A 26-year-old man comes to the emergency room complaining of severe, episodic back pain. He states that it started suddenly this morning. The pain is 9/10 and radiates to his left groin. He endorses seeing blood in his urine earlier but denies dysuria or abnormal urethral discharge. His medical history is significant for Crohn disease, gout, and insulin-dependent diabetes. He takes insulin, allopurinol, and sulfasalazine. He is sexually active with multiple women and uses condoms inconsistently. He drinks 4 cans of beer on the weekends. He denies tobacco use or other recreational drug use. The patient’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 121/73 mmHg, pulse is 89/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 94% on room air. A contrast computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a 5-mm stone in the left ureter without evidence of hydronephrosis. Urinalysis and urine microscopy reveal hematuria and envelope-shaped crystals. Which of the following most likely contributed to the development of the patient’s acute symptoms?
Q22
A 37-year-old man presents to his gastroenterologist due to a transaminitis found by his primary care physician (PCP). He reports currently feeling well and has no acute concerns. Medical history is significant for ulcerative colitis treated with 5-aminosalicylate. He recently went on a trip to Mexico and experienced an episode of mild diarrhea. The patient is 5 ft 4 in and weighs 220 lbs (99.8 kg). His temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 138/88 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory testing demonstrates:
Leukocyte count: 7,200 /mm^3
Alkaline phosphatase: 205 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 120 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 115 U/L
Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA): Positive
Antimitochondrial antibody: Negative
Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?
Q23
A 44-year-old woman comes to the physician with increasingly yellow sclera and pruritus over the past 3 months. She has intermittent right-upper-quadrant pain and discomfort. She has no history of any serious illnesses and takes no medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Her sclera are icteric. Skin examination shows linear scratch marks on the trunk and limbs. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory studies show:
Complete blood count
Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 95 μm3
Leukocyte count 6,000/mm3 with a normal differential
Serum
Alkaline phosphatase 470 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 38 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 45 U/L
γ-Glutamyltransferase (GGT) 83 U/L (N=5–50 U/L)
Bilirubin, total 2.7 mg/dL
Bilirubin, direct 1.4 mg/dL
Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) shows a multifocal and diffuse beaded appearance of the intrahepatic and extrahepatic biliary ducts. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic study at this time?
Q24
A 22-year-old white woman comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of lower abdominal pain. She has also had multiple episodes of loose stools with blood during this period. She has had painful bowel movements for 1 month. Over the past year, she has had a 10-kg (22-lb) weight loss. She was treated for streptococcal pharyngitis last week. Her maternal grandfather died of colon cancer at the age of 52 years. She does not smoke. She drinks three to five beers on social occasions. She is 162 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 52 kg (115-lb); BMI is 19.7 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 60/min, respirations are 13/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and there is tenderness to palpation of the left lower quadrant. There is no guarding or rigidity. Rectal examination shows no masses. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.4 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,800/mm3
Platelet count 450,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 138 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
K+ 4.9 mEq/L
HCO3- 22 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 18 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.6 mg/dL
Antinuclear antibodies negative
Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies positive
Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies negative
A colonoscopy is scheduled for the next day. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present on colonoscopy of this patient?
Q25
A 24-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of bloody diarrhea and intermittent abdominal pain. She says that after she has a bowel movement, she still feels as though she needs to go more. She also reports a 10-pound weight loss, significant fatigue, and frequent cravings to chew ice. Her past medical history is significant only for chronic iron deficiency anemia since high school. She currently takes a women’s multivitamin and ferrous sulfate 65 mg orally once daily. She is on the college track team but now is too tired to participate in practice. Her family history is significant for colon cancer and her grandmother died from breast cancer in her 70’s. Her vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse 102/min, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 100/75 mm Hg. Physical examination is significant for conjunctival pallor, koilonychia, and the cutaneous findings shown in the exhibit. Laboratory tests show elevated ESR and C-reactive protein and findings consistent with iron deficiency anemia. A barium enema demonstrates a lead pipe appearance and a loss of haustra. Which of the following are the recommended screening guidelines for colorectal cancer for this patient?
Q26
A 28-year-old woman presents with right lower quadrant abdominal pain, fatigue, and low-volume diarrhea of intermittent frequency for the past 4 months. She also reports weight loss and believes it to be due to a decreased appetite. She has noticed herself being more "forgetful" and she denies seeing any blood in her stool, changes in diet, infection, or recent travel history. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 112/72 mmHg, pulse is 89/min, and respirations are 17/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory testing is shown below:
Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dL
Hematocrit: 32%
Platelet count: 380,000/mm^3
Mean corpuscular volume: 118 µm^3
Reticulocyte count: 0.27%
Leukocyte count: 9,900 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 65 mm/h
A colonoscopy is performed and demonstrates focal ulcerations with polypoid mucosal changes adjacent to normal appearing mucosa. A biopsy is obtained and shows ulcerations and acute and chronic inflammatory changes. Involvement of which of the following sites most likely explains this patient's clinical presentation?
