A 55-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of epigastric pain, sweating, and breathlessness for 45 minutes. She has hypertension treated with hydrochlorothiazide. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 30 years and drinks 1 glass of wine daily. Her pulse is 105/min and blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
pH 7.49
pCO2 32 mm Hg
pO2 57 mm Hg
Which of the following is the most likely cause of hypoxemia in this patient?
Q2
A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, is admitted to the hospital because of shortness of breath and fatigue 2 weeks after delivery of a full-term female newborn. She has no history of major medical illness. Cardiac examination on admission shows an S3 gallop and a grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex. Treatment is initiated with intravenous furosemide and captopril. Her symptoms resolve, and 3 weeks later, cardiac examination shows no murmur. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the initial auscultation findings?
Q3
A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 1-week-history of progressively worsening dyspnea and intermittent chest pain that increases on inspiration. He had an upper respiratory tract infection 2 weeks ago. His pulse is 115/min and blood pressure is 100/65 mm Hg. Examination shows inspiratory crackles bilaterally. His serum troponin I is 0.21 ng/mL (N < 0.1). An x-ray of the chest shows an enlarged cardiac silhouette and prominent vascular markings in both lung fields; costophrenic angles are blunted. A rhythm strip shows inverted T waves. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient's condition?
Q4
A 65-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and was recently discharged from the hospital for an exacerbation. His cough and chills have since improved, but his mobility is still severely limited by dyspnea and fatigue. He smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for 30 years, but quit 5 years ago. His medications include inhaled daily budesonide, formoterol, and tiotropium bromide plus ipratropium/albuterol as needed. Pulmonary function testing shows an FEV1 of 27% of predicted. Resting oxygen saturation ranges from 84–88%. Which of the following steps in management is most likely to increase the chance of survival in this patient?
Q5
A 60-year-old Caucasian man comes to the physician because of progressive fatigue, shortness of breath, and leg swelling for the past 4 months. He has to pause several times when climbing one flight of stairs. For the past 10 years, he has had joint pain in his hands, wrists, and knees. He has diabetes mellitus and hypertension controlled with daily insulin injections and a strict low-calorie, low-sodium diet. He takes ibuprofen as needed for his joint pain. His wife says that he snores at night. He drinks two to three beers daily. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for the past 40 years. He went camping in northern New York one week ago. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows jugular venous distention, pitting edema around the ankles, and tanned skin. Crackles are heard at both lung bases. An S3 is heard at the apex. The liver is palpated 2 to 3 cm below the right costal margin. His skin appears dark brown. An ECG shows a left bundle branch block. Echocardiography shows left atrial and ventricular enlargement, reduced left ventricular ejection fraction, and mild mitral regurgitation. Which of the following is most likely to have prevented this patient's condition?
Heart failure US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 55-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of epigastric pain, sweating, and breathlessness for 45 minutes. She has hypertension treated with hydrochlorothiazide. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 30 years and drinks 1 glass of wine daily. Her pulse is 105/min and blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
pH 7.49
pCO2 32 mm Hg
pO2 57 mm Hg
Which of the following is the most likely cause of hypoxemia in this patient?
A. Increased pulmonary capillary permeability
B. Increased pulmonary capillary pressure (Correct Answer)
C. Decreased total body hemoglobin
D. Decreased transpulmonary pressure
E. Decreased minute ventilation
Explanation: ***Increased pulmonary capillary pressure***
- The patient's symptoms (epigastric pain, sweating, breathlessness) and risk factors (hypertension, smoking) suggest an **acute coronary syndrome**, which can lead to left ventricular dysfunction and **cardiogenic pulmonary edema**.
- **Increased pulmonary capillary pressure** (due to elevated left atrial and pulmonary venous pressures) causes fluid transudation into the alveoli, leading to V/Q mismatch and hypoxemia (low pO2).
*Increased pulmonary capillary permeability*
- This typically occurs in conditions causing **acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)**, such as sepsis or trauma, which are not suggested by the patient's presentation.
