A 47-year-old man presents with upper GI (upper gastrointestinal) bleeding. The patient is known to have a past medical history of peptic ulcer disease and was previously admitted 4 years ago for the same reason. He uses proton-pump inhibitors for his peptic ulcer. Upon admission, the patient is placed on close monitoring, and after 8 hours, his hematocrit is unchanged. The patient has also been hemodynamically stable after initial fluid resuscitation. An upper endoscopy is performed. Which of the following endoscopy findings most likely indicates that this patient will not experience additional GI bleeding in the next few days?
Q402
A 76-year-old Japanese man is admitted to the hospital because of a 3-month history of loose stools and worsening peripheral edema. He also reports fatigue, a 10-pound weight loss over the past 6 weeks, and a tingling sensation in his hands and feet over the same time period. Aside from the family dog, he has not had contact with animals for over 1 year and has not traveled outside the country. He has hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Five years ago, he underwent a partial gastrectomy with jejunal anastomosis for gastric cancer. Current medications include hydrochlorothiazide and tamsulosin. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 103/min, and blood pressure is 132/83 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen. There is a well-healed scar on the upper abdomen. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The conjunctivae appear pale. Sensation to vibration and position is absent over the lower extremities. His hemoglobin concentration is 9.9 g/dL, MCV is 108 μm3, total protein 3.9 g/dL, and albumin 1.9 g/dL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Q403
A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with nausea and vomiting. She denies any recent illnesses, sick contacts, or consumption of foods outside of her usual diet. She reports smoking marijuana at least three times a day. Her temperature is 97.7°F (36.5°C), blood pressure is 90/74 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 10/min, and SpO2 is 94% on room air. Her conjunctiva are injected. Her basic metabolic panel is obtained below.
Serum:
Na+: 132 mEq/L
Cl-: 89 mEq/L
K+: 2.9 mEq/L
HCO3-: 30 mEq/L
BUN: 35 mg/dL
Glucose: 80 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Magnesium: 2.0 mEq/L
She continues to have multiple bouts of emesis and dry retching. What is the next best step in management?
Q404
A 61-year-old woman presents for a routine health visit. She complains of generalized fatigue and lethargy on most days of the week for the past 4 months. She has no significant past medical history and is not taking any medications. She denies any history of smoking or recreational drug use but states that she drinks "socially" approx. 6 nights a week. She says she also enjoys a "nightcap," which is 1–2 glasses of wine before bed every night. The patient is afebrile, and her vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is significant pallor of the mucous membranes. Laboratory findings are significant for a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 72 fL, leukocyte count of 4,800/mL, hemoglobin of 11.0 g/dL, and platelet count of 611,000/mL. Stool guaiac test is negative. She is started on oral ferrous sulfate supplements. On follow-up, her laboratory parameters show no interval change in her MCV or platelet level, and she reports good compliance with the medication. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Q405
A 37-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with dysphagia. He notes that his symptoms began several weeks ago and have worsened over time. He now has trouble swallowing solids and liquids. He denies any other symptoms. He has no significant past medical history. Travel history reveals a recent trip to South America but no other travel outside the United States. His temperature is 100°F (37.8°C), blood pressure is 120/81 mmHg, pulse is 99/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. HEENT exam is unremarkable. He has no palpable masses in his abdomen. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q406
A 74-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of abdominal pain that is most felt around the umbilicus. The pain began 16 hours ago and has no association with meals. He has not been vomiting, but he has had several episodes of bloody loose bowel movements. He was hospitalized 1 week ago for an acute myocardial infarction. He has had diabetes mellitus for 35 years and hypertension for 20 years. He has smoked 15–20 cigarettes per day for the past 40 years. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), blood pressure is 95/65 mm Hg, and pulse is 95/min. On physical examination, the patient is in severe pain, there is a mild periumbilical tenderness, and a bruit is heard over the epigastric area. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q407
A 37-year-old man presents to the physician because of dysphagia and regurgitation for the past 5 years. In recent weeks, it has become very difficult for him to ingest solid or liquid food. He has lost 3 kg (6 lb) during this time. He was admitted to the hospital last year because of pneumonia. Three years ago, he had an endoscopic procedure which partially improved his dysphagia. He takes amlodipine and nitroglycerine before meals. His vital signs are within normal limits. BMI is 19 kg/m2. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A barium swallow X-ray is shown. Which of the following patterns of esophageal involvement is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
