A 52-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider with colicky left flank pain that radiates to her groin. She appears to be in significant distress and is having trouble getting comfortable on the exam table. She and her mother both have a history of calcium oxalate kidney stones. She has a past medical history significant for type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She takes metformin, metoprolol and lisinopril. She has been watching her weight and eating a high protein diet that mainly consists of chicken and seafood. She also eats a great deal of yogurt for the calcium. She asks if she should cut out the yogurt, and wonders if it is the cause of her current kidney stone. What lifestyle modification would reduce her risk of developing kidney stones in the future?
Q42
A 45-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of irritability and frequent bowel movements. During this time, she has had a 6.8-kg (15-lb) weight loss. She has not had a change in appetite or diet. She takes no medications. Her temperature is 37.4°C (99.4°F), pulse is 112/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 126/74 mm Hg. Examination shows moist palms. The thyroid gland is diffusely enlarged; there are no palpable nodules. Serum studies show a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) concentration of 0.2 μU/mL, thyroxine (T4) concentration of 22 μg/dL, and antibodies against the TSH receptor. Which of the following treatment modalities is associated with the lowest rate of recurrence for this patient's condition?
Q43
Four days after undergoing a Whipple procedure for newly-diagnosed pancreatic cancer, a 65-year-old man has shortness of breath. His surgery was complicated by bleeding for which he required intraoperative transfusion with 4 units of packed red blood cells and 1 unit of platelets. His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 26/min, and blood pressure is 95/55 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 85%. Cardiac examination shows normal heart sounds and no jugular venous distention. Auscultation of the lungs shows diffuse crackles bilaterally. The extremities are warm and there is no edema. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 17,000/mm3 and hemoglobin concentration of 9.8 g/dL. Arterial blood gas on room air shows:
pH 7.35
PaO2 41 mm Hg
PaCO2 38 mm Hg
HCO3- 25 mEq/L
The patient is intubated and mechanical ventilation is initiated. An x-ray of the chest is shown. Transthoracic echocardiography shows a normally contracting left ventricle. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
Q44
A 44-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of progressive pain while swallowing. She has the feeling that food gets stuck in her throat and is harder to swallow than usual. She has a history of high-grade cervical dysplasia which was treated with conization 12 years ago. Four months ago, she was diagnosed with Graves' disease and started on antithyroid therapy. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She has had 8 lifetime sexual partners and uses condoms inconsistently. Her father died of stomach cancer. She has never smoked and drinks one glass of wine daily. She uses cocaine occasionally. Her current medications include methimazole and a vitamin supplement. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 75/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg. Examination of the oral cavity shows several white plaques that can be scraped off easily. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 11.9 g/dL
Leukocyte count 12,200/mm3
Platelet count 290,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 12 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time (activated) 38 seconds
Serum
pH 7.33
Na+ 135 mEq/L
Cl- 104 mEq/L
K+ 4.9 mEq/L
HCO3- 24 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen 13 mg/dL
Glucose 110 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
HIV test positive
In addition to starting antiretroviral therapy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q45
A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of fever for the past few hours as well as pain and swelling in his right knee and left ankle. He denies any recent history of trauma or injury. The patient is otherwise a healthy, active young man. He recently recovered from a case of gastroenteritis which caused significant abdominal pain and bloody stool 4 weeks ago. He believes the infection was related to eating undercooked chicken while camping. His blood pressure is 124/76 mm Hg, his heart rate is 76/min, and his temperature is 36.9 ℃ (98.4 ℉). Physical examination reveals tenderness to palpation of his right knee and left ankle as well as erythematous conjunctiva. Which of the following features would be least likely to develop in patients with this condition?
Q46
A 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician for evaluation of worsening tingling of her feet at night for the last 6 months. Two years ago, she underwent retinal laser photocoagulation in both eyes. She admits to not adhering to her insulin regimen. Her blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg while sitting and 118/70 mm Hg while standing. Examination shows decreased sense of vibration and proprioception in her toes and ankles bilaterally. Her serum hemoglobin A1C is 11%. Urine dipstick shows 2+ protein. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
Q47
A 64-year-old Caucasian male presents to the cardiologist complaining of chest pain. He describes the pain as spontaneous and radiating to his back, ears, and neck. He denies dyspnea on exertion. The patient is referred for an upper GI barium swallow, shown in image A. Which of the following would you most expect to find during further workup of this patient?