- While ARDS can cause hypoxemia, the primary cause would be fluid leakage due to inflammation, not hydrostatic pressure increase.
*Decreased total body hemoglobin*
- This would lead to **anemic hypoxia**, where oxygen delivery is impaired due to insufficient oxygen-carrying capacity, but the pO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) in the arterial blood itself would not necessarily be low.
- The problem here is in gas exchange, indicated by the low pO2, rather than the amount of hemoglobin.
*Decreased transpulmonary pressure*
- This refers to the pressure difference across the lung, important for lung inflation. Decreased transpulmonary pressure might occur in conditions like **pneumothorax** or **pleural effusion**, which are not indicated by the symptoms or blood gas results.
- It would primarily affect lung volume and compliance, leading to hypoxemia indirectly through atelectasis or reduced ventilation.
*Decreased minute ventilation*
- **Hypoventilation** would cause both a low pO2 and an **elevated pCO2**, indicating insufficient CO2 removal.
- This patient has a low pO2 but also a **low pCO2 (32 mm Hg)**, indicating **respiratory alkalosis from hyperventilation**, likely as a compensatory response to hypoxemia and the physiologic stress of acute myocardial infarction.
Question 2: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, is admitted to the hospital because of shortness of breath and fatigue 2 weeks after delivery of a full-term female newborn. She has no history of major medical illness. Cardiac examination on admission shows an S3 gallop and a grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex. Treatment is initiated with intravenous furosemide and captopril. Her symptoms resolve, and 3 weeks later, cardiac examination shows no murmur. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the initial auscultation findings?
A. Myxomatous mitral valve degeneration
B. Mitral annular calcification
C. Perivalvular abscess
D. Mitral valve leaflet fibrosis
E. Mitral annular dilatation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Mitral annular dilatation***
- The combination of **shortness of breath**, **fatigue**, **S3 gallop**, and a **holosystolic murmur** at the apex in the peripartum period is highly suggestive of **peripartum cardiomyopathy (PPCM)**.
- In PPCM, the **left ventricle dilates**, leading to **mitral annular dilatation** and subsequent **functional mitral regurgitation**, which manifests as a holosystolic murmur. The resolution of symptoms and murmur after treatment supports PPCM.
*Myxomatous mitral valve degeneration*
- This condition is characterized by **structural changes** in the mitral valve leaflets, making them redundant or prolapsing.
- The murmur associated with this would likely be a **mid-systolic click** followed by a late systolic murmur, and it would typically be a **chronic finding** that would not resolve within weeks postpartum.
*Mitral annular calcification*
- This condition involves thickening and hardening of the **mitral valve annulus**, primarily seen in older individuals or those with significant cardiovascular risk factors.
- While it can lead to mitral regurgitation or stenosis, it is a **chronic structural change** and would not resolve spontaneously or with medical management in a few weeks.
*Perivalvular abscess*
- A perivalvular abscess is a complication of **infective endocarditis**, typically presenting with **fever**, positive **blood cultures**, and evidence of infection.
- This patient lacks fever or other signs of infection, and the rapid resolution of symptoms and murmur is inconsistent with an active infectious process requiring specific antibiotic therapy.
*Mitral valve leaflet fibrosis*
- **Mitral valve leaflet fibrosis** implies a **scarring and thickening of the valve leaflets**, often a consequence of rheumatic heart disease or other chronic inflammatory processes.
- This is a **permanent structural change** that would not resolve spontaneously within weeks after delivery, and the patient has no history to suggest such a condition.
Question 3: A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 1-week-history of progressively worsening dyspnea and intermittent chest pain that increases on inspiration. He had an upper respiratory tract infection 2 weeks ago. His pulse is 115/min and blood pressure is 100/65 mm Hg. Examination shows inspiratory crackles bilaterally. His serum troponin I is 0.21 ng/mL (N < 0.1). An x-ray of the chest shows an enlarged cardiac silhouette and prominent vascular markings in both lung fields; costophrenic angles are blunted. A rhythm strip shows inverted T waves. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient's condition?