Q408
A 52-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of intermittent chest pain for 3 days. The pain is retrosternal, 3/10, and positional (laying down seems to make it worse). She describes it as “squeezing and burning” in quality, is worse after food intake and emotional stress, and improves with antacids. The patient recently traveled for 4 hours in a car. Past medical history is significant for osteoarthritis, hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, both of which are moderately controlled. Medications include ibuprofen, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide. She denies palpitations, dyspnea, shortness of breath, weight loss, fever, melena, or hematochezia. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
Q409
A 42-year-old Caucasian male presents to your office with hematuria and right flank pain. He has no history of renal dialysis but has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. You order an intravenous pyelogram, which reveals multiple cysts of the collecting ducts in the medulla. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q410
A 50-year-old Caucasian man presents for a routine checkup. He does not have any current complaint. He is healthy and takes no medications. He has smoked 10–15 cigarettes per day for the past 10 years. His family history is negative for gastrointestinal disorders. Which of the following screening tests is recommended for this patient according to the United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 401: A 47-year-old man presents with upper GI (upper gastrointestinal) bleeding. The patient is known to have a past medical history of peptic ulcer disease and was previously admitted 4 years ago for the same reason. He uses proton-pump inhibitors for his peptic ulcer. Upon admission, the patient is placed on close monitoring, and after 8 hours, his hematocrit is unchanged. The patient has also been hemodynamically stable after initial fluid resuscitation. An upper endoscopy is performed. Which of the following endoscopy findings most likely indicates that this patient will not experience additional GI bleeding in the next few days?
A. Visible non-bleeding vessel
B. Adherent clot on ulcer
C. Gastric ulcer with arteriovenous malformations
D. Visible bleeding vessel
E. Clean-based ulcer (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Clean-based ulcer***
- A **clean-based ulcer** indicates that there is no visible blood, clot, or vessel, suggesting a very low risk of rebleeding.
- The absence of endoscopic stigmata of recent hemorrhage is associated with an excellent prognosis and typically requires no further endoscopic intervention.
*Visible non-bleeding vessel*
- A **visible non-bleeding vessel** indicates an exposed vessel within an ulcer crater, which carries a significant risk of rebleeding, despite not actively bleeding at the time of endoscopy.
- Such a finding typically warrants endoscopic therapy to prevent subsequent hemorrhage due to potential rupture or re-bleeding from the exposed vessel.
*Adherent clot on ulcer*
- An **adherent clot** on an ulcer indicates recent bleeding and carries an intermediate to high risk of rebleeding if left untreated.
- Endoscopic removal of the clot and treatment of the underlying lesion is often recommended due to the potential for further hemorrhage once the clot dislodges.
*Gastric ulcer with arteriovenous malformations*
- **Arteriovenous malformations (AVMs)** are vascular lesions that are inherently prone to bleeding and indicate a high risk of future bleeding events.
- While distinct from peptic ulcers, their presence suggests a recurring bleeding source that would likely lead to additional gastrointestinal bleeding.
*Visible bleeding vessel*
- A **visible bleeding vessel** is indicative of active hemorrhage and represents the highest risk stigmata for rebleeding, necessitating immediate endoscopic intervention to achieve hemostasis.
- This finding clearly implies ongoing or very recent bleeding, making additional bleeding highly probable if not treated.
Question 402: A 76-year-old Japanese man is admitted to the hospital because of a 3-month history of loose stools and worsening peripheral edema. He also reports fatigue, a 10-pound weight loss over the past 6 weeks, and a tingling sensation in his hands and feet over the same time period. Aside from the family dog, he has not had contact with animals for over 1 year and has not traveled outside the country. He has hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Five years ago, he underwent a partial gastrectomy with jejunal anastomosis for gastric cancer. Current medications include hydrochlorothiazide and tamsulosin. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 103/min, and blood pressure is 132/83 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen. There is a well-healed scar on the upper abdomen. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The conjunctivae appear pale. Sensation to vibration and position is absent over the lower extremities. His hemoglobin concentration is 9.9 g/dL, MCV is 108 μm3, total protein 3.9 g/dL, and albumin 1.9 g/dL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. Neoplastic growth
B. Increased intestinal motility
C. Anastomotic stricture
D. Bypass of the pyloric sphincter
E. Bacterial overgrowth (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bacterial overgrowth***
- The patient's history of **partial gastrectomy with jejunal anastomosis** (Billroth II reconstruction) predisposes him to **small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO)** due to the creation of a blind loop.
