Background and Methods:
Aldosterone is important in the pathophysiology of heart failure. In a double-blind study, we enrolled 1,663 patients who had severe heart failure, a left ventricular ejection fraction of no more than 35 percent, and were being treated with an angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitor, a loop diuretic, and in most cases digoxin. A total of 822 patients were randomly assigned to receive 25 mg of spironolactone daily and 841 to receive placebo. The primary endpoint was death from all causes.
Results:
The trial was discontinued early, after a mean follow-up period of 24 months, because an interim analysis determined that spironolactone was efficacious. There were 386 deaths in the placebo group (46%) and 284 in the spironolactone group (35%; relative risk of death, 0.70; 95% confidence interval, 0.60 to 0.82; p<0.001). This 30 percent reduction in the risk of death among patients in the spironolactone group was attributed to a lower risk of both death from progressive heart failure and sudden death from cardiac causes. The frequency of hospitalization for worsening heart failure was 35% lower in the spironolactone group than in the placebo group (relative risk of hospitalization, 0.65; 95% confidence interval, 0.54 to 0.77; p<0.001). In addition, patients who received spironolactone had a significant improvement in the symptoms of heart failure, as assessed on the basis of the New York Heart Association functional class (p<0.001). Gynecomastia was reported in 10% of men who were treated with spironolactone, as compared with 1% of men in the placebo group (p<0.001). The incidence of serious hyperkalemia was minimal in both groups of patients.
Which of the following statements represents the most accurate interpretation of the results from the aforementioned clinical trial?
Q72
A 66-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of shortness of breath and confusion. His pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 109/73 mm Hg. He is oriented to person but not time or place. A graph of his breathing pattern and oxygen saturation is shown. Which of the following additional findings is most likely present in this patient?
Q73
A 14-year-old girl is brought to the physician for a follow-up examination. She has had frequent falls over the past two years. During the past six months, the patient has been unable to walk or stand without assistance and she now uses a wheelchair. Her mother was diagnosed with a vestibular schwannoma at age 52. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Her speech is slow and unclear. Neurological examination shows nystagmus in both eyes. Her gait is wide-based with irregular and uneven steps. Her proprioception and vibration sense are absent. Muscle strength is decreased especially in the lower extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+ bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows kyphoscoliosis and foot inversion with hammer toes. This patient is most likely to die from which of the following complications?
Q74
A 72-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. Physical exam reveals decreased breath sounds and dull percussion at the right lung base. Chest X-ray reveals a right-sided pleural effusion. A thoracentesis was performed, removing 450 mL of light pink fluid. Pleural fluid analysis reveals:
Pleural fluid to serum protein ratio: 0.35
Pleural fluid to serum LDH ratio: 0.49
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): 105 IU (serum LDH Reference: 100–190)
Which of the following disorders is most likely in this patient?
Q75
A 45-year-old man with a 5-year history of worsening shortness of breath and cough comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He has never smoked. His pulse is 75/min, blood pressure is 130/65 mm Hg, and respirations are 25/min. Examination shows an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Diminished breath sounds and wheezing are heard on auscultation of the chest. An x-ray of the chest shows widened intercostal spaces, a flattened diaphragm, and basilar-predominant bullous changes of the lungs. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
Q76
A 49-year-old man presents to his physician complaining of weakness and fatigue. On exam, you note significant peripheral edema. Transthoracic echocardiogram is performed and reveals a preserved ejection fraction with impaired diastolic relaxation. A representative still image is shown in Image A. Which of the following is likely the cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q77
A 48-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of worsening shortness of breath and cough productive of frothy, whitish sputum. One year ago, he had a similar episode lasting 6 months. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years. Physical examination shows bluish discoloration of the tongue and lips. Scattered expiratory wheezing and rhonchi are heard throughout both lung fields. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q78
A 81-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a 4-month history of shortness of breath. He says that he has slowly lost the ability to do things due to fatigue and now gets winded after walking around the house. He also says that his cough has been getting worse and seems to be producing more sputum. He has gained about 5 pounds over the last 6 months. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and diabetes. He has a 40 pack-year smoking history and drinks about 3 drinks per week. Physical exam reveals a cyanotic appearing man with 1+ edema in his legs bilaterally. He also has wheezing on lung auscultation with a prolonged expiratory phase. Which of the following would most likely be seen on a chest radiograph in this patient?