Q27
A 25-year-old man comes to the physician with intermittent bloody diarrhea over the past 2 months. He has occasional abdominal pain. His symptoms have not improved over this time. He has no history of a serious illness and takes no medications. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 75/min, respirations are 14/min, and temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F). Deep palpation of the abdomen shows mild tenderness in the right lower quadrant. Colonoscopy shows diffuse erythema with a sandpaper pattern involving the rectosigmoid and descending colon, with normal mucosa of the rest of the colon. Biopsy shows involvement of the mucosal and submucosal layers with distortion of crypt architecture and crypt abscess formation. This patient is most likely to develop which of the following hepatobiliary diseases?
Q28
A 22-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. The patient states that he has had right lower quadrant abdominal pain for "a while now". The pain comes and goes, and today it is particularly painful. The patient is a college student studying philosophy. He drinks alcohol occasionally and is currently sexually active. He states that sometimes he feels anxious about school. The patient's father died of colon cancer at the age of 55, and his mother died of breast cancer when she was 57. The patient has a past medical history of anxiety and depression which is not currently treated. Review of systems is positive for bloody diarrhea. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 100/58 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Cardiopulmonary exam is within normal limits. Abdominal exam reveals diffuse tenderness. A fecal occult blood test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q29
A 33-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of intermittent lower abdominal cramps associated with diarrhea, bloating, and mild nausea. During this period, she has had a 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss. She feels like she cannot fully empty her bowels. She has no history of serious illness. She has a high-fiber diet. Her father is of Ashkenazi Jewish descent. She appears well. Her temperature is 36.9°C (98.5°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Abdominal examination shows mild tenderness to palpation in the right lower quadrant without guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are normal. Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Her hemoglobin concentration is 10.5 g/dL, leukocyte count is 12,000 mm3, platelet count is 480,000 mm3, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 129 mm/h. A barium enema shows ulceration and narrowing of the right colon. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q30
A 39-year-old woman presents to your office with 4 days of fever, sore throat, generalized aching, arthralgias, and tender nodules on both of her shins that arose in the last 48 hours. Her medical history is negative for disease and she does not take oral contraceptives or any other medication regularly. The physical examination reveals the vital signs that include body temperature 38.5°C (101.3°F), heart rate 85/min, blood pressure 120/65 mm Hg, tender and enlarged submandibular lymph nodes, and an erythematous, edematous, and swollen pharynx with enlarged tonsils and a patchy white exudate on the surface. She is not pregnant. Examination of the lower limbs reveals erythematous, tender, immobile nodules on both shins. You do not identify ulcers or similar lesions on other areas of her body. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
IBD US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 26-year-old man comes to the emergency room complaining of severe, episodic back pain. He states that it started suddenly this morning. The pain is 9/10 and radiates to his left groin. He endorses seeing blood in his urine earlier but denies dysuria or abnormal urethral discharge. His medical history is significant for Crohn disease, gout, and insulin-dependent diabetes. He takes insulin, allopurinol, and sulfasalazine. He is sexually active with multiple women and uses condoms inconsistently. He drinks 4 cans of beer on the weekends. He denies tobacco use or other recreational drug use. The patient’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 121/73 mmHg, pulse is 89/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 94% on room air. A contrast computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a 5-mm stone in the left ureter without evidence of hydronephrosis. Urinalysis and urine microscopy reveal hematuria and envelope-shaped crystals. Which of the following most likely contributed to the development of the patient’s acute symptoms?
A. Gout
B. Medication effect
C. Sexual history
D. Crohn disease (Correct Answer)
E. Diabetes mellitus
Explanation: ***Crohn disease***
- Patients with Crohn disease are at increased risk of **calcium oxalate kidney stones** due to altered enterohepatic circulation of bile acids, leading to increased oxalate absorption.
- The combination of severe flank pain radiating to the groin, visible hematuria, and **envelope-shaped crystals** (calcium oxalate) in the urine strongly points to a kidney stone related to his Crohn disease.
*Gout*
- Gout typically causes **monoarticular arthritis** and is associated with **uric acid crystals**, not calcium oxalate.