Q48
A 55-year-old man presents to the office with a complaint of generalized pain particularly in the back. This pain is also present in his knees, elbows, and shoulders bilaterally. He has stage 4 chronic kidney disease and is on weekly hemodialysis; he is waiting for a renal transplant. On physical examination, there is peripheral pitting edema and scratch marks over the forearms and trunk. The vital signs include: blood pressure 146/88 mm Hg, pulse 84/min, temperature 36.6°C (97.9°F), and respiratory rate 9/min.
Complete blood count results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 11 g/dL
RBC 4.5 million cells/µL
Hematocrit 40%
Total leukocyte count 6,500 cells/µL
Neutrophil 71%
Lymphocyte 34%
Monocyte 4%
Eosinophil 1%
Basophil 0%
Platelet 240,000 cells/µL
Renal function test shows:
Sodium 136 mEq/L
Potassium 5.9 mEq/L
Chloride 101 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 21 mEq/L
Albumin 2.8 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 31 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.9 mg/dL
Uric Acid 6.8 mg/dL
Glucose 111 mg/dL
Which of the following sets of findings would be expected in this patient in his current visit?
Q49
A 56-year-old woman presents to her physician for a routine health maintenance examination. Recently, she has felt weak, and she has dyspnea when she performs her daily exercise routine. She has no significant past medical history. She has not had any menstrual bleeding for more than 6 years. She has smoked half a pack of cigarettes for more than 20 years, and she occasionally drinks a beer or a glass of wine. She takes ibuprofen for occasional headaches, which she has had for many years. Her blood pressure is 115/60 mm Hg, pulse is 68/min, respirations are 14/min, and temperature is 36.8℃ (98.2℉). The physical examination shows no abnormalities except for conjunctival pallor. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 7.5 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 75 μm³
Leukocyte count 5500/mm³ (with a normal differential)
Platelet 520,000/mm³
Reticulocyte count 9%
Serum iron 30 μg/dL (50–170 μg/dL)
Ferritin 4 μg/L (12–150 μg/L)
Total iron-binding capacity 450 μg/dL
The peripheral blood smear shows microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells with occasional polychromatophilic cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?
Q50
A 40-year-old man comes to the physician because of lower back pain that has become progressively worse over the past 2 months. The pain is also present at night and does not improve if he changes his position. He has stiffness for at least 1 hour each morning that improves throughout the day. Over the past 3 months, he has had 3 episodes of acute gout and was started on allopurinol. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows reduced lumbar flexion and tenderness over the sacroiliac joints. Passive flexion of the hip with the knee extended does not elicit pain on either side. Muscle strength and sensation to pinprick and light touch are normal. A pelvic x-ray confirms the diagnosis. The patient is started on indomethacin and an exercise program. Six weeks later, the patient reports no improvement in symptoms. Before initiating further pharmacotherapy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: A 52-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider with colicky left flank pain that radiates to her groin. She appears to be in significant distress and is having trouble getting comfortable on the exam table. She and her mother both have a history of calcium oxalate kidney stones. She has a past medical history significant for type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She takes metformin, metoprolol and lisinopril. She has been watching her weight and eating a high protein diet that mainly consists of chicken and seafood. She also eats a great deal of yogurt for the calcium. She asks if she should cut out the yogurt, and wonders if it is the cause of her current kidney stone. What lifestyle modification would reduce her risk of developing kidney stones in the future?
A. Increase electrolytes
B. Decrease yogurt intake
C. Increase fluid intake (Correct Answer)
D. Decrease protein intake
E. Reduce sodium intake
Explanation: ***Increase fluid intake***
- **Increased fluid intake** (goal >2.5 L/day) is the **single most important intervention** for preventing all types of kidney stones, including calcium oxalate stones.
- Adequate hydration **dilutes urinary solutes** (calcium, oxalate, uric acid), reducing supersaturation and crystallization.
- This is the **primary recommendation** by the American Urological Association and forms the foundation of stone prevention strategies.
- While this patient has dietary risk factors, **hydration is universally the first-line intervention** regardless of stone composition or dietary habits.
*Decrease protein intake*
- High animal protein intake does increase urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion while decreasing citrate, which promotes stone formation.
- While reducing protein is beneficial, it is a **secondary dietary modification** after ensuring adequate hydration.
- This would be appropriate counseling **in addition to** increasing fluids, not instead of it.