Q79
A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for a 5-day-history of worsening dyspnea, orthopnea, and lower leg swelling. He has a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and myocardial infarction 10 years ago. Current medications include metoprolol, lisinopril, ethacrynic acid, eplerenone, and aspirin. He drinks 1 beer daily. He has a 30-pack-year smoking history. He is allergic to sulfonamides. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), his pulse is 120/min, and his blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals jugular venous distention and 3+ pitting edema in his lower legs. Crackles are heard at both lung bases. The point of maximal impulse is 2 cm to the left of the midclavicular line in the 6th intercostal space. Which of the following additional findings would be most strongly associated with increased mortality?
Q80
A 71-year-old woman with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertension was admitted to the hospital 8 hours ago with substernal chest pain for management of acute non-ST-elevated myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). The ECG findings noted by ST-depressions and T-wave inversions on anterolateral leads, which is also accompanied by elevated cardiac enzymes. Upon diagnosis, management with inhaled oxygen therapy, beta-blockers and aspirin, and low-molecular-weight heparin therapy were initiated, and she was placed on bed rest with continuous electrocardiographic monitoring. Since admission, she required 2 doses of sublingual nitroglycerin for recurrent angina, and the repeat troponin levels continued to rise. Given her risk factors, plans were made for early coronary angiography. The telemetry nurse calls the on-call physician because of her concern with the patient's mild confusion and increasing need for supplemental oxygen. At bedside evaluation, The vital signs include: heart rate 122/min, blood pressure 89/40 mm Hg, and the pulse oximetry is 91% on 6L of oxygen by nasal cannula. The telemetry and a repeat ECG show sinus tachycardia. She is breathing rapidly, appears confused, and complains of shortness of breath. On physical exam, the skin is cool and clammy and appears pale and dull. She has diffuse bilateral pulmonary crackles, and an S3 gallop is noted on chest auscultation with no new murmurs. She has jugular venous distention to the jaw-line, rapid and faint radial pulses, and 1+ dependent edema. She is immediately transferred to the intensive care unit for respiratory support and precautions for airway security. The bedside sonography shows abnormal hypodynamic anterior wall movement and an ejection fraction of 20%, but no evidence of mitral regurgitation or ventricular shunt. The chest X-ray demonstrates cephalization of pulmonary veins and pulmonary edema. What is the most appropriate next step in the stabilization of this patient?
Heart failure US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: Background and Methods:
Aldosterone is important in the pathophysiology of heart failure. In a double-blind study, we enrolled 1,663 patients who had severe heart failure, a left ventricular ejection fraction of no more than 35 percent, and were being treated with an angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitor, a loop diuretic, and in most cases digoxin. A total of 822 patients were randomly assigned to receive 25 mg of spironolactone daily and 841 to receive placebo. The primary endpoint was death from all causes.
Results:
The trial was discontinued early, after a mean follow-up period of 24 months, because an interim analysis determined that spironolactone was efficacious. There were 386 deaths in the placebo group (46%) and 284 in the spironolactone group (35%; relative risk of death, 0.70; 95% confidence interval, 0.60 to 0.82; p<0.001). This 30 percent reduction in the risk of death among patients in the spironolactone group was attributed to a lower risk of both death from progressive heart failure and sudden death from cardiac causes. The frequency of hospitalization for worsening heart failure was 35% lower in the spironolactone group than in the placebo group (relative risk of hospitalization, 0.65; 95% confidence interval, 0.54 to 0.77; p<0.001). In addition, patients who received spironolactone had a significant improvement in the symptoms of heart failure, as assessed on the basis of the New York Heart Association functional class (p<0.001). Gynecomastia was reported in 10% of men who were treated with spironolactone, as compared with 1% of men in the placebo group (p<0.001). The incidence of serious hyperkalemia was minimal in both groups of patients.