A. Opening snap with low-pitched diastolic rumble
B. Elevated brain natriuretic peptide (Correct Answer)
C. Sarcomere duplication
D. Right ventricular dilation
E. Electrical alternans
Explanation: ***Elevated brain natriuretic peptide***
- This patient presents with symptoms of **dyspnea**, **chest pain**, **tachycardia**, elevated **troponin I**, an enlarged **cardiac silhouette** with prominent vascular markings, and **blunted costophrenic angles**, all consistent with **cardiomyopathy** and heart failure, likely post-viral **myocarditis**.
- **Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)** is released by myocardial cells in response to ventricular stretch and volume overload, making it a strong indicator for **heart failure**.
*Opening snap with low-pitched diastolic rumble*
- An **opening snap** followed by a **low-pitched diastolic rumble** is characteristic of **mitral stenosis**, a valvular disorder not suggested by the patient's acute presentation and other findings.
- Mitral stenosis would typically be associated with a history of **rheumatic fever** and more specific echocardiographic findings of valve abnormalities.
*Sarcomere duplication*
- **Sarcomere duplication** and disarray are characteristic pathological findings in **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)**, an inherited genetic disorder.
- While HCM can cause dyspnea and chest pain, this patient's acute presentation following a viral infection and evidence of fluid overload are more indicative of an **acquired cardiomyopathy** such as myocarditis.
*Right ventricular dilation*
- While the patient has signs of **heart failure**, the chest X-ray shows an **enlarged cardiac silhouette** and **prominent vascular markings in both lung fields** and **blunted costophrenic angles**, suggesting **left ventricular failure** with fluid redistribution and pleural effusions.
- Significant **right ventricular dilation** would typically be associated with signs of right-sided heart failure like **peripheral edema** and **jugular venous distension**, which are not explicitly mentioned as primary findings.
*Electrical alternans*
- **Electrical alternans** is a specific ECG finding characterized by beat-to-beat variation in the QRS amplitude or axis, most commonly associated with **pericardial effusion** leading to cardiac tamponade.
- Although the patient has an enlarged cardiac silhouette, which could indicate effusion, the primary findings point more broadly to **myocardial dysfunction** and **heart failure** rather than tamponade.
Question 4: A 65-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and was recently discharged from the hospital for an exacerbation. His cough and chills have since improved, but his mobility is still severely limited by dyspnea and fatigue. He smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for 30 years, but quit 5 years ago. His medications include inhaled daily budesonide, formoterol, and tiotropium bromide plus ipratropium/albuterol as needed. Pulmonary function testing shows an FEV1 of 27% of predicted. Resting oxygen saturation ranges from 84–88%. Which of the following steps in management is most likely to increase the chance of survival in this patient?
A. Oxygen therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Inhaled fluticasone
C. Antibiotic therapy
D. Oral roflumilast
E. Oral theophylline
Explanation: ***Oxygen therapy***
- This patient has **severe COPD** (FEV1 27% predicted) and **chronic hypoxemia** (SpO2 84-88%). Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is proven to increase survival in such patients by reducing **pulmonary hypertension** and improving cardiac function.
- The goal of LTOT is to maintain a **PaO2 > 60 mmHg** or an **SaO2 > 90%** at rest, during sleep, and with exertion.
*Inhaled fluticasone*
- While inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone can reduce exacerbations in patients with severe COPD and frequent exacerbations, they do not consistently improve **survival** in the way oxygen therapy does for chronic hypoxemia.
- This patient is already on budesonide, another inhaled corticosteroid, making an additional ICS unlikely to provide significant further survival benefit.
*Antibiotic therapy*
- **Antibiotics** are used to treat acute bacterial exacerbations of COPD, which this patient recently experienced and has improved from (cough and chills have improved).