*Reduce sodium intake*
- High sodium intake increases urinary calcium excretion, contributing to stone risk.
- Sodium restriction is a valuable **adjunctive measure** but is not the primary intervention.
- Like protein reduction, this is best implemented alongside adequate hydration.
*Decrease yogurt intake*
- This is **incorrect advice** - adequate dietary calcium (800-1200 mg/day) is actually **protective** against calcium oxalate stones.
- Dietary calcium binds oxalate in the gut, **preventing oxalate absorption** and reducing urinary oxalate.
- **Restricting calcium** paradoxically increases stone risk by increasing oxalate absorption.
*Increase electrolytes*
- This is too **vague and nonspecific** to be actionable medical advice.
- While certain electrolytes like potassium citrate may be prescribed as medical therapy, "increasing electrolytes" without specification is not a standard prevention strategy.
Question 42: A 45-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of irritability and frequent bowel movements. During this time, she has had a 6.8-kg (15-lb) weight loss. She has not had a change in appetite or diet. She takes no medications. Her temperature is 37.4°C (99.4°F), pulse is 112/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 126/74 mm Hg. Examination shows moist palms. The thyroid gland is diffusely enlarged; there are no palpable nodules. Serum studies show a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) concentration of 0.2 μU/mL, thyroxine (T4) concentration of 22 μg/dL, and antibodies against the TSH receptor. Which of the following treatment modalities is associated with the lowest rate of recurrence for this patient's condition?
A. Subtotal thyroidectomy
B. Propranolol
C. Potassium iodide
D. Methimazole
E. Radioactive iodine ablation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Radioactive iodine ablation***
- **Radioactive iodine ablation** is the most definitive treatment for **Graves' disease**, leading to destruction of the overactive thyroid tissue and consequently the lowest recurrence rate.
- While it may result in **hypothyroidism**, this is generally manageable with lifelong **thyroid hormone replacement**.
*Subtotal thyroidectomy*
- **Subtotal thyroidectomy** involves surgical removal of part of the thyroid, which can also be effective but carries risks such as **anesthesia complications**, **hypoparathyroidism**, and **recurrent laryngeal nerve damage**.
- Recurrence rates with surgery can be higher than with radioactive iodine, as some thyroid tissue remains.
*Propranolol*
- **Propranolol** is a **beta-blocker** used to manage the **symptomatic effects** of hyperthyroidism, such as palpitations, tremor, and anxiety.
- It does not address the underlying overproduction of thyroid hormones and therefore has no impact on disease recurrence.
*Potassium iodide*
- **Potassium iodide** is typically used in the **short term** to block thyroid hormone release, particularly in preparation for thyroidectomy or during a **thyroid storm**.
- It is not a long-term treatment for **Graves' disease** and does not prevent recurrence.
*Methimazole*
- **Methimazole** is an **antithyroid medication** that reduces thyroid hormone synthesis by inhibiting **thyroid peroxidase**.
- While effective for controlling hyperthyroidism, relapse rates after discontinuing antithyroid medications are significant (up to 50-60%), making it less effective in preventing recurrence compared to definitive treatments.
Question 43: Four days after undergoing a Whipple procedure for newly-diagnosed pancreatic cancer, a 65-year-old man has shortness of breath. His surgery was complicated by bleeding for which he required intraoperative transfusion with 4 units of packed red blood cells and 1 unit of platelets. His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 26/min, and blood pressure is 95/55 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 85%. Cardiac examination shows normal heart sounds and no jugular venous distention. Auscultation of the lungs shows diffuse crackles bilaterally. The extremities are warm and there is no edema. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 17,000/mm3 and hemoglobin concentration of 9.8 g/dL. Arterial blood gas on room air shows:
pH 7.35
PaO2 41 mm Hg
PaCO2 38 mm Hg
HCO3- 25 mEq/L
The patient is intubated and mechanical ventilation is initiated. An x-ray of the chest is shown. Transthoracic echocardiography shows a normally contracting left ventricle. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
A. Increased left atrial pressures
B. Formation of anti-leukocyte antibodies
C. Diffuse inflammatory alveolar damage (Correct Answer)
D. Acute occlusion of a pulmonary artery
E. Decreased chest wall compliance
Explanation: ***Diffuse inflammatory alveolar damage***
- This patient presents with **acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)** characterized by **acute hypoxemic respiratory failure**, **bilateral pulmonary infiltrates**, and **absence of cardiogenic causes** (normal echocardiogram, no JVD).