Which of the following statements represents the most accurate interpretation of the results from the aforementioned clinical trial?
A. The incidence of both gynecomastia and hyperkalemia was elevated in patients treated with spironolactone
B. Spironolactone, in addition to standard therapy, substantially reduces the risk of morbidity and death in patients with severe heart failure (Correct Answer)
C. Spironolactone did not improve all-cause morbidity and mortality in patients with severe heart failure
D. Given the large sample size of this clinical trial, the results are likely generalizable to all patients with heart failure
E. The addition of spironolactone significantly improved symptoms of heart failure, but not overall mortality
Explanation: **Spironolactone, in addition to standard therapy, substantially reduces the risk of morbidity and death in patients with severe heart failure**
- The trial showed a **30% reduction in the risk of death** and a **35% lower frequency of hospitalization** for worsening heart failure in the spironolactone group (morbidity).
- Patients receiving spironolactone also had a **significant improvement in heart failure symptoms**, as assessed by the NYHA functional class.
*The incidence of both gynecomastia and hyperkalemia was elevated in patients treated with spironolactone*
- While **gynecomastia was elevated** (10% vs 1%), the incidence of **serious hyperkalemia was minimal** in both groups, contradicting the statement that hyperkalemia was elevated.
- The text explicitly states, "The incidence of serious hyperkalemia was minimal in both groups of patients."
*Spironolactone did not improve all-cause morbidity and mortality in patients with severe heart failure*
- This statement is **directly contradicted by the results**, which showed a significant reduction in all-cause mortality (30%) and improved morbidity (35% lower hospitalization, improved symptoms).
- The trial was, in fact, "discontinued early... because an interim analysis determined that spironolactone was efficacious."
*Given the large sample size of this clinical trial, the results are likely generalizable to all patients with heart failure*
- The study specifically enrolled patients with **severe heart failure** (ejection fraction ≤ 35%) who were already on **standard therapy** (ACE inhibitor, loop diuretic, digoxin).
- Therefore, the results are generalizable to this specific subgroup of severe heart failure patients, not necessarily *all* patients with heart failure.
*The addition of spironolactone significantly improved symptoms of heart failure, but not overall mortality*
- This statement is **incorrect** as the trial explicitly reported a **30% reduction in the risk of all-cause death** in the spironolactone group (mortality).
- Additionally, it did show improvement in symptoms, meaning the first part of the statement is true, but the latter part regarding mortality is false.
Question 72: A 66-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of shortness of breath and confusion. His pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 109/73 mm Hg. He is oriented to person but not time or place. A graph of his breathing pattern and oxygen saturation is shown. Which of the following additional findings is most likely present in this patient?
A. Rib fracture
B. Fruity breath odor
C. Ventricular gallop (Correct Answer)
D. Miotic pupils
E. Barrel chest
Explanation: ***Ventricular gallop***
- The patient's presentation with **shortness of breath**, **confusion**, and **oxygen desaturation** coupled with the breathing pattern shown (likely Cheyne-Stokes respiration from the image) strongly suggests **heart failure**. A **ventricular gallop (S3 heart sound)** is a classic finding in heart failure, indicating rapid ventricular filling into a stiff or dilated ventricle.
- The **confusional state** and **tachypnea (implied by oxygen desaturation)** are consistent with **hypoxia** and **reduced cardiac output** often seen in decompensated heart failure, where an S3 gallop is frequently heard.
*Rib fracture*
- While a rib fracture can cause shortness of breath due to pain and reduced chest expansion, it would not typically lead to **confusion** or a specific cyclical breathing pattern like Cheyne-Stokes, nor would it directly cause a ventricular gallop.
- The patient's vital signs and mental status point towards a more systemic issue rather than isolated chest trauma.
*Fruity breath odor*
- A **fruity breath odor** is a hallmark of **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)**, caused by the exhalation of acetone. This condition would also present with confusion and tachypnea, but would typically involve hyperglycemia and metabolic acidosis.
- There is no information to suggest diabetes, and the presentation of a specific breathing pattern in correlation with cardiac findings makes heart failure more likely.