- While allopurinol is used to prevent gout flares, it does not directly cause calcium oxalate stones.
*Medication effect*
- The patient's medications (insulin, allopurinol, sulfasalazine) are generally not associated with the formation of **calcium oxalate stones**.
- Allopurinol primarily manages uric acid levels, and sulfasalazine is for Crohn disease, neither of which directly promotes calcium oxalate stone formation.
*Sexual history*
- An inconsistent condom use and multiple partners elevate the risk of **sexually transmitted infections**, which are not typically linked to kidney stone formation.
- Symptoms like urethritis or prostatitis would be expected with STIs, not severe back pain and hematuria from a ureteral stone.
*Diabetes mellitus*
- Diabetes is a risk factor for various renal complications, such as **diabetic nephropathy**, but not specifically for acute calcium oxalate kidney stones as the primary cause of these acute symptoms.
- Kidney stones are not a typical acute complication of uncontrolled diabetes in this manner.
Question 22: A 37-year-old man presents to his gastroenterologist due to a transaminitis found by his primary care physician (PCP). He reports currently feeling well and has no acute concerns. Medical history is significant for ulcerative colitis treated with 5-aminosalicylate. He recently went on a trip to Mexico and experienced an episode of mild diarrhea. The patient is 5 ft 4 in and weighs 220 lbs (99.8 kg). His temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 138/88 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory testing demonstrates:
Leukocyte count: 7,200 /mm^3
Alkaline phosphatase: 205 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 120 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 115 U/L
Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA): Positive
Antimitochondrial antibody: Negative
Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?
A. Choledocholithiasis
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Acute viral hepatitis
D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis (Correct Answer)
E. Primary biliary cholangitis
Explanation: ***Primary sclerosing cholangitis***
- The patient's history of **ulcerative colitis**, elevated **alkaline phosphatase**, and positive **pANCA** are highly suggestive of primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC).
- PSC often presents with **asymptomatic transaminitis** in early stages and is strongly associated with inflammatory bowel disease, particularly ulcerative colitis.
*Choledocholithiasis*
- This condition is characterized by **gallstones in the common bile duct**, usually presenting with **biliary colic**, jaundice, or cholangitis.
- While it can cause elevated liver enzymes, particularly alkaline phosphatase, the chronic, asymptomatic nature and strong association with ulcerative colitis and pANCA positivity point away from choledocholithiasis as the *most likely* diagnosis.
*Acute cholecystitis*
- **Acute cholecystitis** involves inflammation of the gallbladder, typically causing **right upper quadrant pain**, fever, and leukocytosis.
- The patient is asymptomatic, afebrile, and has an unremarkable physical exam, making acute cholecystitis unlikely.
*Acute viral hepatitis*
- **Acute viral hepatitis** usually presents with significantly higher **aminotransferase levels** (often in the thousands) and symptoms like fatigue, nausea, and jaundice.
- The patient's relatively mild transaminitis, asymptomatic status, and specific risk factors (ulcerative colitis, pANCA) do not fit the typical picture of acute viral hepatitis.
*Primary biliary cholangitis*
- **Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)** is characterized by destruction of small intrahepatic bile ducts, primarily affecting women, and is associated with **anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA)**.
- The patient is male, and his AMA is negative, making PBC an unlikely diagnosis, despite the elevated alkaline phosphatase.
Question 23: A 44-year-old woman comes to the physician with increasingly yellow sclera and pruritus over the past 3 months. She has intermittent right-upper-quadrant pain and discomfort. She has no history of any serious illnesses and takes no medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Her sclera are icteric. Skin examination shows linear scratch marks on the trunk and limbs. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory studies show:
Complete blood count
Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 95 μm3
Leukocyte count 6,000/mm3 with a normal differential
Serum
Alkaline phosphatase 470 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 38 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 45 U/L
γ-Glutamyltransferase (GGT) 83 U/L (N=5–50 U/L)
Bilirubin, total 2.7 mg/dL
Bilirubin, direct 1.4 mg/dL
Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) shows a multifocal and diffuse beaded appearance of the intrahepatic and extrahepatic biliary ducts. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic study at this time?
A. No further testing is indicated
B. Colonoscopy (Correct Answer)
C. Liver biopsy
D. Upper endoscopy
E. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
Explanation: ***Colonoscopy***
- The patient's presentation with **pruritus**, **jaundice**, elevated **alkaline phosphatase**, and characteristic **beaded appearance of biliary ducts** on MRCP is highly suggestive of **Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC)**.
- Approximately **60-80% of patients with PSC** have concomitant **inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)**, particularly **ulcerative colitis**.
