A 44-year-old man presents to his primary care physician due to a shock-like pain in his left leg. He describes the pain as sharp and lasting a few minutes at a time. He has noticed being "clumsy" when walking in a dark room. Approximately 2 weeks ago, he was helping his daughter move and this required him to lift heavy boxes. He denies any trauma to the back or lower back pain. Medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is currently sexually active and is in a monogamous relationship with his wife. Approximately 15 years ago, he noted a painless genital lesion. On physical exam, there is a miotic pupil that does not constrict with light but constricts with convergence and accommodation. Strength, reflex, and sensory exam of the lower extremity is unremarkable. The patient has a positive Romberg test. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q342
A 34-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of right flank pain and vomiting for 5 hours. She has had fever and chills for the past 2 days. She attended a barbecue 3 days ago, where she ate egg salad. She underwent surgery for left ovarian torsion a year ago. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 days. She is sexually active with 2 male partners and uses condoms inconsistently. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive pill. She is 163 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 72.5 kg (160 lb); BMI is 27.5 kg/m2. She appears uncomfortable. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102°F), pulse is 101/min, and blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The right lower quadrant and right flank show severe tenderness to palpation. Pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.8 g/dL
Leukocyte count 14,200/mm3
Platelet count 230,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
K+ 3.8 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 23 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Urine
Blood 1+
Protein 1+
Glucose negative
Leukocyte esterase positive
Nitrites negative
RBC 6–8/hpf
WBC 80–85/hpf
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q343
An 80-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to the gradual worsening of confusion and lethargy for the past 5 days. Her son reports that she had recovered from a severe stomach bug with vomiting and diarrhea 3 days ago without seeing a physician or going to the hospital. The patient’s past medical history is notable for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. She takes hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, a children’s aspirin, and a multivitamin. The patient is not compliant with her medication regimen. Physical examination reveals dry oral mucous membranes and the patient appears extremely lethargic but arousable. She refuses to answer questions and has extreme difficulty following the conversation. Laboratory results are as follows:
Sodium 126 mEq/L
Potassium 3.9 mEq/L
Chloride 94 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 25 mEq/L
Calcium 8.1 mg/dL
Glucose 910 mg/dL
Urine ketones Trace
Which of the following may also be found in this patient?
Q344
A 52-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 5-month history of progressive lethargy, shortness of breath, and difficulty concentrating. His friends have told him that he appears pale. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for the past 20 years. Neurological examination shows reduced sensation to light touch and pinprick in the toes bilaterally. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 8.2 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 108 μm3
Serum
Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) 51 ng/L (N = 170–900)
Folic acid 13 ng/mL (N = 5.4–18)
An oral dose of radiolabeled vitamin B12 is administered, followed by an intramuscular injection of nonradioactive vitamin B12. A 24-hour urine sample is collected and urine vitamin B12 levels are unchanged. The procedure is repeated with the addition of oral intrinsic factor, and 24-hour urine vitamin B12 levels increase. This patient's findings indicate an increased risk for which of the following conditions?
