A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a yearly checkup. He states he feels he has been in good health other than minor fatigue, which he attributes to aging. The patient has a past medical history of hypertension and is currently taking chlorthalidone. He drinks 1 glass of red wine every night. He has lost 5 pounds since his last appointment 4 months ago. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 147/98 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals an obese man in no acute distress. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 27%
Mean corpuscular volume: 72 µm^3
Leukocyte count: 6,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 193,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.0 mg/dL
AST: 32 U/L
ALT: 20 U/L
25-OH vitamin D: 15 ng/mL
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q82
A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of flank pain, myalgia, and reddish discoloration of her urine for the past 2 days. One week ago, she had a fever and a sore throat and was prescribed antibiotics. She is otherwise healthy and has no history of serious illness. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 128/75 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a soft abdomen and no costovertebral angle tenderness. Examination of the mouth and pharynx shows no abnormalities. There is a faint maculopapular rash over the trunk and extremities. Serum creatinine is 2.4 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows:
Protein 2+
Blood 2+
RBC 20–30/hpf
WBC 12/hpf
Bacteria none
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q83
A 41-year-old woman comes to the primary care physician’s office with a 7-day history of headaches, sore throat, diarrhea, fatigue, and low-grade fevers. The patient denies any significant past medical history, recent travel, or recent sick contacts. On review of systems, the patient endorses performing sex acts in exchange for money and recreational drugs over the last several months. You suspect primary HIV infection, but the patient refuses further evaluation. At a follow-up appointment 1 week later, she reports that she had been previously tested for HIV, and it was negative. Physical examination does not reveal any external abnormalities of her genitalia. Her heart and lung sounds are normal on auscultation. Her vital signs show a blood pressure of 123/82 mm Hg, heart rate of 82/min, and a respiratory rate of 16/min. Of the following options, which is the next best step in patient management?
Q84
A 46-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of fever, fatigue, and coughing up blood. On questioning, he notes that he has also experienced some weight loss over the past 4 months and a change in the color of his urine, with intermittent passage of dark-colored urine during that time. The man does not have a prior history of cough or hemoptysis and has not been in contact with anyone with a chronic cough. The cough was originally productive of rust-colored sputum, but it has now progressed to the coughing up of blood and sputum at least twice daily. Sputum production is approximately 2 spoonfuls per coughing episode. Vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), respiratory rate 42/min, and pulse 88/min. Physical examination reveals an anxious but tired-looking man with mild respiratory distress and mild pallor. Laboratory and antibody tests are ordered and the findings include the following:
Laboratory test
Hematocrit 34%
Hepatitis antibody test negative
Hepatitis C antibody test negative
24-hour urinary protein 2 g
Urine microscopy more than 5 RBC under high power microscopy
Antibody test
C-ANCA negative
Anti MPO/P-ANCA positive
Serum urea 140 mg/dL
Serum creatinine 2.8 mg/dL
Renal biopsy shows glomerulonephritis with crescent formation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q85
A 43-year-old HIV positive male presents with signs and symptoms concerning for a fungal infection. He is currently not on antiretrovirals and his CD4 count is 98. Which of the following candidal infections could be seen in this patient but would be very rare in an immunocompetent host?
Q86
A 40-year-old woman comes to the physician for right lower abdominal pain for 6 months. She has multiple non-bloody, watery bowel movements daily and experiences abdominal cramping. Sometimes, she feels sudden palpitations, is short of breath, and her face becomes red. She has lost 7 kg over the past 3 months. She went on a 3-week hiking trip to Cambodia 6 months ago. She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 15 years. Her temperature is 37˚C (98.6°F), her pulse is 72/min and her blood pressure is 125/70 mm Hg. On physical examination, tiny blood vessels are noted on her face and arms. Lung auscultation shows bilateral wheezing. The abdomen is soft and nondistended. There is localized tenderness to the right lower quadrant, but no rebound tenderness or guarding. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count 4,600 /mm3
Segmented neutrophils 61 %
Eosinophils 2 %
Platelet count 254,000 /mm3
Hemoglobin 13.1 g/dL
Serum
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 110 IU/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 128 IU/L
C-reactive protein 8 mg/dL (N = 0–10)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q87
A 68-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with intense abdominal pain for the past 2 hours. She has had 1 episode of bloody diarrhea recently. She has an 18-year history of diabetes mellitus. She was diagnosed with hypertension and ischemic heart disease 6 years ago. She is fully alert and oriented. Her temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 14/min. Abdominal examination shows mild generalized abdominal tenderness without guarding or rebound tenderness. An abdominal plain X-ray shows no abnormalities. Abdominal CT reveals colonic wall thickening and pericolonic fat stranding in the splenic curvature. Bowel rest, intravenous hydration, and IV antibiotics are initiated. Which of the following is the most important diagnostic evaluation at this time?