- **Colonoscopy with biopsies** is the most appropriate next step to screen for IBD, as it allows visualization of the entire colon and can detect pancolitis or right-sided disease that would be missed by sigmoidoscopy.
- Early detection of IBD is important for management and colorectal cancer surveillance, as PSC-IBD patients have increased risk of colorectal malignancy.
*No further testing is indicated*
- This is incorrect because the patient has clear signs of PSC, and further evaluation is necessary to screen for **associated IBD**, which occurs in the majority of PSC patients.
- Identifying concurrent IBD affects prognosis, management, and surveillance strategies for colorectal cancer.
*Liver biopsy*
- While liver biopsy can provide histological confirmation and staging information, the **MRCP findings of multifocal beaded strictures** are highly specific for PSC and are generally considered **diagnostic**.
- Biopsy carries risks and is typically reserved for cases where imaging is equivocal or when assessing fibrosis stage is critical for management decisions.
- Given the classic MRCP findings, screening for IBD takes priority over liver biopsy.
*Upper endoscopy*
- **Upper endoscopy** evaluates the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum.
- It is not appropriate for screening inflammatory bowel disease or evaluating the biliary tree in the context of suspected PSC.
- Upper endoscopy would be indicated if the patient had upper GI symptoms or if screening for varices was needed in cirrhotic patients.
*Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)*
- While **ERCP** can visualize the biliary tree, it is an **invasive procedure** with significant risks including **pancreatitis** (3-5% risk), cholangitis, and perforation.
- Given that **MRCP has already demonstrated the characteristic findings** of PSC non-invasively, ERCP is reserved for **therapeutic interventions** (e.g., balloon dilation of dominant strictures, stent placement, or bile duct brushings if cholangiocarcinoma is suspected).
- ERCP is not appropriate as a diagnostic study when MRCP has already established the diagnosis.
Question 24: A 22-year-old white woman comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of lower abdominal pain. She has also had multiple episodes of loose stools with blood during this period. She has had painful bowel movements for 1 month. Over the past year, she has had a 10-kg (22-lb) weight loss. She was treated for streptococcal pharyngitis last week. Her maternal grandfather died of colon cancer at the age of 52 years. She does not smoke. She drinks three to five beers on social occasions. She is 162 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 52 kg (115-lb); BMI is 19.7 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 60/min, respirations are 13/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and there is tenderness to palpation of the left lower quadrant. There is no guarding or rigidity. Rectal examination shows no masses. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.4 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,800/mm3
Platelet count 450,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 138 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
K+ 4.9 mEq/L
HCO3- 22 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 18 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.6 mg/dL
Antinuclear antibodies negative
Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies positive
Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies negative
A colonoscopy is scheduled for the next day. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present on colonoscopy of this patient?
A. Confluent inflammation of the colonic mucosa with edema, fibrin-covered ulcers, and loss of vascular pattern (Correct Answer)
B. Numerous polyps extending throughout the colon
C. Patchy inflammation of mucosa with cobblestone appearance and intervening areas of normal mucosa
D. Pseudomembranes overlying regions of colonic inflammation
E. Normal colonic mucosa
Explanation: ***Confluent inflammation of the colonic mucosa with edema, fibrin-covered ulcers, and loss of vascular pattern***
- This description is characteristic of **ulcerative colitis (UC)**, which is strongly indicated by the patient's symptoms (lower abdominal pain, bloody loose stools, painful bowel movements, weight loss) and **positive p-ANCA**.
- UC typically presents with continuous inflammation starting from the rectum and extending proximally, featuring **erythema, edema, friability, ulcerations**, and a **loss of the normal vascular pattern**.
*Numerous polyps extending throughout the colon*
- This finding is more indicative of conditions like **familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)** or sometimes chronic inflammatory conditions with dysplasia, but not the primary presentation of acute inflammatory bowel disease.
- While chronic UC can lead to **dysplasia and polyps**, the acute symptoms and specific p-ANCA positivity point directly to active inflammation rather than diffuse polyposis as the most likely initial finding.
*Patchy inflammation of mucosa with cobblestone appearance and intervening areas of normal mucosa*
- This description is classic for **Crohn's disease**, which is characterized by **skip lesions**, transmural inflammation, and a **cobblestone appearance** due to deep ulcerations and edematous mucosa.
- The patient's **positive p-ANCA** and **left lower quadrant tenderness** are more consistent with UC, while **Crohn's disease** is typically associated with **ASCA positivity** and often affects the terminal ileum.