*Miotic pupils*
- **Miotic pupils (pinpoint pupils)** are strongly associated with **opioid overdose** or organophosphate poisoning. These conditions would cause respiratory depression, not necessarily the specific breathing pattern, and would not explain the other findings in this specific context.
- The patient's pulse and blood pressure are also not typical of severe opioid overdose, which often involves bradycardia and hypotension.
*Barrel chest*
- A **barrel chest** is a physical finding typically associated with **chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)** due to chronic air trapping. While COPD can cause shortness of breath and confusion (in acute exacerbations), it does not directly lead to a ventricular gallop.
- Although the patient's age makes COPD possible, the acute presentation with a specific breathing pattern and the likelihood of heart failure make a barrel chest a less specific or primary finding in this context.
Question 73: A 14-year-old girl is brought to the physician for a follow-up examination. She has had frequent falls over the past two years. During the past six months, the patient has been unable to walk or stand without assistance and she now uses a wheelchair. Her mother was diagnosed with a vestibular schwannoma at age 52. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Her speech is slow and unclear. Neurological examination shows nystagmus in both eyes. Her gait is wide-based with irregular and uneven steps. Her proprioception and vibration sense are absent. Muscle strength is decreased especially in the lower extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+ bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows kyphoscoliosis and foot inversion with hammer toes. This patient is most likely to die from which of the following complications?
A. Aspiration pneumonia
B. Leukemia
C. Renal cell carcinoma
D. Heart failure (Correct Answer)
E. Posterior fossa tumors
Explanation: ***Heart failure***
- This patient's presentation with progressive ataxia, nystagmus, dysarthria, kyphoscoliosis, foot deformities, sensory deficits, and decreased deep tendon reflexes is highly suggestive of **Friedreich ataxia**.
- **Cardiomyopathy** and **congestive heart failure** are the leading causes of death in patients with Friedreich ataxia, affecting approximately 60% of patients and often leading to premature mortality.
*Aspiration pneumonia*
- While patients with **neurological deficits** like dysarthria and ataxia are at increased risk for aspiration, it is not the most common or direct cause of death in Friedreich ataxia compared to cardiac complications.
- Aspiration pneumonia is a serious complication, but **cardiac involvement** typically dictates the prognosis and survival in this condition.
*Leukemia*
- There is **no established link** between Friedreich ataxia and an increased risk of developing leukemia.
- The patient's symptoms are characteristic of a primary neurological and systemic disorder, not a hematological malignancy.
*Renal cell carcinoma*
- This type of cancer is **not associated** with Friedreich ataxia.
- The presented symptoms do not point towards any renal pathology or an increased risk for renal cell carcinoma.
*Posterior fossa tumors*
- While the mother had a vestibular schwannoma, which is a **posterior fossa tumor**, the patient's symptoms are not consistent with a tumor of the posterior fossa.
- The **progressive, diffuse neurological deficits** affecting both motor and sensory systems, along with systemic manifestations like kyphoscoliosis, are characteristic of a genetic ataxia rather than a focal tumor.
Question 74: A 72-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. Physical exam reveals decreased breath sounds and dull percussion at the right lung base. Chest X-ray reveals a right-sided pleural effusion. A thoracentesis was performed, removing 450 mL of light pink fluid. Pleural fluid analysis reveals:
Pleural fluid to serum protein ratio: 0.35
Pleural fluid to serum LDH ratio: 0.49
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): 105 IU (serum LDH Reference: 100–190)
Which of the following disorders is most likely in this patient?
A. Congestive heart failure (Correct Answer)
B. Uremia
C. Chylothorax
D. Pancreatitis
E. Sarcoidosis
Explanation: ***Congestive heart failure***
- The **pleural fluid to serum protein ratio of 0.35** and **LDH ratio of 0.49** fall within the criteria for a **transudative effusion** (ratios < 0.5 for protein and < 0.6 for LDH).
- **Congestive heart failure (CHF)** is a common cause of transudative pleural effusions due to increased hydrostatic pressure.
*Uremia*
- **Uremic pleuritis** typically causes an **exudative effusion**, characterized by higher protein and LDH levels in the pleural fluid.
