patient's presentation with **hematemesis**, **jaundice** (yellow tinge to sclerae), and **caput medusae** (tortuous veins on the abdomen) strongly indicates **portal hypertension** due to **liver cirrhosis**.
- **Esophageal varices**, formed by increased pressure in the left gastric vein (a tributary of the portal vein) leading to dilated distal esophageal veins, are a common and life-threatening complication of portal hypertension, often rupturing and causing massive upper GI bleeding.
*Decreased GABA activity due to downregulation of receptors*
- **Decreased GABA activity** is associated with neurological complications of liver disease, such as **hepatic encephalopathy**, which could explain the patient's slurred speech and disheveled appearance.
- However, this mechanism does not directly cause **vomiting of blood (hematemesis)**, which is the primary and fatal event described.
*Lacerations of the mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction*
- **Mallory-Weiss tears** are lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction caused by forceful vomiting, which can lead to hematemesis.
- While vomiting is present, the chronic history, signs of liver disease (jaundice, caput medusae), and the sudden, massive nature of the bleed are more consistent with ruptured varices than a Mallory-Weiss tear.
*Inflammation of the portal tract due to a chronic viral illness*
- **Chronic viral illness**, such as hepatitis B or C, can lead to **cirrhosis** and subsequent portal hypertension.
- While this is the underlying cause of the liver disease, it is not the direct mechanism for the acute vomiting of blood; the bleeding is caused by the rupture of dilated vessels due to increased portal pressure, not directly by inflammation of the portal tract.
*Perforation of the gastric mucosa*
- **Gastric perforation**, often due to an **ulcer**, can cause severe abdominal pain and potentially hematemesis if it erodes into a vessel.
- However, the patient denied pain, and the clinical signs (jaundice, caput medusae) point overwhelmingly to liver cirrhosis and portal hypertension, not gastric perforation.
Question 102: A 33-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. She was treated for a urinary stone 1 year ago with medical expulsive therapy. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive pill that she has been taking for 12 years. She appears healthy. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A complete blood count, serum creatinine, and electrolytes are within the reference range. Urinalysis is within normal limits. An ultrasound of the abdomen shows a well-demarcated hyperechoic 3-cm (1.2-in) hepatic lesion. A contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen shows a well-demarcated 3-cm hepatic lesion with peripheral enhancement and subsequent centripetal flow followed by rapid clearance of contrast. There is no hypoattenuating central scar. In addition to stopping the oral contraceptive pill, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Surgical resection of the mass
B. Embolization of the mass
C. Percutaneous liver biopsy
D. Radiofrequency ablation of the mass
E. Reimage in 6 months (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Reimage in 6 months***
- The imaging findings of a well-demarcated 3-cm hepatic lesion with **peripheral enhancement** and subsequent **centripetal flow** followed by rapid clearance of contrast in a young woman using **oral contraceptive pills** are classic for a **hepatic adenoma**. The absence of a central scar differentiates it from focal nodular hyperplasia.
- Given the patient is asymptomatic, the lesion is less than 5 cm, and there are no high-risk features (such as severe growth or symptoms), conservative management with **discontinuation of oral contraceptive pills** and **reimaging in 6 months** is the most appropriate initial step to monitor for growth or complications.
*Surgical resection of the mass*
- **Surgical resection** is generally reserved for **hepatic adenomas** that are symptomatic, larger than 5 cm, bleeding, or have features suggestive of malignant transformation.
- In this case, the adenoma is asymptomatic and 3 cm, making observation a more appropriate initial step.
*Embolization of the mass*
- **Embolization** is typically used for lesions that are bleeding or highly vascular, often as a temporizing measure or in cases where surgery is contraindicated.
- This patient's lesion is asymptomatic and not actively bleeding, so embolization is not indicated.
*Percutaneous liver biopsy*
- While a **liver biopsy** can confirm the diagnosis, it carries risks of bleeding and tumor seeding, and is generally avoided for classic benign lesions like this, especially when management is based on clinical and imaging follow-up.
- The imaging characteristics are highly suggestive of **hepatic adenoma**, making a biopsy unnecessary at this stage, particularly if the initial management is conservative monitoring.
*Radiofrequency ablation of the mass*
- **Radiofrequency ablation (RFA)** is a local ablative therapy used for certain hepatic tumors, often when surgery is not feasible or for smaller malignant lesions.