Q345
A 70-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of an 8-week history of blood in his stool. Two months ago, he had an episode of bronchitis and was treated with amoxicillin. Since then, he has noticed blood in his stool and on the toilet paper occasionally. The patient has had intermittent constipation for the past 5 years. Six months ago, he had severe left lower quadrant pain and fever that resolved with antibiotic therapy. He underwent a colonoscopy 3 years ago, which did not show any evidence of malignancy. He takes levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. He had smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years, but quit smoking 10 years ago. He drinks one glass of red wine every night. He appears pale. He is 180 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 98 kg (216 lb); BMI is 32 kg/m2. His temperature is 36°C (96.8°F), pulse is 85/min, and blood pressure is 135/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows pale conjunctivae. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no organomegaly. Digital rectal examination shows no masses. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 11 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 76 μm3
Red cell distribution width 17% (N = 13–15)
Leukocyte count 5,000/mm3
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q346
A 58-year-old woman with a history of nephrolithiasis presents with fever and acute-onset right flank pain. The patient says that 2 days ago she developed sudden-onset right flank pain and nausea which has progressively worsened. She describes the pain as severe, colicky, localized to the right flank, and radiating to the groin. This morning she woke with a fever and foul-smelling urine. She has no significant past medical history. Vital signs are temperature 40.0°C (104.0°F), blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg, pulse 92/min, and respiratory rate 21/min. Physical examination shows severe right costovertebral angle tenderness. Her laboratory findings are significant for the following:
WBC 12,500/mm3
RBC 4.20 x 106/mm3
Hematocrit 41.5%
Hemoglobin 14.0 g/dL
Platelet count 225,000/mm3
Urinalysis:
Color Dark yellow
Clarity Turbid
pH 5.9
Specific gravity 1.026
Glucose None
Ketones None
Nitrites Positive
Leukocyte esterase Positive
Bilirubin Negative
Urobilirubin 0.6 mg/dL
Protein Trace
RBC 325/hpf
WBC 8,200/hpf
Bacteria Many
A non-contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis shows an obstructing 7-mm diameter stone lodged at the ureteropelvic junction. There is also evidence of hydronephrosis of the right kidney. Which of the following is the best course of treatment for this patient?
Q347
A 49-year-old sexually active woman presents with dysuria and urinary frequency. She denies any previous urinary tract infections (UTIs), but she says that her mother has had frequent UTIs. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, cervical cancer, and hypercholesterolemia. She currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day, drinks a glass of wine per day, and denies any illicit drug use. Her vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 87/min, and respiratory rate 17/min. On physical examination, her lung sounds are clear. She has a grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur heard best over the left upper sternal border. She also has tenderness in the suprapubic area. A urinalysis shows the presence of numerous leukocytes, leukocyte esterase, and nitrites. Which of the following factors would not classify a UTI as complicated?
Q348
A 34-year-old woman visits the physician with complaints of difficulty swallowing and recurrent vomiting for the past 6 months. She even noticed food particles in her vomit a few hours after eating her meals. She has lost about 3.0 kg (6.6 lb) over the past 4 months. Her history is significant for a trip to Argentina last year. Her past medical history is insignificant. She is a non-smoker. On examination, her blood pressure is 118/75 mm Hg, respirations are 17/min, pulse is 78/min, temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), and her BMI is 24 kg/m². There is no abdominal tenderness, distension, or evidence of jaundice. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q349
A 40-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 5-month history of watery diarrhea and episodic crampy abdominal pain. He has no fever, nausea, or vomiting. Over the past 6 months, he has had a 1.8-kg (4-lb) weight loss, despite experiencing no decrease in appetite. His wife has noticed that sometimes his face and neck become red after meals or when he is in distress. A year ago, he was diagnosed with asthma. He has hypertension. Current medications include an albuterol inhaler and enalapril. He drinks one beer daily. His temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), pulse is 85/min, and blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. A grade 2/6 systolic murmur is heard best at the left sternal border and fourth intercostal space. The abdomen is soft, and there is mild tenderness to palpation with no guarding or rebound. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. A complete blood count is within the reference range. Without treatment, this patient is at greatest risk for which of the following conditions?