- The **histopathologic hallmark of ARDS** is **diffuse alveolar damage** with inflammation, hyaline membrane formation, and increased alveolar-capillary permeability leading to non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
- Risk factors include **major surgery**, **sepsis** (fever, leukocytosis), **massive transfusion**, and **shock**, all present in this patient.
- The severe hypoxemia (PaO2 41 mmHg, A-a gradient >350) and bilateral crackles support diffuse inflammatory lung injury.
*Formation of anti-leukocyte antibodies*
- This describes the mechanism of **transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)**, which should be considered given recent transfusion of multiple blood products.
- **TRALI typically occurs within 6 hours** of transfusion, whereas this patient developed symptoms **4 days post-operatively**, making this timing less consistent.
- While TRALI is a form of ARDS, it ultimately causes lung injury through the same pathway: **diffuse inflammatory alveolar damage** (the correct answer).
- The question asks for the pathophysiologic "cause," making diffuse alveolar damage the more fundamental answer than the upstream trigger.
*Increased left atrial pressures*
- This would indicate **cardiogenic pulmonary edema** from left heart failure or mitral valve disease.
- **Excluded by normal left ventricular function** on echocardiography and **absence of JVD** or peripheral edema.
- Cardiogenic edema typically shows different radiographic patterns than ARDS.
*Acute occlusion of a pulmonary artery*
- **Pulmonary embolism** can cause hypoxemia but typically presents with **sudden dyspnea**, **pleuritic chest pain**, and **clear lung fields** on auscultation.
- The **bilateral crackles** and diffuse infiltrates are not typical of PE.
- Recent surgery increases PE risk, but the clinical picture is more consistent with ARDS.
*Decreased chest wall compliance*
- This refers to **restrictive lung disease** from chest wall abnormalities, obesity, or pleural disease.
- Does not explain the **acute onset**, **fever**, **bilateral crackles**, or **severe hypoxemia** with normal A-a gradient that would be expected.
- The primary problem here is **alveolar filling and inflammation**, not chest wall mechanics.
Question 44: A 44-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of progressive pain while swallowing. She has the feeling that food gets stuck in her throat and is harder to swallow than usual. She has a history of high-grade cervical dysplasia which was treated with conization 12 years ago. Four months ago, she was diagnosed with Graves' disease and started on antithyroid therapy. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She has had 8 lifetime sexual partners and uses condoms inconsistently. Her father died of stomach cancer. She has never smoked and drinks one glass of wine daily. She uses cocaine occasionally. Her current medications include methimazole and a vitamin supplement. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 75/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg. Examination of the oral cavity shows several white plaques that can be scraped off easily. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 11.9 g/dL
Leukocyte count 12,200/mm3
Platelet count 290,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 12 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time (activated) 38 seconds
Serum
pH 7.33
Na+ 135 mEq/L
Cl- 104 mEq/L
K+ 4.9 mEq/L
HCO3- 24 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen 13 mg/dL
Glucose 110 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
HIV test positive
In addition to starting antiretroviral therapy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Therapy with IV ganciclovir
B. Therapy with nystatin mouthwash
C. Therapy with oral azithromycin
D. Therapy with oral fluconazole (Correct Answer)
E. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
Explanation: ***Therapy with oral fluconazole***
- The patient's symptoms of **dysphagia**, **odynophagia**, and the presence of **scrapable white plaques** in the oral cavity, which are consistent with **oral candidiasis (thrush)**. Given her positive HIV status, this infection suggests a compromised immune system.
- **Fluconazole** is the first-line systemic antifungal treatment for esophageal candidiasis, and its effectiveness as an initial therapy is generally preferred over invasive diagnostics if empiric treatment is successful.
*Therapy with IV ganciclovir*
- **Ganciclovir** is typically used to treat **cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections**, not Candida. While CMV esophagitis can occur in immunocompromised patients, the oral white plaques are more indicative of candidiasis.
- CMV esophagitis would usually present with larger ulcers on endoscopy rather than the diffuse white plaques seen with Candida.
*Therapy with nystatin mouthwash*
- **Nystatin mouthwash** is a topical antifungal effective for **mild oral candidiasis (thrush)** that is confined to the oral cavity.
- The patient's complaint of food getting "stuck in her throat" suggests **esophageal involvement**, which requires systemic antifungal treatment.