*Pseudomembranes overlying regions of colonic inflammation*
- **Pseudomembranes** are pathognomonic for **Clostridioides difficile infection (CDI)**, which is typically characterized by watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and often follows antibiotic use.
- Although the patient's recent **streptococcal pharyngitis** treatment could potentially be a risk factor for CDI, the chronic nature of her symptoms (6 months), significant weight loss, and specific p-ANCA positivity make **inflammatory bowel disease** far more likely.
*Normal colonic mucosa*
- Given the patient's persistent and severe symptoms, including bloody stools, significant weight loss, and an inflammatory marker (elevated leukocyte and platelet counts), it is highly unlikely that her colonic mucosa would appear normal.
- These clinical features strongly point towards an underlying **inflammatory process** requiring endoscopic evaluation.
Question 25: A 24-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of bloody diarrhea and intermittent abdominal pain. She says that after she has a bowel movement, she still feels as though she needs to go more. She also reports a 10-pound weight loss, significant fatigue, and frequent cravings to chew ice. Her past medical history is significant only for chronic iron deficiency anemia since high school. She currently takes a women’s multivitamin and ferrous sulfate 65 mg orally once daily. She is on the college track team but now is too tired to participate in practice. Her family history is significant for colon cancer and her grandmother died from breast cancer in her 70’s. Her vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse 102/min, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 100/75 mm Hg. Physical examination is significant for conjunctival pallor, koilonychia, and the cutaneous findings shown in the exhibit. Laboratory tests show elevated ESR and C-reactive protein and findings consistent with iron deficiency anemia. A barium enema demonstrates a lead pipe appearance and a loss of haustra. Which of the following are the recommended screening guidelines for colorectal cancer for this patient?
A. Colonoscopy by age 32 and repeated every 3 years thereafter
B. Colonoscopy by age 45 and repeated every 10 years thereafter
C. Flexible sigmoidoscopy by age 32 and repeated every 1–2 years thereafter
D. Colonoscopy by age 50 and repeated every 10 years thereafter
E. Colonoscopy by age 32 and repeated every 1–2 years thereafter (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Colonoscopy by age 32 and repeated every 1–2 years thereafter***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **ulcerative colitis (UC)**: bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, weight loss, fatigue, iron deficiency anemia, elevated inflammatory markers, and classical "lead pipe" appearance on barium enema (due to loss of haustra).
- Patients with **pancolitis or left-sided colitis** of 8 or more years' duration, or patients with colonic involvement that extends proximal to the splenic flexure for 15 or more years, should undergo **surveillance colonoscopy every 1-2 years** starting 8 years after the onset of symptoms, or 15 years in cases of left-sided colitis. Given her young age (24) and likely diagnosis of UC, which significantly increases her risk of colorectal cancer, surveillance should begin at an early age and be frequent. Therefore, by age 32 (24+8 years), she should start screening.
*Colonoscopy by age 32 and repeated every 3 years thereafter*
- While starting colonoscopy by age 32 is appropriate for active ulcerative colitis, a **3-year interval is too long** for high-risk patients with extensive UC, as current guidelines recommend more frequent surveillance (every 1-2 years) due to increased risk of dysplasia and cancer.
*Colonoscopy by age 45 and repeated every 10 years thereafter*
- This screening schedule is generally recommended for individuals at **average risk** for colorectal cancer, not for patients with inflammatory bowel disease, which is a significant risk factor requiring much earlier and more frequent screening.
- The patient's symptoms of chronic bloody diarrhea and signs of inflammation indicate a high-risk condition that necessitates earlier intervention.
*Flexible sigmoidoscopy by age 32 and repeated every 1–2 years thereafter*
- Flexible sigmoidoscopy only visualizes the **rectum and a portion of the sigmoid colon**, making it inadequate for comprehensive surveillance in patients with extensive ulcerative colitis (pancolitis or left-sided colitis extending beyond the splenic flexure) where dysplasia and cancer can occur throughout the colon.
- **Full colonoscopy** is necessary to examine the entire colon for precancerous lesions and cancer.
*Colonoscopy by age 50 and repeated every 10 years thereafter*
- This recommendation applies to the general population with **average risk** for colorectal cancer, not for individuals with inflammatory bowel disease, which presents a substantially elevated risk, especially with an early onset of disease.
- Patient's age and clinical presentation necessitate a much **earlier and more frequent screening regimen**.