Q88
A 27-year-old new patient presents to the physician’s office with complaints of burning, upper abdominal pain for the past 6 months. The pain does not radiate and is only partially relieved by eating small meals, over the counter antacids, and PPI. He previously underwent upper endoscopy that revealed small ulcers in the stomach and duodenum. He had to relocate across the country before he could receive proper treatment or further workup. He also complains of constipation and urinary frequency. His mother has a history of peptic ulcer disease and recurrent kidney stones. Vital signs are normal. On physical examination, the patient is alert and not under distress. Abdominal examination reveals epigastric tenderness with no rebounding. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. A fecal occult blood test is positive. Laboratory results are as follows:
Sodium 142 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Chloride 108 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 22 mEq/L
Calcium 11.2 mg/dL
Phosphorus 2.0 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 19 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Additional evaluation is most likely to reveal which of the following?
Q89
A 53-year-old patient presents to his primary care provider with a 1-week history of abdominal pain at night and between meals. He has attempted taking antacids, which help briefly, but then the pain returns. The patient has not noticed any changes to the color of his stool but states that he has been having some loose bowel movements. The patient reports that he has had duodenal ulcers in the past and is concerned that this is a recurrence. On exam, his temperature is 98.4°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg, pulse is 64/min, and respirations are 12/min. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended in clinic today. A fecal occult blood test is positive for blood in the stool. During outpatient workup, H. pylori stool antigen is negative, endoscopy demonstrates duodenal ulcers, and gastrin levels are elevated after a secretin stimulation test. Which of the following should also be examined in this patient?
Q90
A 33-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit after recently starting high dose corticosteroids for a newly diagnosed autoimmune condition. She was first evaluated a month ago due to fatigue, muscle weakness, and a scaly rash on both hands. On examination, muscle strength was rated 2 out of 5 in the upper extremities. Creatine kinase-MB was elevated, and anti-Jo-1 antibodies were observed. A muscle biopsy later showed perimysial inflammation and treatment was initiated. Today, the patient says that her symptoms have not improved despite treatment with corticosteroids. It is agreed upon to initiate methotrexate with the hopes of achieving better symptom control. Which of the following is most often associated with this patient’s condition?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a yearly checkup. He states he feels he has been in good health other than minor fatigue, which he attributes to aging. The patient has a past medical history of hypertension and is currently taking chlorthalidone. He drinks 1 glass of red wine every night. He has lost 5 pounds since his last appointment 4 months ago. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 147/98 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals an obese man in no acute distress. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 27%
Mean corpuscular volume: 72 µm^3
Leukocyte count: 6,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 193,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.0 mg/dL
AST: 32 U/L
ALT: 20 U/L
25-OH vitamin D: 15 ng/mL
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Counseling for alcohol cessation
B. Vitamin D supplementation
C. Colonoscopy (Correct Answer)
D. Exercise regimen and weight loss
E. Iron supplementation
Explanation: ***Colonoscopy***
- The patient presents with **microcytic anemia** (hemoglobin 9 g/dL, MCV 72 µm^3) and **unexplained weight loss** in an elderly male, which is highly suggestive of **gastrointestinal bleeding**, often due to **colorectal cancer**.
- A **colonoscopy** is the definitive diagnostic and therapeutic procedure for evaluating the lower gastrointestinal tract for sources of bleeding and identifying/removing suspicious lesions.
*Counseling for alcohol cessation*
- While chronic alcohol use can contribute to various health issues, including some anemias (e.g., folate deficiency), the patient's presented **microcytic anemia** is not typical for alcohol-related causes.