*Therapy with oral azithromycin*
- **Azithromycin** is a **macrolide antibiotic** used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like candidiasis.
- Prescribing an antibiotic for a suspected fungal infection would be ineffective and inappropriate.
*Esophagogastroduodenoscopy*
- While an **esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)** could confirm esophageal candidiasis, it is generally reserved for cases where empiric antifungal therapy fails, or if there is uncertainty about the diagnosis.
- Given the classic presentation of oral thrush with associated dysphagia in an HIV-positive patient, **empiric treatment with fluconazole** is the most appropriate initial step.
Question 45: A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of fever for the past few hours as well as pain and swelling in his right knee and left ankle. He denies any recent history of trauma or injury. The patient is otherwise a healthy, active young man. He recently recovered from a case of gastroenteritis which caused significant abdominal pain and bloody stool 4 weeks ago. He believes the infection was related to eating undercooked chicken while camping. His blood pressure is 124/76 mm Hg, his heart rate is 76/min, and his temperature is 36.9 ℃ (98.4 ℉). Physical examination reveals tenderness to palpation of his right knee and left ankle as well as erythematous conjunctiva. Which of the following features would be least likely to develop in patients with this condition?
A. Circinate balanitis
B. Genital ulcers
C. DIP joint swelling (Correct Answer)
D. Urethritis
E. Skin rash
Explanation: ***DIP joint swelling***
- **Reactive arthritis** typically involves the **large joints** of the lower extremities in an asymmetric pattern, such as the knees and ankles, but spares the **distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints**.
- The patient's history of recent gastroenteritis, subsequent arthritis, and conjunctivitis are classic features of reactive arthritis (formerly Reiter's syndrome), which is a form of **seronegative spondyloarthropathy**.
*Circinate balanitis*
- **Circinate balanitis** is a painless, shallow ulceration of the glans penis that is a characteristic **mucocutaneous manifestation** of reactive arthritis.
- This condition occurs in a significant number of male patients with **HLA-B27 positive** reactive arthritis.
*Genital ulcers*
- **Genital ulcers** are possible cutaneous manifestations of reactive arthritis.
- These can present along with other skin findings such as **keratoderma blennorrhagicum** (pustular psoriasis-like lesions) and circinate balanitis.
*Urethritis*
- **Urethritis** is a common component of the classic triad of symptoms in reactive arthritis ("can't pee, can't see, can't climb a tree").
- It manifests as **dysuria, urinary frequency**, or penile discharge, often following a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection.
*Skin rash*
- A skin rash, particularly **keratoderma blennorrhagicum**, which resembles pustular psoriasis, is a known *cutaneous manifestation* of reactive arthritis.
- Lesions typically appear on the **palms and soles**, but can also affect the trunk and scalp.
Question 46: A 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician for evaluation of worsening tingling of her feet at night for the last 6 months. Two years ago, she underwent retinal laser photocoagulation in both eyes. She admits to not adhering to her insulin regimen. Her blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg while sitting and 118/70 mm Hg while standing. Examination shows decreased sense of vibration and proprioception in her toes and ankles bilaterally. Her serum hemoglobin A1C is 11%. Urine dipstick shows 2+ protein. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
A. Resting bradycardia
B. Increased lower esophageal sphincter pressure
C. Incomplete bladder emptying (Correct Answer)
D. Dilated pupils
E. Hyperreflexia
Explanation: ***Incomplete bladder emptying***
- The patient's long-standing, poorly controlled type 2 diabetes (HbA1C 11%, non-adherence to insulin) predisposes her to **diabetic autonomic neuropathy**, which can manifest as **neurogenic bladder dysfunction**.
- Symptoms like **tingling in the feet**, **retinopathy**, and **orthostatic hypotension** (blood pressure change from sitting to standing) are all signs of widespread diabetic complications, including autonomic involvement affecting bladder control.
*Resting bradycardia*
- **Diabetic autonomic neuropathy** often causes **cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy**, which typically manifests as **tachycardia at rest** and a fixed heart rate.
- Resting bradycardia is less common and would suggest other causes separate from typical diabetic autonomic neuropathy.
*Increased lower esophageal sphincter pressure*
- Diabetic autonomic neuropathy often leads to **gastroparesis** and **esophageal dysmotility**, characterized by **reduced esophageal motility** and **decreased lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure**, not increased pressure.