- While patients with uremia may have pleural effusions, the fluid analysis here is not consistent with that diagnosis.
*Chylothorax*
- A **chylothorax** is characterized by a **milky-white fluid** with very high triglyceride levels (>110 mg/dL), resulting from lymphatic leakage.
- The described fluid is "light pink" and does not have the typical biochemical profile of a chylothorax.
*Pancreatitis*
- **Pancreatitis-induced pleural effusions** are almost always **exudative** and typically have **elevated amylase levels**.
- The transudative nature of the effusion rules out pancreatitis as the most likely cause.
*Sarcoidosis*
- **Sarcoidosis** can cause **pleural effusions**, but these are usually **exudative** and often accompanied by other systemic manifestations like lymphadenopathy or skin lesions.
- The presented fluid analysis does not support a diagnosis of sarcoidosis.
Question 75: A 45-year-old man with a 5-year history of worsening shortness of breath and cough comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He has never smoked. His pulse is 75/min, blood pressure is 130/65 mm Hg, and respirations are 25/min. Examination shows an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Diminished breath sounds and wheezing are heard on auscultation of the chest. An x-ray of the chest shows widened intercostal spaces, a flattened diaphragm, and basilar-predominant bullous changes of the lungs. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
A. Bronchogenic carcinoma
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Pneumothorax (Correct Answer)
D. Bronchiolitis obliterans
E. Churg-Strauss syndrome
Explanation: ***Pneumothorax***
- The patient's presentation with **worsening shortness of breath**, **increased anteroposterior diameter**, **diminished breath sounds**, and **basilar-predominant bullous changes** strongly suggests **Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency** (AATD) which causes panacinar emphysema.
- Patients with severe emphysema, particularly those with **large bullae**, are at significantly increased risk of developing a **spontaneous pneumothorax** due to the rupture of these fragile air sacs.
*Bronchogenic carcinoma*
- While smoking is a major risk factor for **bronchogenic carcinoma**, this patient has **never smoked**, making it less likely given his current symptoms.
- The imaging findings of **bullous changes** are more indicative of emphysema than neoplastic changes.
*Pulmonary fibrosis*
- **Pulmonary fibrosis** typically presents with a **restrictive lung disease pattern**, characterized by decreased lung volumes and often reticular changes on imaging.
- The patient's findings, such as an **increased anteroposterior diameter** and **flattened diaphragm**, are characteristic of **obstructive lung disease** (emphysema), not fibrosis.
*Bronchiolitis obliterans*
- **Bronchiolitis obliterans** is a rare obstructive lung disease often associated with **post-infectious sequelae**, connective tissue diseases, or following lung transplantation.
- The clinical and radiological findings are more consistent with **emphysema** due to Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, rather than bronchiolitis obliterans.
*Churg-Strauss syndrome*
- **Churg-Strauss syndrome** (eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis) is a systemic vasculitis characterized by **asthma**, **eosinophilia**, and **extrapulmonary involvement**.
- While asthma can cause wheezing, the predominant radiological findings of **bullous emphysema** and the risk factors for pulmonary collapse are inconsistent with Churg-Strauss syndrome.
Question 76: A 49-year-old man presents to his physician complaining of weakness and fatigue. On exam, you note significant peripheral edema. Transthoracic echocardiogram is performed and reveals a preserved ejection fraction with impaired diastolic relaxation. A representative still image is shown in Image A. Which of the following is likely the cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Hemochromatosis (Correct Answer)
B. Heavy, long-term alcohol consumption
C. History of myocardial infarction
D. History of a recent viral infection
E. Previous treatment with doxorubicin
Explanation: ***Hemochromatosis***
- **Hemochromatosis** can lead to **restrictive cardiomyopathy** due to iron deposition in the myocardium, causing **diastolic dysfunction** with a **preserved ejection fraction**.
- The symptoms of **weakness**, **fatigue**, and **peripheral edema** are consistent with **heart failure** secondary to this cardiac impairment.
*Heavy, long-term alcohol consumption*
- **Alcoholic cardiomyopathy** typically presents as **dilated cardiomyopathy**, characterized by **systolic dysfunction** and a **reduced ejection fraction**, which contradicts the preserved ejection fraction seen in this patient.