- This is a benign hepatic adenoma, and for lesions of this size and asymptomatic nature, RFA is not a first-line treatment.
Question 103: A 19-year-old man comes to the physician because of recurrent yellowing of his eyes over the past 2 years. He reports that each episode lasts 1–2 weeks and resolves spontaneously. He has no family history of serious illness. He recently spent a week in Mexico for a vacation. He is sexually active with two partners and uses condoms inconsistently. He does not drink alcohol or use illicit drugs. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows jaundice of the conjunctivae and the skin. The abdomen is soft with no organomegaly. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Total bilirubin 4.0 mg/dL
Direct bilirubin 3.0 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 75 U/L
AST 12 U/L
ALT 12 U/L
Anti-HAV IgG positive
HBsAg negative
Anti-HBsAg positive
HCV RNA negative
Urine
Bilirubin present
Urobilinogen normal
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
A. Impaired hepatic excretion of conjugated bilirubin (Correct Answer)
B. Destruction of the intralobular bile ducts
C. Defective bilirubin conjugation
D. Inflammation of intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts
E. Excess cellular bilirubin release
Explanation: ***Impaired hepatic excretion of conjugated bilirubin***
- This patient presents with predominantly **conjugated hyperbilirubinemia** (direct bilirubin 3.0 mg/dL, total bilirubin 4.0 mg/dL, suggesting altered bilirubin processing in the liver), **recurrent jaundice** that resolves spontaneously, and normal liver enzymes (AST, ALT, alkaline phosphatase). These findings are highly suggestive of **Dubin-Johnson syndrome** or **Rotor syndrome**, both of which involve impaired excretion of conjugated bilirubin from the hepatocytes into the bile canaliculi.
- The presence of **bilirubin in the urine** confirms conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, as only conjugated bilirubin is water-soluble and can be filtered by the kidneys.
*Destruction of the intralobular bile ducts*
- This condition, seen in primary biliary cholangitis, would typically present with significantly **elevated alkaline phosphatase** levels, which are normal in this patient.
- It also usually leads to progressive liver damage, not recurrent, self-resolving jaundice with normal liver enzymes.
*Defective bilirubin conjugation*
- This describes conditions like **Gilbert syndrome** or Crigler-Najjar syndrome, which cause **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia**.
- In these conditions, **direct bilirubin** would be a very small fraction of the total bilirubin, and **urine bilirubin** would be absent, which contradicts this patient's lab results.
*Inflammation of intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts*
- This would lead to **cholestasis** and significant elevations in **alkaline phosphatase** and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), often accompanied by signs of infection or autoimmune disease (e.g., primary sclerosing cholangitis).
- The patient's normal alkaline phosphatase and absence of associated symptoms make this diagnosis unlikely.
*Excess cellular bilirubin release*
- This refers to **hemolysis**, where increased breakdown of red blood cells leads to an overload of unconjugated bilirubin being presented to the liver.
- This would primarily cause **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** and would not result in bilirubin in the urine, in contrast to the patient's findings.
Question 104: A 58-year-old man with a history of hepatitis C presents with unintentional weight loss, weakness, jaundice, splenomegaly, and caput medusae. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial test to assess the degree of hepatocellular injury?
A. Aspartate aminotransferase
B. Troponin
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Alkaline phosphatase
E. Alanine aminotransferase (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Alanine aminotransferase***
- Elevated **ALT** levels are a sensitive indicator of **hepatocellular damage**, which is highly probable given the patient's history of **hepatitis C**, **jaundice**, and signs of **portal hypertension** (splenomegaly, caput medusae).
- Monitoring ALT helps assess the **degree of liver inflammation and injury**, guiding further diagnostic and therapeutic interventions for chronic liver disease.
*Aspartate aminotransferase*
- While **AST** is also an indicator of **liver damage**, it is less specific than ALT, as it is found in other tissues like the **heart** and **skeletal muscle**.
- In viral hepatitis, **ALT levels are typically higher than AST**, making ALT a more specific initial test for liver function in this context.
*Troponin*
- **Troponin** is a biochemical marker used to diagnose **myocardial injury**, such as a **heart attack**.
- The patient's symptoms (weight loss, jaundice, splenomegaly) are indicative of liver disease, not primary cardiac issues, making troponin an irrelevant initial test in this scenario.