- The patient's reported alcohol intake of one glass of red wine nightly is generally considered moderate and less likely to be the primary cause of his symptoms and lab findings.
*Vitamin D supplementation*
- The patient has a **low 25-OH vitamin D level (15 ng/mL)**. However, this finding, while important for bone health and overall well-being, does not explain his microcytic anemia or unexplained weight loss.
- Addressing the **anemia and weight loss** takes precedence as these symptoms point to a more urgent, potentially life-threatening condition.
*Exercise regimen and weight loss*
- The patient is obese and has hypertension, for which an **exercise regimen and weight loss** would be beneficial for overall health and blood pressure management.
- However, these interventions **do not address the microcytic anemia and unexplained weight loss**, which are more pressing concerns requiring immediate investigation.
*Iron supplementation*
- The **microcytic anemia** strongly suggests **iron deficiency**, and iron supplementation would eventually be part of treatment.
- However, **iron supplementation** without identifying and treating the underlying cause of iron loss (e.g., gastrointestinal bleeding) would be insufficient and could delay a crucial diagnosis.
Question 82: A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of flank pain, myalgia, and reddish discoloration of her urine for the past 2 days. One week ago, she had a fever and a sore throat and was prescribed antibiotics. She is otherwise healthy and has no history of serious illness. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 128/75 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a soft abdomen and no costovertebral angle tenderness. Examination of the mouth and pharynx shows no abnormalities. There is a faint maculopapular rash over the trunk and extremities. Serum creatinine is 2.4 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows:
Protein 2+
Blood 2+
RBC 20–30/hpf
WBC 12/hpf
Bacteria none
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Thin basement membrane disease
B. Allergic interstitial nephritis (Correct Answer)
C. Crystal-induced acute kidney injury
D. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
E. Pyelonephritis
Explanation: ***Allergic interstitial nephritis***
- The development of **flank pain**, **myalgia**, **fever**, and a **maculopapular rash** following a recent antibiotic prescription, along with elevated creatinine and WBCs in urine, is highly suggestive of **allergic interstitial nephritis**.
- **Eosinophils** are often found in the urine, though not explicitly stated here, which further supports this diagnosis due to its association with drug hypersensitivity.
*Thin basement membrane disease*
- This condition typically presents with **isolated microscopic hematuria** and is often asymptomatic, not with acute onset of flank pain, rash, and significant renal dysfunction.
- Serum creatinine is usually normal, unlike the elevated level seen in this patient.
*Crystal-induced acute kidney injury*
- This type of AKI is characterized by the presence of **crystals in the urine** (e.g., uric acid, calcium oxalate), which are not mentioned in the urinalysis.
- While it can cause flank pain, it's typically seen in specific contexts like chemotherapy (tumor lysis syndrome) or **antifreeze ingestion**, which are not present here.
*Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis*
- Although it can follow a pharyngeal infection, it typically presents with **cola-colored urine** (due to dysmorphic RBCs and casts), **edema**, and **hypertension**.
- The presence of a **rash** and the timing after antibiotic use make allergic interstitial nephritis a more likely diagnosis.
*Pyelonephritis*
- Characterized by **fever**, **flank pain**, and **costovertebral angle tenderness**, which is explicitly noted as absent in this patient.
- Urinalysis typically shows **leukocyturia** and sometimes **bacteriuria** with **nitrites**, but without significant bacteriuria, it is less likely.
Question 83: A 41-year-old woman comes to the primary care physician’s office with a 7-day history of headaches, sore throat, diarrhea, fatigue, and low-grade fevers. The patient denies any significant past medical history, recent travel, or recent sick contacts. On review of systems, the patient endorses performing sex acts in exchange for money and recreational drugs over the last several months. You suspect primary HIV infection, but the patient refuses further evaluation. At a follow-up appointment 1 week later, she reports that she had been previously tested for HIV, and it was negative. Physical examination does not reveal any external abnormalities of her genitalia. Her heart and lung sounds are normal on auscultation. Her vital signs show a blood pressure of 123/82 mm Hg, heart rate of 82/min, and a respiratory rate of 16/min. Of the following options, which is the next best step in patient management?