- Decreased LES pressure can contribute to symptoms like **dysphagia** and **GERD** in diabetic patients.
*Dilated pupils*
- **Diabetic autonomic neuropathy** can affect the pupillary reflexes, leading to **poor pupillary constriction** and a **fixed pupil** that is actually smaller in diameter and reacts sluggishly to light, rather than a dilated pupil.
- Dilated pupils are typically seen in other conditions and are not characteristic of diabetic neuropathy.
*Hyperreflexia*
- **Diabetic peripheral neuropathy** typically involves damage to sensory and motor nerves, leading to **diminished or absent deep tendon reflexes (hyporeflexia)**, especially in the ankle.
- Hyperreflexia is more characteristic of **upper motor neuron lesions**, not the peripheral nerve damage seen in diabetic neuropathy.
Question 47: A 64-year-old Caucasian male presents to the cardiologist complaining of chest pain. He describes the pain as spontaneous and radiating to his back, ears, and neck. He denies dyspnea on exertion. The patient is referred for an upper GI barium swallow, shown in image A. Which of the following would you most expect to find during further workup of this patient?
A. Abnormal electrocardiogram
B. Abnormal pulmonary function tests
C. Abnormal esophageal manometry (Correct Answer)
D. Abnormal esophageal biopsy
E. Abnormal coronary angiogram
Explanation: ***Abnormal esophageal manometry***
- The barium swallow image shows a **"corkscrew" or "rosary bead" esophagus**, which is characteristic of **diffuse esophageal spasm**.
- **Esophageal manometry** is the gold standard for diagnosing motility disorders like diffuse esophageal spasm, revealing uncoordinated, high-amplitude, and premature contractions.
*Abnormal electrocardiogram*
- While chest pain can be cardiac, the description of pain **radiating to the back, ears, and neck**, combined with the barium swallow findings, points away from primary cardiac ischemia.
- The absence of **dyspnea on exertion** further reduces the likelihood of acute cardiac pathology being the primary cause.
*Abnormal pulmonary function tests*
- The patient's symptoms are related to chest pain and strongly suggest an esophageal issue, not a pulmonary one.
- There is no mention of **shortness of breath** or other respiratory symptoms that would point towards a pulmonary problem.
*Abnormal esophageal biopsy*
- An esophageal biopsy is used to diagnose conditions involving **mucosal abnormalities** (e.g., esophagitis, Barrett's esophagus, esophageal cancer).
- Diffuse esophageal spasm is a **motility disorder**, affecting smooth muscle function, and typically does not involve mucosal changes identifiable by biopsy.
*Abnormal coronary angiogram*
- Although chest pain can be cardiac in origin, the **spontaneous nature of the pain** (not exertional) and the **radiating pattern** are less typical for angina.
- The **barium swallow findings** provide strong evidence for an esophageal etiology, making a primary coronary issue less likely to be the direct cause of these specific symptoms.
Question 48: A 55-year-old man presents to the office with a complaint of generalized pain particularly in the back. This pain is also present in his knees, elbows, and shoulders bilaterally. He has stage 4 chronic kidney disease and is on weekly hemodialysis; he is waiting for a renal transplant. On physical examination, there is peripheral pitting edema and scratch marks over the forearms and trunk. The vital signs include: blood pressure 146/88 mm Hg, pulse 84/min, temperature 36.6°C (97.9°F), and respiratory rate 9/min.
Complete blood count results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 11 g/dL
RBC 4.5 million cells/µL
Hematocrit 40%
Total leukocyte count 6,500 cells/µL
Neutrophil 71%
Lymphocyte 34%
Monocyte 4%
Eosinophil 1%
Basophil 0%
Platelet 240,000 cells/µL
Renal function test shows:
Sodium 136 mEq/L
Potassium 5.9 mEq/L
Chloride 101 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 21 mEq/L
Albumin 2.8 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 31 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.9 mg/dL
Uric Acid 6.8 mg/dL
Glucose 111 mg/dL
Which of the following sets of findings would be expected in this patient in his current visit?
A. PTH no change, Ca no change, phosphate no change, calcitriol no change
B. PTH ↑, Ca ↑, phosphate ↓, calcitriol ↓
C. PTH ↑, Ca ↓, phosphate ↑, calcitriol ↓ (Correct Answer)
D. PTH ↓, Ca ↑, phosphate ↑, calcitriol ↑
E. PTH ↓, Ca ↓, phosphate ↑, calcitriol ↓
Explanation: **PTH ↑, Ca ↓, phosphate ↑, calcitriol ↓**
- The patient's **stage 4 chronic kidney disease (CKD)** leads to impaired phosphate excretion and decreased 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity in the kidneys. This results in **hyperphosphatemia** and reduced production of **calcitriol** (active vitamin D).