*Blood urea nitrogen*
- **Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)** primarily reflects **kidney function** and **hydration status**, though it can be affected by liver failure.
- It is not a direct or initial measure of liver function or liver cell damage.
*Alkaline phosphatase*
- Elevated **alkaline phosphatase (ALP)** levels typically suggest **cholestasis** (bile duct obstruction) or **bone disorders**.
- While cholestasis can occur in advanced liver disease, **hepatocellular injury** (indicated by jaundice and hepatitis C history) is the more immediate concern, making ALT a more appropriate initial assessment.
Question 105: A 32-year-old woman visits the office with a complaint of recurrent abdominal pain for the past 2 months. She says the pain has been increasing every day and is located in the right upper quadrant. She has been using oral contraceptive pills for the past 2 years. She is a nonsmoker and does not drink alcohol. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 85/min, respiratory rate of 16/min, temperature of 37.6 °C (99.68 °F), and blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals right upper quadrant tenderness and hepatomegaly 3 cm below the right costal border. Her serology tests for viral hepatitis are as follows:
HBsAg Negative
Anti-HBs Negative
IgM anti-HBc Negative
Anti-HCV Negative
A hepatic ultrasound shows hepatomegaly with diffusely increased echogenicity and a well-defined, predominantly hypoechoic mass in segment VI of the right lobe of the liver. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cholangiocarcinoma
B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
C. Hepatic adenoma (Correct Answer)
D. Focal nodular hyperplasia
E. Metastatic disease
Explanation: ***Hepatic adenoma***
- The patient's use of **oral contraceptive pills** is a significant risk factor for hepatic adenomas, which are benign liver tumors that can cause right upper quadrant pain.
- The ultrasound finding of a **well-defined, predominantly hypoechoic mass** in the context of OCP use strongly suggests hepatic adenoma.
*Cholangiocarcinoma*
- This is a malignancy of the bile ducts and is typically associated with risk factors like **primary sclerosing cholangitis** or **liver fluke infections**, which are not present here.
- While it can cause abdominal pain, the imaging characteristics described are not typical for cholangiocarcinoma.
*Hepatocellular carcinoma*
- **Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)** is usually associated with **chronic viral hepatitis (B or C)**, cirrhosis, or heavy alcohol use, none of which are indicated in this patient.
- The serology tests for viral hepatitis are negative, ruling out common causes of HCC.
*Focal nodular hyperplasia*
- **Focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH)** is another benign liver tumor, but it typically presents with a **central stellate scar** on imaging, which is not mentioned in the ultrasound findings.
- FNH is usually asymptomatic and not strongly linked to oral contraceptive use.
*Metastatic disease*
- **Metastatic liver disease** usually originates from a primary cancer elsewhere in the body, and there is no indication of such a primary tumor in this patient's history or examination.
- Additionally, metastatic lesions often appear as multiple, rather than a single, well-defined mass.
Question 106: A 47-year-old man with alcoholic cirrhosis comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Examination of the skin shows erythema over the thenar and hypothenar eminences of both hands. He also has numerous blanching lesions over the trunk and upper extremities that have a central red vessel with thin extensions radiating outwards. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of these findings?
A. Increased circulating ammonia
B. Decreased circulating thrombopoietin
C. Increased circulating estrogen (Correct Answer)
D. Decreased circulating albumin
E. Decreased circulating testosterone
Explanation: ***Increased circulating estrogen***
- The patient's **alcoholic cirrhosis** leads to impaired hepatic metabolism, causing an accumulation of **estrogen** that the liver normally deactivates.
- **Palmar erythema** and **spider angiomas** are classic signs of hyperestrogenism in liver disease, as estrogen causes vasodilation.
*Increased circulating ammonia*
- Elevated **ammonia** is primarily associated with **hepatic encephalopathy**, presenting with altered mental status, asterixis, and motor dysfunction, which are not described here.
- While ammonia levels are high in cirrhosis, they do not directly cause the skin findings of palmar erythema or spider angiomas.
*Decreased circulating thrombopoietin*
- **Thrombopoietin** is primarily produced in the liver and kidneys, and its decrease can contribute to **thrombocytopenia** in liver disease.
- However, reduced thrombopoietin levels do not cause palmar erythema or spider angiomas.