- There is no indication for **chronic antibiotic therapy** for survival benefit in stable COPD unless there are specific indications like frequent exacerbations or bronchiectasis.
*Oral roflumilast*
- **Roflumilast** is a phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor used in severe COPD with a history of exacerbations to reduce exacerbation frequency, particularly in patients with chronic bronchitis phenotype.
- While it can improve lung function and reduce exacerbations, it has not been shown to improve **survival** directly.
*Oral theophylline*
- **Theophylline** is a bronchodilator with a narrow therapeutic window and potential for significant side effects, often used as an alternative or add-on therapy in COPD.
- While it can improve symptoms and lung function, it has not been demonstrated to improve **survival** in patients with severe COPD and chronic hypoxemia.
Question 5: A 60-year-old Caucasian man comes to the physician because of progressive fatigue, shortness of breath, and leg swelling for the past 4 months. He has to pause several times when climbing one flight of stairs. For the past 10 years, he has had joint pain in his hands, wrists, and knees. He has diabetes mellitus and hypertension controlled with daily insulin injections and a strict low-calorie, low-sodium diet. He takes ibuprofen as needed for his joint pain. His wife says that he snores at night. He drinks two to three beers daily. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for the past 40 years. He went camping in northern New York one week ago. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows jugular venous distention, pitting edema around the ankles, and tanned skin. Crackles are heard at both lung bases. An S3 is heard at the apex. The liver is palpated 2 to 3 cm below the right costal margin. His skin appears dark brown. An ECG shows a left bundle branch block. Echocardiography shows left atrial and ventricular enlargement, reduced left ventricular ejection fraction, and mild mitral regurgitation. Which of the following is most likely to have prevented this patient's condition?
A. Smoking cessation
B. Nocturnal continuous positive airway pressure therapy
C. Protective clothing
D. Regular phlebotomy (Correct Answer)
E. Surgical valve repair
Explanation: ***Regular phlebotomy***
- The patient's presentation with **heart failure** symptoms (fatigue, shortness of breath, leg swelling, JVD, S3, crackles, enlarged liver, reduced LVEF) combined with **arthralgias**, **diabetes**, and **hyperpigmented (tanned/dark brown) skin** is highly suggestive of **hereditary hemochromatosis**.
- **Regular phlebotomy** is the primary treatment for **hemochromatosis** to reduce iron overload and prevent end-organ damage, including **dilated cardiomyopathy**, which is the cause of his heart failure.
*Smoking cessation*
- While **smoking** is a significant risk factor for **cardiovascular disease** and contributes to overall morbidity, it is not the primary underlying cause of the specific constellation of symptoms seen here (heart failure, arthralgias, diabetes, and hyperpigmented skin) that points toward **hemochromatosis**.
- **Smoking cessation** would improve general health but would not have prevented the iron overload and subsequent organ damage characteristic of this patient's condition.
*Nocturnal continuous positive airway pressure therapy*
- **Snoring** suggests possible **sleep apnea**, and CPAP therapy would address this.
- However, **sleep apnea** does not explain the widespread organ damage indicators like diabetes, arthralgias, and hyperpigmented skin, nor is it the primary cause of this specific type of cardiomyopathy.
*Protective clothing*
- The patient went camping in northern New York, which could increase the risk of **Lyme disease** or other **tick-borne illnesses**.
- While protective clothing might prevent **tick bites**, the clinical picture of chronic heart failure, diabetes, arthralgias, and hyperpigmentation is not typical of **Lyme disease**, which usually presents with migratory arthralgias, rash, and specific neurological or cardiac manifestations not fully matching this case.
*Surgical valve repair*
- The echocardiogram shows **mild mitral regurgitation**, which is likely a consequence of the **left ventricular enlargement** and dilation due to the cardiomyopathy, rather than a primary valvular defect.
- Addressing the underlying cause of the cardiomyopathy (**iron overload due to hemochromatosis**) would be more appropriate than surgically intervening on a mildly incompetent valve that is secondary to the primary disease process.