Question 26: A 28-year-old woman presents with right lower quadrant abdominal pain, fatigue, and low-volume diarrhea of intermittent frequency for the past 4 months. She also reports weight loss and believes it to be due to a decreased appetite. She has noticed herself being more "forgetful" and she denies seeing any blood in her stool, changes in diet, infection, or recent travel history. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 112/72 mmHg, pulse is 89/min, and respirations are 17/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory testing is shown below:
Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dL
Hematocrit: 32%
Platelet count: 380,000/mm^3
Mean corpuscular volume: 118 µm^3
Reticulocyte count: 0.27%
Leukocyte count: 9,900 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 65 mm/h
A colonoscopy is performed and demonstrates focal ulcerations with polypoid mucosal changes adjacent to normal appearing mucosa. A biopsy is obtained and shows ulcerations and acute and chronic inflammatory changes. Involvement of which of the following sites most likely explains this patient's clinical presentation?
A. Ileum (Correct Answer)
B. Jejunum
C. Colon
D. Gastric antrum
E. Gastric fundus
Explanation: ***Ileum***
- The patient's symptoms, including **right lower quadrant pain**, **fatigue**, **low-volume diarrhea**, **weight loss**, and **macrocytic anemia** (Hgb 10.8 g/dL, MCV 118 µm^3, low reticulocyte count), are highly suggestive of **Crohn's disease**, particularly with involvement of the **terminal ileum**. Ileal involvement can lead to **vitamin B12 malabsorption**, causing macrocytic anemia and neurological symptoms like "forgetfulness."
- The colonoscopy findings of **focal ulcerations** with **polypoid mucosal changes adjacent to normal appearing mucosa** (skip lesions) and biopsy showing **acute and chronic inflammatory changes** are characteristic of **Crohn's disease**, which most commonly affects the terminal ileum and ileocecal region.
*Jejunum*
- While Crohn's disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, isolated jejunal involvement is relatively uncommon and typically presents with more diffuse abdominal pain rather than specific right lower quadrant pain.
- Significant **vitamin B12 malabsorption** is less common with isolated jejunal involvement compared to ileal disease, as B12 is primarily absorbed in the terminal ileum.
*Colon*
- Colonic involvement in inflammatory bowel disease often presents with **bloody diarrhea**, which this patient denies.
- Although **macrocytic anemia** can be seen in colonic Crohn's if there's significant ileal involvement or B12 deficiency from other causes, **right lower quadrant pain** is less specific for primary colonic inflammation, which would often be generalized or left-sided depending on the extent.
*Gastric antrum*
- Inflammation of the gastric antrum, such as from **gastritis** or **H. pylori infection**, would typically present with **epigastric pain**, nausea, and vomiting.
- It would not explain the **right lower quadrant pain**, diarrhea, or the characteristic colonoscopic findings of **skip lesions and inflammatory changes** consistent with Crohn's disease.
*Gastric fundus*
- Disorders affecting the gastric fundus, such as **pernicious anemia** or chronic atrophic gastritis, can cause **vitamin B12 deficiency** and macrocytic anemia but do not typically present with significant **right lower quadrant pain** or diarrhea.
- There would also be no corresponding colonic or ileal endoscopic findings as seen in this patient.
Question 27: A 25-year-old man comes to the physician with intermittent bloody diarrhea over the past 2 months. He has occasional abdominal pain. His symptoms have not improved over this time. He has no history of a serious illness and takes no medications. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 75/min, respirations are 14/min, and temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F). Deep palpation of the abdomen shows mild tenderness in the right lower quadrant. Colonoscopy shows diffuse erythema with a sandpaper pattern involving the rectosigmoid and descending colon, with normal mucosa of the rest of the colon. Biopsy shows involvement of the mucosal and submucosal layers with distortion of crypt architecture and crypt abscess formation. This patient is most likely to develop which of the following hepatobiliary diseases?
A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis (Correct Answer)
B. Cholangiocarcinoma
C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Primary biliary cholangitis
E. Cholelithiasis
Explanation: ***Primary sclerosing cholangitis***
- This patient's presentation with **bloody diarrhea**, **abdominal pain**, and colonoscopic findings of **diffuse erythema** and **crypt abscesses** in the rectosigmoid and descending colon is highly suggestive of **ulcerative colitis**.
- **Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)** is strongly associated with **ulcerative colitis**, making it the most likely hepatobiliary complication.
*Cholangiocarcinoma*
- While **PSC** itself increases the risk of cholangiocarcinoma, it is a complication of long-standing PSC, not the direct hepatobiliary disease the patient is most likely to develop initially.
- Cholangiocarcinoma is a **malignancy** of the bile ducts, and while possible eventually, PSC is the *primary* hepatobiliary disease associated with UC.