*Decreased circulating albumin*
- **Albumin** is a major protein synthesized by the liver, and its decrease in cirrhosis leads to **edema** (due to reduced oncotic pressure) and **ascites**.
- While common in liver failure, low albumin does not directly cause the described vascular skin lesions.
*Decreased circulating testosterone*
- Reduced **testosterone** in cirrhotic men can lead to **hypogonadism**, causing symptoms like gynecomastia, testicular atrophy, and decreased libido.
- Although common, decreased testosterone is not the direct cause of palmar erythema or spider angiomas.
Question 107: A 42-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with recent swelling in his legs that has now spread to the lower part of his thighs. He sometimes has difficulty putting on his shoes and pants. He also noticed puffiness under his eyes over the last 3 weeks. A 24-hour urine collection confirms proteinuria of 5 g/day. Electron microscopy of a renal biopsy specimen reveals subepithelial deposits with a spike and dome pattern. Which of the following is associated with this patient’s condition?
A. HIV infection
B. Monoclonal protein spike
C. High HbA1C
D. Hepatitis B infection (Correct Answer)
E. Hodgkin's lymphoma
Explanation: ***Hepatitis B infection***
- The patient presents with **nephrotic syndrome** (edema, proteinuria >3.5 g/day, periorbital puffiness), and renal biopsy shows **subepithelial deposits** with a **spike and dome pattern** characteristic of **membranous nephropathy**.
- **Hepatitis B infection** is a well-known and common secondary cause of **membranous nephropathy**, particularly in adults and in endemic areas. This is the classic association tested on USMLE.
*HIV infection*
- While **HIV infection** can cause nephrotic syndrome, it typically presents as **HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN)**, characterized by **focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)**, not membranous nephropathy with subepithelial deposits.
- HIVAN is also often associated with rapidly progressive renal failure and collapsing glomerulopathy on biopsy.
*Monoclonal protein spike*
- A **monoclonal protein spike** (e.g., from multiple myeloma or monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance) most commonly causes renal disease manifesting as **amyloidosis** (fibrillar deposits) or **light chain deposition disease**, which show distinct findings on renal biopsy.
- While monoclonal immunoglobulins can rarely cause membranous nephropathy, this is uncommon and not the classic association. Given the spike and dome pattern, **Hepatitis B** is the better answer.
*High HbA1C*
- A **high HbA1C** indicates **poorly controlled diabetes**, which is a leading cause of **diabetic nephropathy**.
- Diabetic nephropathy typically presents with **glomerular basement membrane thickening**, **mesangial expansion**, and **Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions** (nodular glomerulosclerosis), not the spike and dome pattern seen in membranous nephropathy.
*Hodgkin's lymphoma*
- While lymphoma can be associated with kidney disease, **Hodgkin's lymphoma** is classically linked to **minimal change disease** in adults, which presents with effacement of podocyte foot processes on electron microscopy, without immune deposits.
- Membranous nephropathy, as seen here with subepithelial deposits, is not the typical renal manifestation of Hodgkin's lymphoma.
Question 108: A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department when he was found obtunded at the homeless shelter. The patient is currently not responsive and smells of alcohol. The patient has a past medical history of alcohol use, IV drug use, and hepatitis C. His temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 95/65 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. The patient is started on IV fluids, and his pulse decreases to 70/min. On physical exam, the patient has an abdominal exam notable for distension and a positive fluid wave. The patient displays mild yellow discoloration of his skin. The patient has notable poor dentition and poor hygiene overall. A systolic murmur is heard along the left sternal border on cardiac exam. Pulmonary exam is notable for mild bibasilar crackles. Laboratory values are ordered, and return as below:
Hemoglobin: 10 g/dL
Hematocrit: 32%
Leukocyte count: 7,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 227,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 125 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 5.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 51 mg/dL
Glucose: 89 mg/dL
Creatinine: 2.2 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.0 mg/dL
AST: 22 U/L
ALT: 19 U/L
Urine:
Color: Amber
Nitrites: Negative
Sodium: 12 mmol/24 hours
Red blood cells: 0/hpf
Over the next 24 hours, the patient produces very little urine. Which of the following best explains this patient’s renal findings?
A. Liver failure (Correct Answer)
B. Nephrotoxic agent
C. Dehydration
D. Postrenal azotemia
E. Congestive heart failure
Explanation: ***Liver failure***
- The patient's history of **alcohol use**, **hepatitis C**, **ascites** (abdominal distension with fluid wave), and **jaundice** (yellow skin discoloration) are all signs of severe liver disease/cirrhosis.