- Symptoms such as **loose stools**, **peripheral edema** (due to protein malabsorption leading to hypoalbuminemia), **weight loss**, and **neuropathy** (tingling sensation from B12 malabsorption) are all consistent with SIBO.
*Neoplastic growth*
- While **gastric cancer** is a possibility given his history, the constellation of symptoms, particularly the macrocytic anemia and peripheral neuropathy, point more strongly towards malabsorption due to bacterial overgrowth.
- Other findings less typical for neoplastic growth as the sole cause include significant **hypoalbuminemia** and **peripheral neuropathy**, which are classic for malabsorption.
*Increased intestinal motility*
- While increased motility can cause loose stools and weight loss, it does not explain the **macrocytic anemia** (high MCV) or the **peripheral neuropathy**.
- The patient's history of gastrectomy does not directly lead to increased intestinal motility as a primary issue for this clinical picture.
*Anastomotic stricture*
- An anastomotic stricture would typically present with **obstructive symptoms** like abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, or difficulty passing stool, rather than chronic loose stools.
- It would not explain the **macrocytic anemia** or **peripheral neuropathy** directly.
*Bypass of the pyloric sphincter*
- Bypassing the pyloric sphincter (as in a Billroth II) can lead to **dumping syndrome** or **alkaline reflux gastritis**, but these conditions do not typically cause the complete symptom complex seen here, specifically not the severe malabsorption signs like peripheral edema, macrocytic anemia, and neuropathy.
- The absence of the pylorus is a predisposing factor for bacterial overgrowth, but not the direct cause of these symptoms.
Question 403: A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with nausea and vomiting. She denies any recent illnesses, sick contacts, or consumption of foods outside of her usual diet. She reports smoking marijuana at least three times a day. Her temperature is 97.7°F (36.5°C), blood pressure is 90/74 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 10/min, and SpO2 is 94% on room air. Her conjunctiva are injected. Her basic metabolic panel is obtained below.
Serum:
Na+: 132 mEq/L
Cl-: 89 mEq/L
K+: 2.9 mEq/L
HCO3-: 30 mEq/L
BUN: 35 mg/dL
Glucose: 80 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Magnesium: 2.0 mEq/L
She continues to have multiple bouts of emesis and dry retching. What is the next best step in management?
A. Administer metoclopramide and 1/2 normal saline with potassium
B. Administer ondansetron and 1/2 normal saline with dextrose
C. Administer ondansetron and isotonic saline with potassium (Correct Answer)
D. Obtain a urine toxin screen
E. Administer ondansetron orally and provide oral rehydration solution
Explanation: ***Administer ondansetron and isotonic saline with potassium***
- This patient presents with **nausea, vomiting, and dry retching** suggestive of **cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome** given her history of heavy marijuana use and injected conjunctiva. **Ondansetron** is an appropriate antiemetic choice.
- The patient's lab values show **hypokalemia (K+ 2.9 mEq/L)**, **mild hyponatremia (Na+ 132 mEq/L)**, and signs of **dehydration** (elevated BUN and creatinine). Therefore, **isotonic saline** (to address dehydration and hyponatremia) **with potassium supplementation** is essential for rehydration and electrolyte correction.
*Administer ondansetron orally and provide oral rehydration solution*
- While ondansetron is a good choice, administering it **orally** might be difficult due to active vomiting, making IV administration preferable.
- **Oral rehydration** may not be sufficient for a patient with persistent multiple bouts of emesis and significant electrolyte derangements.
*Administer metoclopramide and 1/2 normal saline with potassium*
- **Metoclopramide** can be used as an antiemetic, but it carries a risk of **extrapyramidal symptoms**, especially in younger patients. Ondansetron is often preferred.
- **Hypotonic saline (1/2 normal saline)** is inappropriate for a patient who is **volume depleted** and a trend towards **hypotonic hyponatremia**, as it could worsen cerebral edema or hyponatremia.
*Administer ondansetron and 1/2 normal saline with dextrose*
- While **ondansetron** is appropriate, **hypotonic saline (1/2 normal saline)** is not indicated for this patient with volume depletion.
- **Dextrose** may be added if there is concern for hypoglycemia, but the patient's glucose is normal at 80 mg/dL. The immediate priority is volume and electrolyte correction.