Q350
A 52-year-old-woman presents to an urgent care clinic with right upper quadrant pain for the past few hours. She admits to having similar episodes of pain in the past but milder than today. Past medical history is insignificant. She took an antacid, but it did not help. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F ), respirations are 16/min, pulse is 78/min, and blood pressure is 122/98 mm Hg. Physical examination is normal, and she says that her pain has subsided. The urgent care provider suspects she has cholecystitis, so she undergoes a limited abdominal ultrasound to confirm it. However, no evidence of cholecystitis is seen with ultrasound, but adenomyomatosis of the gallbladder is incidentally noted. The patient has no clinical features suspicious for malignancy. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 341: A 44-year-old man presents to his primary care physician due to a shock-like pain in his left leg. He describes the pain as sharp and lasting a few minutes at a time. He has noticed being "clumsy" when walking in a dark room. Approximately 2 weeks ago, he was helping his daughter move and this required him to lift heavy boxes. He denies any trauma to the back or lower back pain. Medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is currently sexually active and is in a monogamous relationship with his wife. Approximately 15 years ago, he noted a painless genital lesion. On physical exam, there is a miotic pupil that does not constrict with light but constricts with convergence and accommodation. Strength, reflex, and sensory exam of the lower extremity is unremarkable. The patient has a positive Romberg test. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Sexually transmitted infection (Correct Answer)
B. Acute ischemic cerebellar stroke
C. Lumbar disc herniation
D. Lumbar spinal stenosis
E. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
Explanation: ***Sexually transmitted infection***
- The patient's history of a **painless genital lesion 15 years ago** suggests **primary syphilis**, which can progress to **neurosyphilis** affecting the dorsal columns.
- Symptoms like **sudden, shock-like leg pain (tabetic crisis)**, **ataxia exacerbated in the dark (sensory ataxia)**, and **Argyll Robertson pupils** (miotic pupil that doesn't constrict to light but accommodates) are classic signs of **tabes dorsalis**, a form of neurosyphilis.
*Acute ischemic cerebellar stroke*
- While a stroke can cause **ataxia**, it typically presents with **acute onset** neurological deficits, unlike the chronic and progressive symptoms described.
- **Argyll Robertson pupils** and **shock-like leg pain** are not characteristic features of cerebellar stroke.
*Lumbar disc herniation*
- Symptoms usually include **radicular pain** worsened by certain movements, potential **motor weakness**, or **sensory deficits** in a dermatomal distribution.
- The patient denies **lower back pain**, and the presence of **Argyll Robertson pupils** and **sensory ataxia** points away from this diagnosis.
*Lumbar spinal stenosis*
- This condition typically causes **neurogenic claudication**, with leg pain and numbness that worsens with standing or walking and improves with sitting or bending forward.
- The patient's **shock-like pain**, **sensory ataxia**, and **Argyll Robertson pupils** are not consistent with spinal stenosis.
*Diabetic peripheral neuropathy*
- Often causes **burning pain**, **numbness**, or **tingling** in a **stocking-glove distribution**, and can affect balance.
- However, **Argyll Robertson pupils** and the specific **"shock-like" nature of the pain** are not typical for diabetic neuropathy and would not usually appear as the primary presentation without other more common neuropathic symptoms.
Question 342: A 34-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of right flank pain and vomiting for 5 hours. She has had fever and chills for the past 2 days. She attended a barbecue 3 days ago, where she ate egg salad. She underwent surgery for left ovarian torsion a year ago. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 days. She is sexually active with 2 male partners and uses condoms inconsistently. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive pill. She is 163 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 72.5 kg (160 lb); BMI is 27.5 kg/m2. She appears uncomfortable. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102°F), pulse is 101/min, and blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The right lower quadrant and right flank show severe tenderness to palpation. Pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.8 g/dL
Leukocyte count 14,200/mm3
Platelet count 230,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
K+ 3.8 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 23 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Urine
Blood 1+
Protein 1+
Glucose negative
Leukocyte esterase positive
Nitrites negative
RBC 6–8/hpf
WBC 80–85/hpf
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ovarian torsion
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Urethritis
D. Pyelonephritis (Correct Answer)
E. Gastroenteritis
Explanation: ***Pyelonephritis***
- The patient presents with **fever, chills, right flank pain**, and **vomiting**, with **costovertebral angle tenderness** on examination, all characteristic of pyelonephritis.
- Urinalysis shows significant **leukocyturia (WBC 80-85/hpf)**, **leukocyte esterase positivity**, and low-grade **hematuria**, further supporting a urinary tract infection that has ascended to the kidneys.
*Ovarian torsion*
- While ovarian torsion can cause acute, severe unilateral abdominal pain and vomiting, the patient's **fever and chills**, severe **flank tenderness**, and **urinalysis findings (leukocyturia)** are inconsistent with ovarian torsion.