- In the context of advanced liver failure, this patient has developed **hepatorenal syndrome (HRS)**, a critical complication characterized by **functional renal failure** due to severe renal vasoconstriction without intrinsic kidney damage.
- Key diagnostic features of HRS include: elevated **BUN** and **creatinine**, markedly **low urine sodium (<20 mEq/L)**, **oliguria** that does not improve with volume expansion, and absence of other causes of renal failure.
- The urine sodium of **12 mmol/24 hours** is pathognomonic for HRS, indicating maximal sodium retention by the kidneys in response to decreased effective arterial blood volume.
*Nephrotoxic agent*
- While IV drug use can be associated with certain nephrotoxic exposures, there is no direct evidence in the clinical presentation (e.g., specific drug use leading to toxicity, muddy brown casts on urinalysis) to support this.
- **Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)** from nephrotoxins typically presents with urine sodium **>40 mEq/L** and granular casts, which are absent here.
- The patient's underlying liver disease with characteristic low urine sodium provides a more comprehensive explanation for the renal dysfunction.
*Dehydration*
- The patient's **blood pressure** is low, but he responded to IV fluids with a decreased pulse, suggesting some improvement in volume status, yet his renal function worsened with persistent oliguria.
- While dehydration can cause **prerenal azotemia**, the lack of improvement after IV fluid resuscitation, extreme oliguria, very low urine sodium in the context of advanced cirrhosis with ascites point strongly towards hepatorenal syndrome rather than simple hypovolemia.
- True prerenal azotemia from dehydration typically improves with fluid administration, which did not occur here.
*Postrenal azotemia*
- This condition is caused by an **obstruction** to urine outflow, such as a kidney stone, enlarged prostate, or tumor.
- There are no clinical signs or symptoms (e.g., flank pain, difficulty urinating, hydronephrosis on imaging) in the patient's presentation to suggest an obstructive cause.
- Postrenal obstruction typically requires **bilateral** obstruction or obstruction in a single functioning kidney to cause significant azotemia.
*Congestive heart failure*
- While the patient has **bibasilar crackles** and a cardiac murmur, these are non-specific findings that might be related to volume overload from liver disease or endocarditis from IV drug use.
- **Cardiorenal syndrome** can cause renal dysfunction, but typically presents with more prominent signs of heart failure and urine sodium is often higher (>40 mEq/L) when diuretics are used.
- The patient's profound liver failure with ascites, jaundice, and the characteristic very low urine sodium provide a much stronger and more direct explanation for the progressive renal dysfunction as hepatorenal syndrome.
Question 109: A 72-year-old man comes to the emergency department for progressively worsening abdominal pain. The pain began 2 weeks ago and is localized to the right upper quadrant. He feels sick and fatigued. He also reports breathlessness when climbing the stairs to his first-floor apartment. He is a retired painter. He has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is sexually active with one female partner and does not use condoms consistently. He began having sexual relations with his most recent partner 2 months ago. He smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years but quit 10 years ago. He does not drink alcohol. Current medications include insulin and enalapril. He is 181 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 110 kg (264 lb); BMI is 33.5 kg/m2. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows jaundice, a distended abdomen, and tender hepatomegaly. There is no jugular venous distention. A grade 2/6 systolic ejection murmur is heard along the right upper sternal border. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 18.9 g/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase 450 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase 335 U/L
Total bilirubin 2.1 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
A. Hepatotropic viral infection
B. Increased iron absorption
C. Hepatic steatosis
D. Hepatic vein obstruction (Correct Answer)
E. Thickened pericardium
Explanation: ***Hepatic vein obstruction***
- The patient's **acute liver injury** (elevated AST, ALT, bilirubin) with **right upper quadrant pain**, **tender hepatomegaly**, and **distended abdomen** are classic signs of hepatic vein obstruction (Budd-Chiari syndrome).
- The elevated **hemoglobin (18.9 g/dL)** suggests **polycythemia**, a common predisposing factor for thrombotic events, including hepatic vein thrombosis.
*Hepatotropic viral infection*
- While **hepatotropic viral infections** can cause acute liver injury, the patient's **polycythemia** and the specific presentation of **tender hepatomegaly** and **abdominal distention** are less indicative of this cause alone.