A. Retest with HIV antigen/antibody test in 1 year
B. Perform VDRL
C. Repeat rapid HIV at this office check-up
D. Perform monospot test
E. Retest with 4th generation HIV antigen/antibody test in 2-4 weeks and again in 3 months (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Retest with 4th generation HIV antigen/antibody test in 2-4 weeks and again in 3 months***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **acute retroviral syndrome** (primary HIV infection), including headaches, sore throat, diarrhea, fatigue, and low-grade fevers in the context of high-risk behavior (sex work and recreational drug use).
- A previous negative HIV test was likely obtained during the **window period**, when the infection was too recent to be detected. The **4th generation antigen/antibody immunoassay** detects both HIV antibodies and p24 antigen, reducing the window period to approximately **2-4 weeks** post-exposure.
- **Follow-up testing at 3 months** is recommended to definitively rule out HIV, as rare cases may have delayed seroconversion.
- Current **CDC guidelines** recommend 4th generation testing as the initial screening test for HIV.
*Retest with HIV antigen/antibody test in 1 year*
- Waiting a full year to retest would result in significant delay in diagnosis and treatment, potentially allowing disease progression to AIDS and increasing transmission risk.
- The patient's acute symptoms warrant more immediate re-evaluation within weeks, not months.
*Perform VDRL*
- **VDRL** (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) tests for syphilis, not HIV.
- While co-infection with syphilis is possible in high-risk patients, it does not explain the constellation of symptoms typical of **acute retroviral syndrome**.
- Syphilis testing may be appropriate as part of comprehensive STI screening but is not the priority given the clinical presentation.
*Repeat rapid HIV at this office check-up*
- While **4th generation rapid tests** have improved sensitivity, repeating the test only **1 week** after the previous negative result and during the likely window period may still yield a false negative.
- The patient needs time for antibodies and/or antigen to develop to detectable levels (typically 2-4 weeks from exposure).
*Perform monospot test*
- A **monospot test** diagnoses **infectious mononucleosis** caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
- While EBV can cause fatigue, sore throat, and low-grade fevers, the patient's high-risk sexual behavior, diarrhea, and acute presentation are more consistent with **acute HIV infection** than mononucleosis.
- EBV mononucleosis typically presents with prominent lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly, which are not mentioned here.
Question 84: A 46-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of fever, fatigue, and coughing up blood. On questioning, he notes that he has also experienced some weight loss over the past 4 months and a change in the color of his urine, with intermittent passage of dark-colored urine during that time. The man does not have a prior history of cough or hemoptysis and has not been in contact with anyone with a chronic cough. The cough was originally productive of rust-colored sputum, but it has now progressed to the coughing up of blood and sputum at least twice daily. Sputum production is approximately 2 spoonfuls per coughing episode. Vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), respiratory rate 42/min, and pulse 88/min. Physical examination reveals an anxious but tired-looking man with mild respiratory distress and mild pallor. Laboratory and antibody tests are ordered and the findings include the following:
Laboratory test
Hematocrit 34%
Hepatitis antibody test negative
Hepatitis C antibody test negative
24-hour urinary protein 2 g
Urine microscopy more than 5 RBC under high power microscopy
Antibody test
C-ANCA negative
Anti MPO/P-ANCA positive
Serum urea 140 mg/dL
Serum creatinine 2.8 mg/dL
Renal biopsy shows glomerulonephritis with crescent formation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Microscopic polyangiitis (Correct Answer)
B. Disseminated tuberculosis
C. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
D. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)
E. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)
Explanation: ***Microscopic polyangiitis***
- This patient's presentation with **hemoptysis**, **glomerulonephritis** (dark urine, RBCs on microscopy, elevated creatinine), **weight loss**, and a positive **anti-MPO/P-ANCA** is highly characteristic of microscopic polyangiitis.
- The renal biopsy showing **crescentic glomerulonephritis** further supports this diagnosis, as it's a common finding in ANCA-associated vasculitides like MPA.
*Disseminated tuberculosis*
- While **fever, fatigue, weight loss, and hemoptysis** can be seen in tuberculosis, the presence of **rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis** and a **positive anti-MPO/P-ANCA** makes tuberculosis a less likely diagnosis.