- While chronic alcohol use can cause heart failure symptoms, the specific echocardiographic findings do not align with this etiology.
*History of myocardial infarction*
- A **myocardial infarction** commonly leads to **systolic dysfunction** or **ischemic cardiomyopathy**, resulting in a **reduced ejection fraction** due to scar tissue formation and impaired contractility.
- The patient's preserved ejection fraction and primary diastolic relaxation abnormality make this diagnosis less likely.
*History of a recent viral infection*
- A recent viral infection can cause **viral myocarditis**, which typically leads to **dilated cardiomyopathy** and **systolic dysfunction** with a **reduced ejection fraction**.
- The observed preserved ejection fraction and isolated diastolic relaxation impairment are not characteristic features of acute viral myocarditis.
*Previous treatment with doxorubicin*
- **Doxorubicin** (an anthracycline) is a well-known cardiotoxic agent that causes **dilated cardiomyopathy** with a **reduced ejection fraction**, primarily affecting **systolic function**.
- The patient's preserved ejection fraction makes doxorubicin-induced cardiotoxicity an unlikely cause of his current presentation.
Question 77: A 48-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of worsening shortness of breath and cough productive of frothy, whitish sputum. One year ago, he had a similar episode lasting 6 months. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years. Physical examination shows bluish discoloration of the tongue and lips. Scattered expiratory wheezing and rhonchi are heard throughout both lung fields. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Increased FEV1/FVC ratio
B. Increased diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide
C. Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
D. Increased serum hematocrit (Correct Answer)
E. Normal FEV1
Explanation: ***Increased serum hematocrit***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **chronic bronchitis**, a form of COPD, characterized by a **chronic productive cough** and **hypoxemia**.
- **Chronic hypoxemia** stimulates the kidneys to release **erythropoietin**, leading to secondary **polycythemia** (increased red blood cell mass) and thus an **increased hematocrit** to improve oxygen-carrying capacity.
*Increased FEV1/FVC ratio*
- This patient's symptoms (shortness of breath, productive cough, wheezing, smoking history) are classic for **chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)**, which is an **obstructive lung disease**.
- Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by **decreased FEV1/FVC ratio** due to airflow limitation, not an increased ratio.
*Increased diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide*
- In COPD, particularly chronic bronchitis and emphysema, the **diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO)** is typically **decreased** due to destruction of alveolar-capillary membranes (emphysema) and ventilation-perfusion mismatch (chronic bronchitis).
- An increased DLCO is more commonly seen in conditions like **pulmonary hemorrhage** or **asthma**.
*Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure*
- **Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)** is characteristic of **left-sided heart failure**, indicating elevated left atrial and pulmonary venous pressures.
- While patients with severe COPD can develop **pulmonary hypertension** and eventually **right-sided heart failure (cor pulmonale)**, the primary pathology described here points to lung disease, not left ventricular dysfunction.
*Normal FEV1*
- In COPD, there is **airflow obstruction** that manifests as a **reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)**.
- A normal FEV1 would be inconsistent with the clinical presentation of significant, worsening shortness of breath and airflow limitation.
Question 78: A 81-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a 4-month history of shortness of breath. He says that he has slowly lost the ability to do things due to fatigue and now gets winded after walking around the house. He also says that his cough has been getting worse and seems to be producing more sputum. He has gained about 5 pounds over the last 6 months. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and diabetes. He has a 40 pack-year smoking history and drinks about 3 drinks per week. Physical exam reveals a cyanotic appearing man with 1+ edema in his legs bilaterally. He also has wheezing on lung auscultation with a prolonged expiratory phase. Which of the following would most likely be seen on a chest radiograph in this patient?
A. Perihilar mass with unilateral hilar enlargement
B. Cardiomegaly and increased bronchial markings
C. Subpleural cystic enlargement
D. Calcified pleural plaques surrounding the diaphragm
E. Hyperinflated lungs and loss of lung markings (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hyperinflated lungs and loss of lung markings***
- The patient's symptoms (shortness of breath, cough with sputum, fatigue, wheezing, prolonged expiratory phase, cyanosis, and 40 pack-year smoking history) are highly suggestive of **severe COPD, particularly emphysema**.