*Obtain a urine toxin screen*
- While a **urine toxin screen** could confirm marijuana use, it is not the next best step in managing her acute, symptomatic presentation with **dehydration and electrolyte imbalances**.
- Clinical suspicion for **cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome** is already high based on her history and symptoms, and waiting for test results would delay necessary treatment.
Question 404: A 61-year-old woman presents for a routine health visit. She complains of generalized fatigue and lethargy on most days of the week for the past 4 months. She has no significant past medical history and is not taking any medications. She denies any history of smoking or recreational drug use but states that she drinks "socially" approx. 6 nights a week. She says she also enjoys a "nightcap," which is 1–2 glasses of wine before bed every night. The patient is afebrile, and her vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is significant pallor of the mucous membranes. Laboratory findings are significant for a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 72 fL, leukocyte count of 4,800/mL, hemoglobin of 11.0 g/dL, and platelet count of 611,000/mL. Stool guaiac test is negative. She is started on oral ferrous sulfate supplements. On follow-up, her laboratory parameters show no interval change in her MCV or platelet level, and she reports good compliance with the medication. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Transfuse the patient with whole blood
B. Administer folate
C. Administer iron intravenously (Correct Answer)
D. Continue oral ferrous sulfate and supplement with omeprazole
E. Continue oral ferrous sulfate and supplement with ascorbic acid
Explanation: **Administer iron intravenously**
- The patient shows **microcytic anemia** (MCV 72 fL) and **thrombocytosis** (platelet count 611,000/mL), which are classic signs of **iron deficiency anemia**.
- Given the failure of oral ferrous sulfate to improve her parameters, despite likely good adherence given the repeat visit, **intravenous iron** is the next appropriate step to ensure adequate iron repletion.
*Transfuse the patient with whole blood*
- **Blood transfusion** is reserved for patients with severe, symptomatic anemia, often with a hemoglobin level much lower than 11.0 g/dL, or in cases of acute hemorrhage.
- This patient's anemia is chronic and her hemoglobin level, while low, is not critically low enough to warrant immediate transfusion.
*Administer folate*
- **Folate deficiency** typically causes **macrocytic anemia** (high MCV), not microcytic anemia, making it an inappropriate treatment for this patient.
- Though chronic alcohol use can affect folate levels, the patient's presentation is more consistent with iron deficiency.
*Continue oral ferrous sulfate and supplement with omeprazole*
- **Omeprazole** is a **proton pump inhibitor** that can actually *reduce* iron absorption by decreasing gastric acidity, making it counterproductive in treating iron deficiency.
- Continuing oral iron alone was already proven ineffective, necessitating a more aggressive approach.
*Continue oral ferrous sulfate and supplement with ascorbic acid*
- **Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)** can enhance the absorption of non-heme iron; however, since the initial trial of oral ferrous sulfate alone was ineffective, merely adding ascorbic acid may not be sufficient.
- The lack of improvement suggests either poor absorption or significant ongoing loss, which intravenous iron addresses more directly.
Question 405: A 37-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with dysphagia. He notes that his symptoms began several weeks ago and have worsened over time. He now has trouble swallowing solids and liquids. He denies any other symptoms. He has no significant past medical history. Travel history reveals a recent trip to South America but no other travel outside the United States. His temperature is 100°F (37.8°C), blood pressure is 120/81 mmHg, pulse is 99/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. HEENT exam is unremarkable. He has no palpable masses in his abdomen. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Nifurtimox
B. Barium swallow (Correct Answer)
C. Myotomy
D. Manometry
E. Endoscopy
Explanation: ***Barium swallow***
- For a patient with **progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids**, a **motility disorder** (particularly **achalasia**) is most likely, especially given the travel history to **South America** (Chagas disease risk).
- **Barium swallow (esophagram)** is the **preferred initial diagnostic test** for suspected esophageal motility disorders as it is **non-invasive**, provides excellent visualization of esophageal anatomy, and can demonstrate characteristic findings such as **"bird's beak" appearance** in achalasia or dilated esophagus with poor peristalsis.
- This test helps distinguish between **mechanical obstruction** and **motility disorders** without the risks associated with endoscopy.
*Endoscopy*
- While endoscopy allows direct visualization and biopsy capability, it is **not the first-line test** for suspected motility disorders.
- Endoscopy is more appropriate when dysphagia presents with **solids only** (suggesting mechanical obstruction or malignancy) or when barium swallow reveals concerning findings requiring tissue diagnosis.