- Tuberculosis would typically show granulomas on biopsy and direct evidence of *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*, which are not mentioned.
*Granulomatosis with polyangiitis*
- Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is associated with **C-ANCA** and anti-PR3 antibodies, whereas this patient has a **positive P-ANCA/anti-MPO**.
- GPA typically involves the **upper and lower respiratory tracts** and kidneys, but the specific antibody profile helps differentiate it from MPA.
*Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)*
- **Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)** is a necrotizing vasculitis that primarily affects **medium-sized arteries** and is **not ANCA-associated**.
- It typically spares the capillaries, venules, and arterioles, and does not cause **glomerulonephritis** or prominent pulmonary involvement like hemoptysis in this manner.
*Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)*
- **Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)**, formerly known as Churg-Strauss syndrome, is characterized by **asthma, eosinophilia, and extravascular granulomas**.
- While it can be P-ANCA positive and cause vasculitis, the prominent features of **asthma and eosinophilia** are absent in this patient's presentation.
Question 85: A 43-year-old HIV positive male presents with signs and symptoms concerning for a fungal infection. He is currently not on antiretrovirals and his CD4 count is 98. Which of the following candidal infections could be seen in this patient but would be very rare in an immunocompetent host?
A. Endocarditis
B. Intertrigo
C. Oral thrush
D. Esophagitis (Correct Answer)
E. Vaginitis
Explanation: ***Esophagitis***
- **Candidal esophagitis** is an **AIDS-defining illness** and is highly suggestive of severe immunosuppression, making it rare in immunocompetent individuals.
- The patient's **CD4 count of 98** indicates advanced HIV disease, placing him at high risk for opportunistic infections like candidal esophagitis.
*Endocarditis*
- While fungal endocarditis can occur in immunocompromised patients, it is more commonly associated with intravenous drug use, prosthetic valves, or central venous catheters, rather than solely with a low CD4 count.
- It is not considered an AIDS-defining illness in the same way as candidal esophagitis.
*Intertrigo*
- **Candidal intertrigo** is a common skin infection that can occur in both immunocompetent and immunocompromised individuals, usually in skin folds where moisture accumulates.
- Its presence does not strongly suggest severe immunosuppression, although it may be more persistent or widespread in HIV patients.
*Oral thrush*
- **Oral candidiasis** is common in HIV-positive patients, especially with lower CD4 counts, but it can also occur in immunocompetent individuals (e.g., due to antibiotic use, steroid inhalers, or diabetes).
- While indicative of some degree of immunosuppression in an HIV patient, it is not as specific for severe immunosuppression as candidal esophagitis.
*Vaginitis*
- **Candidal vaginitis** is a very common infection in women, regardless of immune status, and is not a strong indicator of severe immunosuppression or an AIDS-defining illness.
- Although it can be more frequent or resistant to treatment in HIV-positive women, its mere presence does not signify a condition rare in immunocompetent hosts.
Question 86: A 40-year-old woman comes to the physician for right lower abdominal pain for 6 months. She has multiple non-bloody, watery bowel movements daily and experiences abdominal cramping. Sometimes, she feels sudden palpitations, is short of breath, and her face becomes red. She has lost 7 kg over the past 3 months. She went on a 3-week hiking trip to Cambodia 6 months ago. She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 15 years. Her temperature is 37˚C (98.6°F), her pulse is 72/min and her blood pressure is 125/70 mm Hg. On physical examination, tiny blood vessels are noted on her face and arms. Lung auscultation shows bilateral wheezing. The abdomen is soft and nondistended. There is localized tenderness to the right lower quadrant, but no rebound tenderness or guarding. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count 4,600 /mm3
Segmented neutrophils 61 %
Eosinophils 2 %
Platelet count 254,000 /mm3
Hemoglobin 13.1 g/dL
Serum
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 110 IU/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 128 IU/L
C-reactive protein 8 mg/dL (N = 0–10)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Chronic appendicitis
C. Inflammatory bowel disease
D. Ascaris lumbricoides infection
E. Carcinoid tumor (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Carcinoid tumor***
- The patient's symptoms of **episodic flushing**, **diarrhea**, **abdominal cramping**, and **weight loss** are classic features of **carcinoid syndrome**, often caused by a carcinoid tumor. The presence of **wheezing** and **facial telangiectasias** further supports this diagnosis, as these are common manifestations of serotonin release.