- Though he reports unprotected sex, acute viral hepatitis would generally present with more pronounced acute symptoms and specific markers on serology, which are not provided.
*Increased iron absorption*
- **Hemochromatosis**, due to increased iron absorption, causes liver damage but typically presents with **bronze skin**, diabetes, and joint pain, and the liver injury is usually insidious rather than acute with marked abdominal symptoms.
- The extremely high hemoglobin level in this acute setting is not characteristic of iron overload alone as a primary etiology for acute liver injury mimicking Budd-Chiari.
*Hepatic steatosis*
- **Hepatic steatosis** (fatty liver) is common in patients with **diabetes** and **obesity**; however, it usually presents as asymptomatic elevation of liver enzymes or chronic liver disease, not acute, severe right upper quadrant pain, marked tender hepatomegaly, and abdominal distension, especially with concurrent polycythemia.
- The degree of liver enzyme elevation and bilirubin is more pronounced than typically seen in uncomplicated hepatic steatosis.
*Thickened pericardium*
- A **thickened pericardium** (constrictive pericarditis) can cause **hepatomegaly** and **abdominal distension** due to right-sided heart failure. However, this is characteristically associated with **jugular venous distention** and often **ascites**, which are not noted here.
- The prominent **acute right upper quadrant pain** and **marked liver enzyme elevation** are less typical of cardiac causes of liver congestion compared to thrombotic occlusion.
Question 110: A 45-year-old man presents for a routine checkup. He says he has arthralgia in his hands and wrists. No significant past medical history. The patient takes no current medications. Family history is significant for his grandfather who died of liver cirrhosis from an unknown disease. He denies any alcohol use or alcoholism in the family. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is bronze hyperpigmentation of the skin and significant hepatomegaly is noted. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is true about this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. A hypersensitivity reaction to blood transfusions causes the iron to accumulate
B. Increased ferritin activity results in excess iron accumulation
C. The associated dilated cardiomyopathy is irreversible
D. The arthropathy is due to iron deposition in the joints. (Correct Answer)
E. The classic triad of cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, and skin pigmentation is always present
Explanation: ***The arthropathy is due to iron deposition in the joints.***
- This patient's presentation with **arthralgia**, **bronze hyperpigmentation**, **hepatomegaly**, and a family history suggestive of liver cirrhosis points to **hereditary hemochromatosis**.
- In hemochromatosis, the **arthropathy** (typically involving the metacarpophalangeal joints, especially the 2nd and 3rd MCP joints) is caused by **iron deposition** in the synovial membranes and cartilage, leading to calcium pyrophosphate deposition (pseudogout).
- This directly explains the patient's presenting symptom of hand and wrist arthralgia.
*A hypersensitivity reaction to blood transfusions causes the iron to accumulate*
- **Hereditary hemochromatosis** is caused by **genetic mutations** (most commonly in the HFE gene, C282Y mutation) leading to increased intestinal iron absorption, not hypersensitivity reactions.
- While **secondary (transfusional) hemochromatosis** can occur from repeated blood transfusions, this patient's family history and lack of transfusion history indicate the **hereditary form**.
*Increased ferritin activity results in excess iron accumulation*
- **Ferritin** is an iron storage protein, and its serum levels are **elevated** in hemochromatosis as a **consequence** of iron overload, not the cause.
- The primary defect in hereditary hemochromatosis is **decreased hepcidin production**, leading to increased iron absorption from the gastrointestinal tract via ferroportin.
*The classic triad of cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, and skin pigmentation is always present*
- While the triad of **cirrhosis**, **diabetes mellitus** ("bronze diabetes"), and **skin pigmentation** represents classic **advanced** hemochromatosis, it is **not always present**, especially in earlier stages.
- This patient has hepatomegaly and skin pigmentation but no documented diabetes mellitus yet. Many patients are now diagnosed earlier through screening before the full triad develops.
- The statement is incorrect because it implies the triad is always present, which is not true.
*The associated dilated cardiomyopathy is irreversible*
- Cardiac involvement in hemochromatosis, including **restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy**, is often **reversible** with early and aggressive iron removal therapy (phlebotomy or chelation).
- Early treatment can prevent or significantly improve organ damage, including cardiac function, by reducing total body iron stores before irreversible fibrosis develops.