- **Emphysema** is characterized by the destruction of alveolar walls, leading to enlarged air spaces, **hyperinflation of the lungs**, and a **loss of normal lung markings** due to decreased vascularity.
*Perihilar mass with unilateral hilar enlargement*
- This finding is suspicious for a **bronchogenic carcinoma**, which is possible in a heavy smoker.
- However, the overall clinical picture, including bilateral wheezing, prolonged expiration, and signs of chronic hypoxemia (cyanosis, edema from potential right heart failure), points more strongly to widespread obstructive lung disease rather than a localized mass as the primary radiologic finding.
*Cardiomegaly and increased bronchial markings*
- **Cardiomegaly** can be seen in heart failure, and while the patient has leg edema (suggesting right heart strain due to lung disease or independent heart failure), his primary respiratory symptoms are more indicative of obstructive lung disease.
- **Increased bronchial markings** suggest bronchial wall thickening, which can be seen in chronic bronchitis or asthma, but does not fully capture the diffuse destructive changes of emphysema that better fit the clinical presentation.
*Subpleural cystic enlargement*
- **Subpleural cystic enlargement** can be seen in conditions like **pulmonary fibrosis** (e.g., usual interstitial pneumonia), which presents with restrictive lung disease.
- This pattern is inconsistent with the patient's obstructive symptoms of wheezing and prolonged expiratory phase, which are characteristic of airflow limitation.
*Calcified pleural plaques surrounding the diaphragm*
- **Calcified pleural plaques** are a hallmark sign of **asbestos exposure**.
- While possible given his age, there is no history of asbestos exposure, and these plaques are typically asymptomatic, not explaining the acute worsening of respiratory symptoms.
Question 79: A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for a 5-day-history of worsening dyspnea, orthopnea, and lower leg swelling. He has a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and myocardial infarction 10 years ago. Current medications include metoprolol, lisinopril, ethacrynic acid, eplerenone, and aspirin. He drinks 1 beer daily. He has a 30-pack-year smoking history. He is allergic to sulfonamides. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), his pulse is 120/min, and his blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals jugular venous distention and 3+ pitting edema in his lower legs. Crackles are heard at both lung bases. The point of maximal impulse is 2 cm to the left of the midclavicular line in the 6th intercostal space. Which of the following additional findings would be most strongly associated with increased mortality?
A. Decreased serum Na+ (Correct Answer)
B. Decreased QRS complex duration
C. Decreased BNP levels
D. Increased heart rate variability
E. Increased VO2
Explanation: ***Decreased serum Na+***
- **Hyponatremia** in heart failure is often due to increased **ADH secretion** and impaired free-water clearance, reflecting more advanced disease.
- It is an independent predictor of increased **morbidity and mortality** in patients with heart failure due to its association with severe hemodynamic compromise and neurohumoral activation.
*Decreased QRS complex duration*
- A **decreased QRS duration** generally indicates more efficient ventricular depolarization, which is a positive sign and not associated with increased mortality in heart failure.
- Prolonged QRS duration, often seen in **conduction abnormalities** like bundle branch blocks, is linked to worse outcomes.
*Decreased BNP levels*
- **Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)** is a biomarker released in response to ventricular stretch and volume overload.
- **Decreased BNP levels** would suggest less severe heart failure or effective treatment, correlating with improved outcomes, not increased mortality.
*Increased heart rate variability*
- **Increased heart rate variability (HRV)** indicates robust autonomic nervous system function and is generally associated with a healthy cardiovascular system.
- In heart failure, **decreased HRV** is a common finding and is associated with increased mortality, reflecting impaired autonomic balance.
*Increased VO2*
- **VO2 max** (maximal oxygen consumption) is a measure of aerobic capacity and a strong predictor of prognosis in heart failure.
- **Increased VO2 max** indicates better exercise tolerance and cardiovascular fitness, which is associated with better outcomes and decreased mortality, not increased mortality.