- Elevated **AST** and **ALT** can indicate **hepatic metastases**, which is common in advanced carcinoid disease and contributes to the systemic release of vasoactive substances, worsening symptoms.
*Pheochromocytoma*
- Characterized by episodic **hypertension**, **palpitations**, **headaches**, and **sweating**, which are only partially consistent with the patient's symptoms (palpitations, shortness of breath, facial redness are possible but typically with severe hypertension).
- This condition is not associated with **diarrhea**, **wheezing**, or **telangiectasias**, which are prominent in this case.
*Chronic appendicitis*
- Presents with recurrent or persistent **right lower quadrant pain**.
- Does not account for the systemic symptoms such as **diarrhea**, **flushing**, **palpitations**, **wheezing**, **telangiectasias**, or **weight loss**.
*Inflammatory bowel disease*
- Can cause **chronic diarrhea**, **abdominal pain**, and **weight loss**, but typically involves significant **inflammatory markers** (e.g., elevated CRP, ESR) and often **bloody stools**, which are absent here.
- **Flushing**, **palpitations**, **wheezing**, and **telangiectasias** are not characteristic features of inflammatory bowel disease.
*Ascaris lumbricoides infection*
- While a travel history to endemic regions like Cambodia is relevant, **Ascaris infection** usually presents with abdominal pain, malnutrition, and sometimes **pulmonary symptoms** during larval migration (Loeffler's syndrome), but does not cause **episodic flushing**, **palpitations**, or diffuse **telangiectasias**.
- The symptoms are more indicative of a neuroendocrine syndrome rather than a parasitic infection.
Question 87: A 68-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with intense abdominal pain for the past 2 hours. She has had 1 episode of bloody diarrhea recently. She has an 18-year history of diabetes mellitus. She was diagnosed with hypertension and ischemic heart disease 6 years ago. She is fully alert and oriented. Her temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 14/min. Abdominal examination shows mild generalized abdominal tenderness without guarding or rebound tenderness. An abdominal plain X-ray shows no abnormalities. Abdominal CT reveals colonic wall thickening and pericolonic fat stranding in the splenic curvature. Bowel rest, intravenous hydration, and IV antibiotics are initiated. Which of the following is the most important diagnostic evaluation at this time?
A. Angiography
B. Gastrografin-enhanced X-ray
C. Laparotomy
D. Inpatient observation
E. Sigmoidoscopy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sigmoidoscopy***
- The patient's presentation with acute abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, history of cardiovascular disease, and CT findings consistent with **colonic wall thickening** and **pericolonic fat stranding** strongly suggests **ischemic colitis**.
- **Flexible sigmoidoscopy** allows for direct visualization of the colonic mucosa to confirm the diagnosis, assess the extent and severity of ischemia, and rule out other causes of colitis, such as inflammatory bowel disease or infection.
*Angiography*
- While angiography can identify mesenteric arterial occlusion, it is generally reserved for cases of acute mesenteric ischemia involving the superior mesenteric artery, which typically presents with more severe pain out of proportion to physical exam findings and less clear CT findings of colitis.
- In cases of ischemic colitis, where the primary concern is mucosal ischemia rather than immediate large vessel occlusion, angiography is usually not the first-line diagnostic.
*Gastrografin-enhanced X-ray*
- This study (also known as a **Gastrografin swallow or enema**) is primarily used to evaluate for **perforations** or **obstructions**, or to assess lumen integrity.
- It does not provide the mucosal detail necessary to diagnose or assess the severity of **ischemic colitis**, and the contrast agent itself could potentially exacerbate an inflamed bowel.
*Laparotomy*
- **Laparotomy** (surgical exploration) is an invasive procedure reserved for cases with signs of peritonitis, bowel perforation, or severe, unresponsive ischemia requiring surgical intervention.
- Given the patient's stable vital signs, mild tenderness, and lack of guarding or rebound, immediate surgical exploration is not warranted without further diagnostic steps.
*Inpatient observation*
- While inpatient observation is part of the initial management (bowel rest, IV fluids, antibiotics), it is not a **diagnostic evaluation** itself.