- Low calcitriol levels and elevated phosphate directly contribute to **hypocalcemia**. The persistent hypocalcemia then stimulates the parathyroid glands to increase **parathyroid hormone (PTH)** secretion in an attempt to normalize serum calcium, leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism.
*PTH no change, Ca no change, phosphate no change, calcitriol no change*
- This option suggests no changes in these parameters, which is inconsistent with the significant metabolic derangements expected in **stage 4 CKD**.
- **CKD** inherently impacts mineral and bone metabolism, making it highly improbable for these values to remain normal in an affected individual.
*PTH ↑, Ca ↑, phosphate ↓, calcitriol ↓*
- While **calcitriol** would be decreased and **PTH** increased in CKD, the combination of **hypercalcemia (Ca ↑)** and **hypophosphatemia (phosphate ↓)** is inconsistent with the pathophysiology of CKD.
- In CKD, impaired phosphate excretion typically leads to elevated phosphate, and low calcitriol contributes to hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia.
*PTH ↓, Ca ↑, phosphate ↑, calcitriol ↑*
- This option presents a pattern more indicative of **primary hyperparathyroidism** (high PTH, high calcium) or conditions with vitamin D toxicity (high calcitriol), neither of which aligns with stage 4 CKD.
- In CKD, the body struggles to produce calcitriol, and while phosphate is usually elevated, PTH is typically increased, not decreased.
*PTH ↓, Ca ↓, phosphate ↑, calcitriol ↓*
- Although **hypocalcemia (Ca ↓)**, **hyperphosphatemia (phosphate ↑)**, and **low calcitriol (calcitriol ↓)** are consistent with CKD, **decreased PTH (PTH ↓)** contradicts the characteristic secondary hyperparathyroidism seen in CKD.
- The low calcium and high phosphate in CKD would stimulate, not suppress, PTH secretion.
Question 49: A 56-year-old woman presents to her physician for a routine health maintenance examination. Recently, she has felt weak, and she has dyspnea when she performs her daily exercise routine. She has no significant past medical history. She has not had any menstrual bleeding for more than 6 years. She has smoked half a pack of cigarettes for more than 20 years, and she occasionally drinks a beer or a glass of wine. She takes ibuprofen for occasional headaches, which she has had for many years. Her blood pressure is 115/60 mm Hg, pulse is 68/min, respirations are 14/min, and temperature is 36.8℃ (98.2℉). The physical examination shows no abnormalities except for conjunctival pallor. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 7.5 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 75 μm³
Leukocyte count 5500/mm³ (with a normal differential)
Platelet 520,000/mm³
Reticulocyte count 9%
Serum iron 30 μg/dL (50–170 μg/dL)
Ferritin 4 μg/L (12–150 μg/L)
Total iron-binding capacity 450 μg/dL
The peripheral blood smear shows microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells with occasional polychromatophilic cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?