- In a young patient (37 years) with dysphagia to liquids, malignancy is less likely, making the invasive nature of endoscopy less justified as the initial test.
*Manometry*
- **Esophageal manometry** is the **gold standard for confirming** esophageal motility disorders like achalasia.
- However, it is typically performed **after** structural abnormalities are ruled out with imaging (barium swallow), not as the initial diagnostic test.
- Manometry provides definitive diagnosis but doesn't evaluate for anatomical causes of dysphagia.
*Nifurtimox*
- This antiparasitic treats **Chagas disease** (*Trypanosoma cruzi*), which can cause esophageal dysmotility.
- Treatment should **never precede diagnosis**; the patient needs diagnostic workup first to confirm the etiology of dysphagia.
- Nifurtimox is only indicated after confirming active Chagas infection with serologic testing.
*Myotomy*
- **Heller myotomy** is a **definitive surgical treatment** for achalasia, not a diagnostic procedure.
- This intervention is only appropriate after diagnosis is established and medical/endoscopic therapies have been considered.
- Performing surgery without diagnostic confirmation would be inappropriate management.
Question 406: A 74-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of abdominal pain that is most felt around the umbilicus. The pain began 16 hours ago and has no association with meals. He has not been vomiting, but he has had several episodes of bloody loose bowel movements. He was hospitalized 1 week ago for an acute myocardial infarction. He has had diabetes mellitus for 35 years and hypertension for 20 years. He has smoked 15–20 cigarettes per day for the past 40 years. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), blood pressure is 95/65 mm Hg, and pulse is 95/min. On physical examination, the patient is in severe pain, there is a mild periumbilical tenderness, and a bruit is heard over the epigastric area. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute mesenteric ischemia (Correct Answer)
B. Chronic mesenteric ischemia
C. Colonic ischemia
D. Irritable bowel syndrome
E. Peptic ulcer disease
Explanation: ***Acute mesenteric ischemia***
- The sudden onset of severe, **periumbilical abdominal pain** out of proportion to physical exam findings in a patient with significant **atherosclerotic risk factors** (recent MI, diabetes, hypertension, smoking) is highly suggestive of acute mesenteric ischemia.
- **Bloody loose bowel movements** (due to mucosal sloughing) and the presence of an **epigastric bruit** further support the diagnosis of arterial occlusion to the bowel.
*Chronic mesenteric ischemia*
- This typically presents with **postprandial abdominal pain** (abdominal angina) and **weight loss** due to fear of eating.
- The patient's pain is sudden in onset, not associated with meals, and severe, which is characteristic of acute ischemia.
*Colonic ischemia*
- While it can cause bloody diarrhea, colonic ischemia typically presents with pain localized to the **left or right lower quadrants** and is often less severe than the pain described here.
- The patient's risk factors and abrupt, severe periumbilical pain point away from isolated colonic involvement.
*Irritable bowel syndrome*
- This is a **functional gastrointestinal disorder** characterized by chronic abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits (constipation, diarrhea, or both).
- It does not present with sudden, severe pain, bloody stools, or in the context of acute cardiovascular events and associated risk factors.
*Peptic ulcer disease*
- This typically causes **epigastric pain** that can be burning or gnawing, often relieved or exacerbated by food, and may cause melena or hematemesis.
- The patient's severe, diffuse periumbilical pain, bloody stools (not melena), and recent MI are not typical for peptic ulcer disease.
Question 407: A 37-year-old man presents to the physician because of dysphagia and regurgitation for the past 5 years. In recent weeks, it has become very difficult for him to ingest solid or liquid food. He has lost 3 kg (6 lb) during this time. He was admitted to the hospital last year because of pneumonia. Three years ago, he had an endoscopic procedure which partially improved his dysphagia. He takes amlodipine and nitroglycerine before meals. His vital signs are within normal limits. BMI is 19 kg/m2. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A barium swallow X-ray is shown. Which of the following patterns of esophageal involvement is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A. Abnormal esophageal contraction with normal lower esophageal sphincter relaxation
B. Severely weak peristalsis and patulous lower esophageal sphincter
C. Poor pharyngeal propulsion and upper esophageal sphincter obstruction
D. Sequenced inhibition followed by contraction of the musculature along the esophagus
E. Absent peristalsis and impaired lower esophageal sphincter relaxation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Absent peristalsis and impaired lower esophageal sphincter relaxation***
- The patient's symptoms of **dysphagia** for solids and liquids, along with weight loss, indicate a severe esophageal motility disorder.