- The question asks for the most important diagnostic evaluation to determine the underlying cause and guide further management.
Question 88: A 27-year-old new patient presents to the physician’s office with complaints of burning, upper abdominal pain for the past 6 months. The pain does not radiate and is only partially relieved by eating small meals, over the counter antacids, and PPI. He previously underwent upper endoscopy that revealed small ulcers in the stomach and duodenum. He had to relocate across the country before he could receive proper treatment or further workup. He also complains of constipation and urinary frequency. His mother has a history of peptic ulcer disease and recurrent kidney stones. Vital signs are normal. On physical examination, the patient is alert and not under distress. Abdominal examination reveals epigastric tenderness with no rebounding. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. A fecal occult blood test is positive. Laboratory results are as follows:
Sodium 142 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Chloride 108 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 22 mEq/L
Calcium 11.2 mg/dL
Phosphorus 2.0 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 19 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Additional evaluation is most likely to reveal which of the following?
A. Pituitary adenoma (Correct Answer)
B. Marfanoid body habitus
C. Medullary thyroid cancer
D. Elevated gastrin levels
E. Pheochromocytoma
Explanation: ***Pituitary adenoma***
- This patient presents with a constellation of symptoms including **recurrent peptic ulcers**, **hypercalcemia (11.2 mg/dL)**, **hypophosphatemia (2.0 mg/dL)**, and a family history of peptic ulcer disease and recurrent kidney stones, which are highly suggestive of **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)**.
- MEN1 is characterized by tumors of the **parathyroid glands** (causing hypercalcemia, already evident), **pancreatic islet cells** (gastrinoma likely causing the peptic ulcers), and **pituitary gland**.
- The question asks what **additional evaluation** is most likely to reveal beyond the already-apparent biochemical findings; screening for a **pituitary adenoma** via pituitary imaging or hormone testing would be the next step in evaluating the full MEN1 syndrome, as **30-40% of MEN1 patients develop pituitary tumors**.
*Marfanoid body habitus*
- **Marfanoid habitus** is associated with **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2b (MEN2b)**, which primarily involves medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, and mucosal neuromas.
- The patient's symptoms point toward MEN1 with hypercalcemia and gastric acid hypersecretion, not the features of MEN2b.
*Medullary thyroid cancer*
- **Medullary thyroid cancer** is a characteristic feature of **MEN2a** and **MEN2b**, not MEN1.
- This cancer is associated with elevated calcitonin levels and is not related to the hypercalcemia from hyperparathyroidism or recurrent peptic ulcers seen in this patient.
*Elevated gastrin levels*
- **Elevated gastrin levels** would indeed be expected in this patient due to a pancreatic **gastrinoma** (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome), which explains the refractory peptic ulcers and is part of the MEN1 spectrum.
- However, gastrin elevation is **directly related to the presenting peptic ulcer disease** and would be part of the initial diagnostic workup for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, not truly an "additional" finding.
- The question is asking what **other manifestation of MEN1** would be found on comprehensive evaluation, making pituitary adenoma the more complete answer for syndrome characterization.
*Pheochromocytoma*
- **Pheochromocytoma** is a tumor of the adrenal medulla and is a feature of **MEN2a** and **MEN2b**, not MEN1.
- Symptoms typically include **hypertension, palpitations, and sweating**, which are not reported in this patient, and vital signs are documented as normal.
Question 89: A 53-year-old patient presents to his primary care provider with a 1-week history of abdominal pain at night and between meals. He has attempted taking antacids, which help briefly, but then the pain returns. The patient has not noticed any changes to the color of his stool but states that he has been having some loose bowel movements. The patient reports that he has had duodenal ulcers in the past and is concerned that this is a recurrence. On exam, his temperature is 98.4°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg, pulse is 64/min, and respirations are 12/min. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended in clinic today. A fecal occult blood test is positive for blood in the stool. During outpatient workup, H. pylori stool antigen is negative, endoscopy demonstrates duodenal ulcers, and gastrin levels are elevated after a secretin stimulation test. Which of the following should also be examined in this patient?