Question 80: A 71-year-old woman with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertension was admitted to the hospital 8 hours ago with substernal chest pain for management of acute non-ST-elevated myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). The ECG findings noted by ST-depressions and T-wave inversions on anterolateral leads, which is also accompanied by elevated cardiac enzymes. Upon diagnosis, management with inhaled oxygen therapy, beta-blockers and aspirin, and low-molecular-weight heparin therapy were initiated, and she was placed on bed rest with continuous electrocardiographic monitoring. Since admission, she required 2 doses of sublingual nitroglycerin for recurrent angina, and the repeat troponin levels continued to rise. Given her risk factors, plans were made for early coronary angiography. The telemetry nurse calls the on-call physician because of her concern with the patient's mild confusion and increasing need for supplemental oxygen. At bedside evaluation, The vital signs include: heart rate 122/min, blood pressure 89/40 mm Hg, and the pulse oximetry is 91% on 6L of oxygen by nasal cannula. The telemetry and a repeat ECG show sinus tachycardia. She is breathing rapidly, appears confused, and complains of shortness of breath. On physical exam, the skin is cool and clammy and appears pale and dull. She has diffuse bilateral pulmonary crackles, and an S3 gallop is noted on chest auscultation with no new murmurs. She has jugular venous distention to the jaw-line, rapid and faint radial pulses, and 1+ dependent edema. She is immediately transferred to the intensive care unit for respiratory support and precautions for airway security. The bedside sonography shows abnormal hypodynamic anterior wall movement and an ejection fraction of 20%, but no evidence of mitral regurgitation or ventricular shunt. The chest X-ray demonstrates cephalization of pulmonary veins and pulmonary edema. What is the most appropriate next step in the stabilization of this patient?
A. Obtain blood cultures and start preliminary broad-spectrum antibiotics
B. Start intravenous fluids and epinephrine therapy
C. Intubate the patient and perform an emergency cardiocentesis
D. Initiate dopamine therapy and diuresis (Correct Answer)
E. Insert two large-bore intravenous catheters and start rapid fluid resuscitation
Explanation: ***Initiate dopamine therapy and diuresis***
- This patient is presenting with **cardiogenic shock** secondary to extensive NSTEMI, characterized by **hypotension**, signs of **end-organ hypoperfusion** (confusion, cool clammy skin), **pulmonary edema** (crackles, dyspnea, elevated jugular venous pressure), and **severely reduced ejection fraction**. Dopamine is a vasopressor that can increase cardiac output and blood pressure.
- **Diuresis** with loop diuretics such as furosemide is crucial to reduce the fluid overload contributing to the pulmonary edema and jugular venous distention.
*Obtain blood cultures and start preliminary broad-spectrum antibiotics*
- While infection is a concern in critically ill patients, there are **no signs of infection** in this clinical presentation. The patient's symptoms are clearly attributable to acute cardiac decompensation.
- A delay in treating cardiogenic shock to investigate for infection would be detrimental and potentially fatal.
*Start intravenous fluids and epinephrine therapy*
- Intravenous fluids would **worsen the existing pulmonary edema and fluid overload** in a patient with an ejection fraction of 20% and clinical signs of volume overload (crackles, JVD, S3 gallop).
- Epinephrine is a potent vasopressor but is generally reserved for more severe shock refractory to other inotropes, or in cases of **cardiac arrest**, not typically first-line for cardiogenic shock with significant pulmonary congestion.
*Intubate the patient and perform an emergency cardiocentesis*
- While the patient is confused and has respiratory distress, **intubation** should be considered after hemodynamic stabilization, if respiratory failure persists or worsens.
- **Cardiocentesis** is indicated for **cardiac tamponade**, which is not supported by the absence of an effusion on bedside sonography and the finding of hypodynamic anterior wall movement, which points to pump failure.
*Insert two large-bore intravenous catheters and start rapid fluid resuscitation*
- This patient is in **cardiogenic shock with clear evidence of fluid overload**, including pulmonary edema and elevated jugular venous pressure.
- **Rapid fluid resuscitation would exacerbate heart failure** and worsen respiratory compromise due to increased preload.