*Hepatocellular carcinoma*
- **Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)** is more commonly associated with chronic viral hepatitis (HBV, HCV), alcoholic liver disease, or non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) leading to cirrhosis.
- It has no direct and strong epidemiological association with **ulcerative colitis** or **inflammatory bowel disease** in the same way PSC does.
*Primary biliary cholangitis*
- **Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)** is an autoimmune disease primarily affecting small intrahepatic bile ducts, characterized by **anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA)**.
- It is not specifically associated with **ulcerative colitis** as **PSC** is; the major association is between PSC and IBD.
*Cholelithiasis*
- **Cholelithiasis (gallstones)** can occur in patients with Crohn's disease due to impaired ileal absorption of bile salts, but it is less commonly a direct complication of ulcerative colitis.
- While possible in the general population, it is not the *most likely* specific hepatobiliary complication directly linked to ulcerative colitis.
Question 28: A 22-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. The patient states that he has had right lower quadrant abdominal pain for "a while now". The pain comes and goes, and today it is particularly painful. The patient is a college student studying philosophy. He drinks alcohol occasionally and is currently sexually active. He states that sometimes he feels anxious about school. The patient's father died of colon cancer at the age of 55, and his mother died of breast cancer when she was 57. The patient has a past medical history of anxiety and depression which is not currently treated. Review of systems is positive for bloody diarrhea. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 100/58 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Cardiopulmonary exam is within normal limits. Abdominal exam reveals diffuse tenderness. A fecal occult blood test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Irritable bowel syndrome
B. Colon cancer
C. Appendicitis
D. Infectious colitis
E. Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)***
- The patient's presentation with **recurrent right lower quadrant pain**, **bloody diarrhea**, a **positive fecal occult blood test**, and a family history concerning for GI issues (colon cancer in father) in a young adult is highly suggestive of IBD, specifically **Crohn's disease** due to the RLQ pain location.
- His history of anxiety and depression is common in IBD patients, and the elevated pulse with mild hypotension suggests **volume depletion** from bloody diarrhea, a common complication.
*Irritable bowel syndrome*
- While IBS can cause recurrent abdominal pain, it is characterized by **functional bowel changes** and typically does not present with **bloody diarrhea** or a positive fecal occult blood test.
- IBS symptoms are often relieved by defecation and are not usually associated with significant systemic inflammation or blood loss.
*Colon cancer*
- Colon cancer is less likely in a **22-year-old** presenting with these acute symptoms, despite the family history, as it typically affects older individuals.
- While it can cause bloody stools and abdominal pain, the **recurrent nature** and acute presentation with bloody diarrhea are more classic for IBD in this age group.
*Appendicitis*
- Appendicitis presents with acute, **migratory right lower quadrant pain** that typically progresses and worsens over hours to a day, often with fever and leukocytosis.
- The given history of pain for "**a while now**" and bloody diarrhea makes appendicitis an unlikely primary diagnosis.
*Infectious colitis*
- Infectious colitis can cause abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea, but it's usually **acute in onset** without a long history of recurrent symptoms.
- While possible, the **recurrent nature** of the pain and bloody diarrhea for "**a while now**" makes a chronic condition like IBD more probable.
Question 29: A 33-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of intermittent lower abdominal cramps associated with diarrhea, bloating, and mild nausea. During this period, she has had a 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss. She feels like she cannot fully empty her bowels. She has no history of serious illness. She has a high-fiber diet. Her father is of Ashkenazi Jewish descent. She appears well. Her temperature is 36.9°C (98.5°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Abdominal examination shows mild tenderness to palpation in the right lower quadrant without guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are normal. Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Her hemoglobin concentration is 10.5 g/dL, leukocyte count is 12,000 mm3, platelet count is 480,000 mm3, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 129 mm/h. A barium enema shows ulceration and narrowing of the right colon. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Celiac disease
B. Crohn disease (Correct Answer)
C. Diverticulitis
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Intestinal carcinoid tumor
Explanation: ***Crohn disease***
- The patient presents with **intermittent abdominal cramps**, diarrhea, bloating, nausea, and significant **weight loss**, which are classic symptoms of **inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)**.
- **Anemia (Hb 10.5 g/dL)**, **leukocytosis (12,000/mm³)**, **thrombocytosis (480,000/mm³)**, and a **markedly elevated ESR (129 mm/h)** further support active inflammation. The **barium enema showing ulceration and narrowing of the right colon** is highly characteristic of **Crohn disease**, which commonly affects the **terminal ileum and right colon** with **skip lesions** and **transmural inflammation** leading to strictures and ulcerations.