- This condition is **achalasia**, where the esophagus fails to propel food down and the lower esophageal sphincter doesn't relax appropriately, leading to obstruction.
- The clinical clues include progressive dysphagia for both solids and liquids, regurgitation, weight loss, history of aspiration pneumonia, and prior endoscopic intervention (likely pneumatic dilation).
*Abnormal esophageal contraction with normal lower esophageal sphincter relaxation*
- This describes **distal esophageal spasm** or **jackhammer esophagus**, where the LES relaxes normally but esophageal body contractions are abnormal.
- This does not align with the patient's **lack of peristalsis and failure of LES relaxation**, which are pathognomonic for achalasia.
*Severely weak peristalsis and patulous lower esophageal sphincter*
- While weak peristalsis indicates poor movement, a **patulous (or incompetent) lower esophageal sphincter** suggests inability to maintain closure, leading to reflux.
- The patient has **dysphagia, not typical reflux symptoms** (heartburn, regurgitation of acidic content), which are associated with a patulous sphincter and ineffective esophageal motility.
*Poor pharyngeal propulsion and upper esophageal sphincter obstruction*
- This option describes **oropharyngeal dysphagia**, affecting the **upper esophageal sphincter**.
- The patient's symptoms and barium swallow findings point to a **lower esophageal disorder** (achalasia), not upper esophageal obstruction.
*Sequenced inhibition followed by contraction of the musculature along the esophagus*
- This describes **normal esophageal peristalsis**, with coordinated inhibition and contraction waves.
- This contradicts the patient's **absent peristalsis** seen in achalasia, where there is loss of the myenteric plexus and no coordinated esophageal contractions.
Question 408: A 52-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of intermittent chest pain for 3 days. The pain is retrosternal, 3/10, and positional (laying down seems to make it worse). She describes it as “squeezing and burning” in quality, is worse after food intake and emotional stress, and improves with antacids. The patient recently traveled for 4 hours in a car. Past medical history is significant for osteoarthritis, hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, both of which are moderately controlled. Medications include ibuprofen, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide. She denies palpitations, dyspnea, shortness of breath, weight loss, fever, melena, or hematochezia. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
A. Temporary blockage of the bile duct
B. Decreased gastric mucosal protection
C. Insufficient blood supply to the myocardium
D. Incompetence of the lower esophageal sphincter (Correct Answer)
E. Blood clot within the lungs
Explanation: ***Incompetence of the lower esophageal sphincter***
- The patient's symptoms of **retrosternal burning and squeezing pain** that worsen with **laying down**, **food intake**, and **emotional stress**, and improve with **antacids**, are highly characteristic of **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)**, which occurs due to an incompetent lower esophageal sphincter.
- While other conditions can cause chest pain, the specific context and relief with antacids strongly point to an esophageal origin.
*Temporary blockage of the bile duct*
- This would typically cause **biliary colic**, which is usually described as severe, **cramping pain in the right upper quadrant or epigastrium**, often radiating to the back or right shoulder, and frequently associated with nausea and vomiting.
- The described chest pain and its positional worsening and relief with antacids are not typical features of biliary obstruction.
*Decreased gastric mucosal protection*
- This might suggest conditions like **gastritis** or **peptic ulcer disease**, which cause epigastric pain, burning, or gnawing sensations.
- While improved by antacids, the retrosternal location of pain and worsening with lying down are less typical for isolated gastric mucosal issues and more indicative of reflux.
*Insufficient blood supply to the myocardium*
- This describes **angina pectoris**, which can present as retrosternal squeezing chest pain, often worsened by exertion or stress. However, the patient's pain being worse with **laying down** and significantly improving with **antacids** makes cardiac ischemia less likely.
- The description of **burning** and the specific triggers (food intake, laying down) are less typical for angina.
*Blood clot within the lungs*
- This refers to a **pulmonary embolism**, which typically causes **sudden onset pleuritic chest pain**, dyspnea, and sometimes hemoptysis.
- The chronic, intermittent, positional nature of the pain and its relief with antacids are inconsistent with a pulmonary embolism.