A. Parathyroid hormone (Correct Answer)
B. Plasma metanephrines
C. Vasoactive intestinal peptide
D. Calcitonin
E. Thyroid stimulating hormone
Explanation: ***Parathyroid hormone***
- Elevated gastrin levels after a secretin stimulation test and recurrent duodenal ulcers are characteristic of **Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES)**, which is often associated with **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)**.
- MEN1 involves tumors of the **parathyroid glands**, **pituitary gland**, and **pancreatic islet cells**. Therefore, parathyroid hormone levels should be checked to screen for **primary hyperparathyroidism**, a common component of MEN1.
*Plasma metanephrines*
- **Plasma metanephrines** are used to screen for **pheochromocytoma**, a tumor of the adrenal medulla which is associated with **MEN2**.
- This patient's presentation is consistent with ZES, which is linked to MEN1, not MEN2.
*Vasoactive intestinal peptide*
- **Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)** levels are elevated in **VIPomas**, which cause **watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria (WDHA syndrome)**.
- While VIPomas are pancreatic tumors, the patient's symptoms (abdominal pain, duodenal ulcers, elevated gastrin) point towards ZES, not a VIPoma.
*Calcitonin*
- **Calcitonin** is a marker for **medullary thyroid carcinoma**, which is a component of **MEN2**.
- Given the classic presentation of ZES, screening for MEN1 components is appropriate, not MEN2.
*Thyroid stimulating hormone*
- **Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)** is used to assess thyroid function. While thyroid disorders can present with various symptoms, they are not directly linked to ZES or MEN1 in the same way parathyroid disease is.
- There is no specific indication from the patient's symptoms (abdominal pain, ulcers, elevated gastrin) that warrants TSH evaluation as the next step in this context.
Question 90: A 33-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit after recently starting high dose corticosteroids for a newly diagnosed autoimmune condition. She was first evaluated a month ago due to fatigue, muscle weakness, and a scaly rash on both hands. On examination, muscle strength was rated 2 out of 5 in the upper extremities. Creatine kinase-MB was elevated, and anti-Jo-1 antibodies were observed. A muscle biopsy later showed perimysial inflammation and treatment was initiated. Today, the patient says that her symptoms have not improved despite treatment with corticosteroids. It is agreed upon to initiate methotrexate with the hopes of achieving better symptom control. Which of the following is most often associated with this patient’s condition?
A. Ovarian cancer
B. Arthritis
C. Lung cancer
D. Raynaud's phenomenon
E. Interstitial lung disease (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Interstitial lung disease***
- The patient's condition, characterized by **fatigue**, **muscle weakness**, **scaly rash** (likely **Gottron's papules** or **heliotrope rash**), **elevated CK-MB**, and **anti-Jo-1 antibodies**, strongly suggests **dermatomyositis**, which is frequently associated with **interstitial lung disease (ILD)**.
- Approximately 70% of patients with **anti-Jo-1 antibodies** develop **ILD**, which can manifest as chronic cough and dyspnea.
*Ovarian cancer*
- While dermatomyositis is associated with an **increased risk of malignancy**, particularly in older patients, **ovarian cancer** is not the *most common* or *most frequently associated* manifestation of the disease overall, especially given the patient's age (33).
- The risk of malignancy is higher in adults with dermatomyositis and polymyositis, with various cancers observed, but no single cancer type predominates as a universal association.
*Arthritis*
- **Arthritis** can occur in dermatomyositis and polymyositis, but it is typically **non-erosive** and **non-deforming**, affecting small and large joints.
- While a possible feature, it is less specific and less frequently highlighted as a major systemic complication compared to interstitial lung disease in the context of anti-Jo-1 antibodies.
*Lung cancer*
- Similar to ovarian cancer, **lung cancer** is a potential malignancy associated with dermatomyositis, especially in older patients and smokers.
- However, for a 33-year-old woman with anti-Jo-1 antibodies, **interstitial lung disease** is a more direct and prevalent associated complication than **lung cancer**.
*Raynaud's phenomenon*
- **Raynaud's phenomenon** (episodic digital ischemia) is observed in a subset of patients with dermatomyositis, often those with features of overlap syndromes.
- While present in some cases, it is not as highly prevalent or as clinically significant as **interstitial lung disease** in patients with anti-Jo-1 antibodies.