*Celiac disease*
- While celiac disease can cause diarrhea, bloating, and weight loss, it is primarily a disease of the **small intestine** triggered by **gluten exposure** and does not typically present with the **segmental ulceration and narrowing** seen on barium enema in the right colon.
- Celiac disease would also not explain the significant systemic inflammatory markers such as **elevated ESR**, leukocytosis, and thrombocytosis to this degree.
*Diverticulitis*
- Diverticulitis typically presents with **left lower quadrant pain**, fever, and changes in bowel habits, but it usually involves the **sigmoid colon** and is characterized by outpouchings, not diffuse ulceration and narrowing of the right colon.
- **Weight loss** and the chronic, intermittent nature of symptoms with **right-sided involvement** are less typical for diverticulitis.
*Ulcerative colitis*
- Ulcerative colitis is another form of IBD, but it characteristically causes **continuous inflammation** that starts in the **rectum** and extends proximally through the colon, primarily affecting the **mucosa** and submucosa.
- **Right-sided colonic involvement with narrowing and discrete ulcerations** as seen on barium enema is more indicative of Crohn disease than ulcerative colitis, which typically presents with bloody diarrhea due to diffuse inflammation.
*Intestinal carcinoid tumor*
- An intestinal carcinoid tumor might cause abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss, especially if it leads to bowel obstruction, but these symptoms are usually accompanied by **carcinoid syndrome** (e.g., flushing, bronchospasm, valvular heart disease).
- The imaging findings of **ulceration and narrowing** are not typical for a carcinoid tumor, and the marked inflammatory markers point towards an inflammatory process rather than a neoplastic one.
Question 30: A 39-year-old woman presents to your office with 4 days of fever, sore throat, generalized aching, arthralgias, and tender nodules on both of her shins that arose in the last 48 hours. Her medical history is negative for disease and she does not take oral contraceptives or any other medication regularly. The physical examination reveals the vital signs that include body temperature 38.5°C (101.3°F), heart rate 85/min, blood pressure 120/65 mm Hg, tender and enlarged submandibular lymph nodes, and an erythematous, edematous, and swollen pharynx with enlarged tonsils and a patchy white exudate on the surface. She is not pregnant. Examination of the lower limbs reveals erythematous, tender, immobile nodules on both shins. You do not identify ulcers or similar lesions on other areas of her body. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Erythema nodosum (Correct Answer)
B. Henoch-Schönlein purpura
C. Cellulitis
D. Erythema induratum
E. Cutaneous polyarteritis nodosa
Explanation: ***Erythema nodosum***
- The patient presents with **tender nodules on both shins** (erythema nodosum), accompanied by fever, sore throat, arthralgias, and enlarged tonsils with exudate, all of which are consistent with an **underlying infection** (likely streptococcal pharyngitis) triggering erythema nodosum.
- Erythema nodosum is the most common form of **panniculitis** and often presents as an acute inflammatory reaction to various systemic diseases, infections (e.g., streptococcal pharyngitis, tuberculosis), drugs, or inflammatory conditions.
*Henoch-Schönlein purpura*
- Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) typically presents with a **palpable purpura** (non-blanching lesions), often predominantly on the lower extremities and buttocks, and is associated with **abdominal pain**, **arthralgia**, and **renal involvement**.
- The patient's lesions are described as **tender nodules**, not purpura, and there is no mention of abdominal pain or signs of renal disease.
*Cellulitis*
- Cellulitis is a **bacterial infection** of the deeper dermis and subcutaneous tissue, characterized by **spreading redness, warmth, pain, and swelling** that is typically unilateral.
- The lesions here are **discrete, tender nodules** on both shins, which is inconsistent with the diffuse, spreading inflammation of cellulitis.
*Erythema induratum*
- Erythema induratum, also a form of panniculitis, typically presents with **tender, erythematous nodules or plaques** on the **calves**, often leading to ulceration, and is historically associated with tuberculosis.
- While it causes nodules, the presentation here, especially the acute onset with a clear infectious prodrome and location on the shins without ulceration, is more characteristic of erythema nodosum than erythema induratum.
*Cutaneous polyarteritis nodosa*
- Cutaneous polyarteritis nodosa (CPN) is a form of **small-to-medium vessel vasculitis** that usually presents with **tender subcutaneous nodules**, **livedo reticularis**, ulcerations, and sometimes digital gangrene.
- While CPN can cause nodules, the patient's prominent symptoms of pharyngitis with exudate and generalized arthralgias point more strongly to an infectious trigger of erythema nodosum rather than a primary vasculitic process.