A. Gastrointestinal endoscopy (Correct Answer)
B. JAK2 mutation
C. Bone marrow aspiration
D. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
E. No further testing is indicated
Explanation: ***Gastrointestinal endoscopy***
- This patient has **iron deficiency anemia** (low ferritin 4 μg/L, low serum iron 30 μg/dL, high TIBC 450 μg/dL, microcytic hypochromic RBCs with MCV 75 μm³) requiring investigation of the underlying cause
- In a **postmenopausal woman**, iron deficiency anemia is **GI blood loss until proven otherwise** since menstrual blood loss is no longer a factor
- **Chronic NSAID use (ibuprofen)** significantly increases risk of **peptic ulcer disease, gastritis, and erosive gastropathy**, making upper endoscopy essential
- **Bidirectional endoscopy** (both upper endoscopy and colonoscopy) is recommended to evaluate for both upper GI lesions and **colorectal malignancy**, which is a critical consideration in this age group
- The elevated reticulocyte count (9%) indicates appropriate bone marrow response to anemia, supporting a blood loss etiology
*JAK2 mutation*
- JAK2 mutations are associated with **myeloproliferative neoplasms** (polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia, primary myelofibrosis)
- These conditions typically present with **elevated** cell counts (erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis), not anemia
- The patient's **iron deficiency profile** with low ferritin and high TIBC is inconsistent with myeloproliferative disorders
- Thrombocytosis (520,000/mm³) here is **reactive** due to iron deficiency, not a primary disorder
*Bone marrow aspiration*
- Bone marrow examination is **not first-line** for evaluating iron deficiency anemia when clinical and laboratory findings clearly indicate iron deficiency
- This invasive procedure would be considered if the diagnosis is unclear, if there are cytopenias suggesting bone marrow failure, or if iron deficiency anemia persists despite appropriate treatment and no GI source is found
- The patient's laboratory findings already confirm iron deficiency; identifying the **source of blood loss** takes priority
*Hemoglobin electrophoresis*
- Hemoglobin electrophoresis diagnoses **hemoglobinopathies** such as thalassemia trait or sickle cell disease
- While thalassemia trait can cause microcytic anemia, it does **not** cause iron deficiency (normal or elevated ferritin)
- This patient's **classic iron studies** (low ferritin, low iron, high TIBC) definitively indicate **iron deficiency anemia**, not hemoglobinopathy
- Thalassemia trait would show microcytosis disproportionate to the degree of anemia and would not respond to iron supplementation
*No further testing is indicated*
- This patient has **severe anemia** (Hb 7.5 g/dL) with significant symptoms (weakness, dyspnea on exertion) requiring investigation
- In a postmenopausal woman, iron deficiency anemia is a **red flag for GI malignancy**, particularly colorectal cancer
- Failure to investigate could lead to **missed diagnosis** of a treatable but potentially life-threatening condition
- The combination of chronic NSAID use and unexplained iron deficiency mandates endoscopic evaluation
Question 50: A 40-year-old man comes to the physician because of lower back pain that has become progressively worse over the past 2 months. The pain is also present at night and does not improve if he changes his position. He has stiffness for at least 1 hour each morning that improves throughout the day. Over the past 3 months, he has had 3 episodes of acute gout and was started on allopurinol. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows reduced lumbar flexion and tenderness over the sacroiliac joints. Passive flexion of the hip with the knee extended does not elicit pain on either side. Muscle strength and sensation to pinprick and light touch are normal. A pelvic x-ray confirms the diagnosis. The patient is started on indomethacin and an exercise program. Six weeks later, the patient reports no improvement in symptoms. Before initiating further pharmacotherapy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A. Discontinue allopurinol
B. Creatinine measurement
C. Liver function test
D. Pulmonary function test
E. PPD skin test (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***PPD skin test***
- The patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of **ankylosing spondylitis** (back pain, morning stiffness, reduced lumbar flexion, sacroiliac tenderness, improvement with activity implied by morning stiffness improving throughout the day), for which **biologic therapy (e.g., TNF-α inhibitors)** is often used if NSAIDs fail.
- Before initiating biologics, screening for **latent tuberculosis with a PPD skin test** or interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) is crucial, as these medications can reactivate TB.
*Discontinue allopurinol*
- The patient has a history of **recurrent gout attacks**, and allopurinol is indicated for chronic gout management to **reduce uric acid levels**.
- There is no clinical information suggesting an adverse reaction to allopurinol or that discontinuing it would address his axial spondyloarthritis.
*Creatinine measurement*
- While important for monitoring **renal function**, especially with NSAID use, there is no specific indication in the prompt (e.g., new medication or worsening renal symptoms) for it to be the *most appropriate next immediate step* before considering advanced spondyloarthritis treatment.
- **Indomethacin** is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) which can affect kidney function, but routine monitoring without specific concern is not the highest priority given the treatment pathway.
*Liver function test*
- Liver function tests are important for monitoring potential adverse effects of certain medications, including some biologics and disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), but not specifically for the initial management plan presented or before starting biologics in this sequence.
- There is no information suggesting **liver dysfunction** or a need for immediate liver function assessment as the most appropriate next step in decision-making.
*Pulmonary function test*
- **Pulmonary involvement** (e.g., restrictive lung disease due to chest wall involvement, apical fibrosis) can occur in long-standing ankylosing spondylitis, but it is not a primary screening tool *before initiating biologic therapy*.
- Assessing pulmonary function would be more relevant if the patient had **respiratory symptoms** or significant chest wall restriction noted on physical exam.