Question 409: A 42-year-old Caucasian male presents to your office with hematuria and right flank pain. He has no history of renal dialysis but has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. You order an intravenous pyelogram, which reveals multiple cysts of the collecting ducts in the medulla. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic renal failure
B. Medullary sponge kidney (Correct Answer)
C. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
D. Simple retention cysts
E. Acquired polycystic kidney disease
Explanation: ***Medullary sponge kidney***
- This condition is characterized by **multiple cysts within the collecting ducts** in the renal medulla, often leading to **hematuria**, **flank pain**, and **recurrent UTIs** due to urinary stasis and stone formation.
- The intravenous pyelogram (IVP) finding of **"medullary blush"** or "bouquet of flowers" appearance due to contrast filling the dilated collecting ducts is classic for this diagnosis.
*Chronic renal failure*
- While chronic renal failure can present with hematuria and flank pain, it is a **consequence of various kidney diseases** and not a specific diagnosis for the described structural changes.
- This patient's presentation with specific imaging findings points to an underlying structural anomaly rather than just end-stage kidney dysfunction.
*Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)*
- ADPKD typically involves **numerous cysts throughout the entire kidney** (cortex and medulla), leading to massive kidney enlargement and progressive renal failure.
- The imaging findings in this case specifically describe cysts limited to the collecting ducts in the medulla, which is inconsistent with the widespread cystic involvement of ADPKD.
*Simple retention cysts*
- **Simple renal cysts are typically solitary or few** and generally benign, not forming multiple cysts specifically within the collecting ducts of the medulla.
- They also do not typically cause recurrent UTIs or significant hematuria unless they become very large or complicated.
*Acquired polycystic kidney disease*
- This condition is almost exclusively seen in patients with **long-standing end-stage renal disease** or on **dialysis**, which is explicitly denied in the patient's history.
- The cysts are usually small and scattered, located predominantly in the cortex, and not specifically limited to the medullary collecting ducts.
Question 410: A 50-year-old Caucasian man presents for a routine checkup. He does not have any current complaint. He is healthy and takes no medications. He has smoked 10–15 cigarettes per day for the past 10 years. His family history is negative for gastrointestinal disorders. Which of the following screening tests is recommended for this patient according to the United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)?
A. Abdominal ultrasonography for abdominal aortic aneurysm
B. Carcinoembryonic antigen for colorectal cancer
C. Low-dose computerized tomography for lung cancer
D. Colonoscopy for colorectal cancer (Correct Answer)
E. Prostate-specific antigen for prostate cancer
Explanation: **Colonoscopy for colorectal cancer**
- The **USPSTF recommends screening for colorectal cancer in adults aged 45 to 75 years**. This patient is 50 years old, placing him squarely within this recommended age range for colonoscopy, irrespective of smoking status or other risk factors.
- **Colonoscopy** is a highly effective screening tool for colorectal cancer, allowing for the detection and removal of precancerous polyps.
*Abdominal ultrasonography for abdominal aortic aneurysm*
- The **USPSTF recommends one-time screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) with ultrasonography in men aged 65 to 75 years who have ever smoked**. This patient is 50 years old, falling outside the recommended age range for this screening, despite his smoking history.
- The benefit of screening for AAA is primarily for older men with a history of smoking, as the prevalence of AAA significantly increases with age.
*Low-dose computerized tomography for lung cancer*
- The **USPSTF recommends annual screening for lung cancer with low-dose computed tomography (LDCT) in adults aged 50 to 80 years who have a 20 pack-year smoking history and currently smoke or have quit within the past 15 years**. This patient has a 10-pack-year smoking history (10-15 cigarettes/day for 10 years ≈ 0.5-0.75 packs/day * 10 years = 5-7.5 pack-years), which does not meet the 20 pack-year threshold.
- While the patient is within the age range, his smoking history is insufficient to meet the criteria for routine lung cancer screening with LDCT.
*Carcinoembryonic antigen for colorectal cancer*
- **Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker primarily used for monitoring the recurrence of colorectal cancer after treatment**, not for initial screening in asymptomatic individuals.
- The USPSTF and other guidelines do not recommend CEA as a screening test for colorectal cancer due to its low sensitivity and specificity in asymptomatic populations.
*Prostate-specific antigen for prostate cancer*
- The **USPSTF recommends that men aged 55 to 69 years should make an individual decision about being screened for prostate cancer with a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test**, after discussing the potential benefits and harms with their clinician.
- This patient is 50 years old, which is younger than the age range where the USPSTF recommends shared decision-making for PSA screening.