- A pelvic exam showing **no abnormalities** also makes ovarian pathology less likely.
*Pelvic inflammatory disease*
- PID typically presents with **lower abdominal pain**, fever, and vaginal discharge, often associated with a **positive cervical motion tenderness** or adnexal tenderness on pelvic exam.
- The patient's primary complaint of **flank pain** and the absence of pelvic exam findings or discharge make PID less likely.
*Urethritis*
- Urethritis primarily causes **dysuria, urinary frequency, and urgency** with little to no fever or flank pain unless it progresses to cystitis or pyelonephritis.
- The patient's systemic symptoms (fever, chills) and significant flank pain indicate a more severe, upper urinary tract infection.
*Gastroenteritis*
- Gastroenteritis typically presents with **nausea, vomiting, diarrhea**, and abdominal cramping, often preceded by exposure to contaminated food.
- While vomiting is present, the **lack of diarrhea**, prominent **flank pain**, fever, and especially the **pathologic urinalysis findings** (high WBCs) rule out uncomplicated gastroenteritis.
Question 343: An 80-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to the gradual worsening of confusion and lethargy for the past 5 days. Her son reports that she had recovered from a severe stomach bug with vomiting and diarrhea 3 days ago without seeing a physician or going to the hospital. The patient’s past medical history is notable for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. She takes hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, a children’s aspirin, and a multivitamin. The patient is not compliant with her medication regimen. Physical examination reveals dry oral mucous membranes and the patient appears extremely lethargic but arousable. She refuses to answer questions and has extreme difficulty following the conversation. Laboratory results are as follows:
Sodium 126 mEq/L
Potassium 3.9 mEq/L
Chloride 94 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 25 mEq/L
Calcium 8.1 mg/dL
Glucose 910 mg/dL
Urine ketones Trace
Which of the following may also be found in this patient?
A. Rapid and deep respiration
B. Increased BUN/creatinine ratio (Correct Answer)
C. Characteristic breath odor
D. Flapping hand tremor
E. Diffuse abdominal pain
Explanation: ***Increased BUN/creatinine ratio***
- This patient's symptoms (confusion, lethargy, dry mucous membranes) and history (severe gastroenteritis, hydrochlorothiazide use, poor medication compliance) are consistent with **dehydration** and resultant **prerenal azotemia**.
- **Prerenal azotemia** leads to a disproportionate reabsorption of **urea** over **creatinine** in the kidneys, causing an elevated BUN/creatinine ratio (typically >20:1).
*Rapid and deep respiration*
- **Kussmaul respirations** (rapid and deep) are characteristic of **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)**, which requires significant **ketone body accumulation** to compensate for metabolic acidosis.
- While the patient has severe hyperglycemia, the **trace urine ketones** indicate minimal ketosis, making DKA and Kussmaul respirations unlikely.
*Characteristic breath odor*
- A **fruity or acetone breath odor** is a hallmark of **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)**, resulting from the metabolic breakdown of **ketone bodies**.
- Given the patient's **trace urine ketones**, significant ketosis is not present, ruling out this characteristic odor.
*Flapping hand tremor*
- A **flapping hand tremor** (asterixis) is typically associated with severe **hepatic encephalopathy** or **uremic encephalopathy**.
- While the patient has altered mental status and potential kidney dysfunction, the clinical picture is more consistent with **hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)**, not severe liver or advanced kidney failure specifically causing asterixis.
*Diffuse abdominal pain*
- Significant **abdominal pain** is more commonly associated with **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)**, often due to associated metabolic acidosis and gastrointestinal irritation.
- In a patient with **hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)**, abdominal pain is not a prominent or typical feature unless there is a specific precipitating intra-abdominal event.
Question 344: A 52-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 5-month history of progressive lethargy, shortness of breath, and difficulty concentrating. His friends have told him that he appears pale. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for the past 20 years. Neurological examination shows reduced sensation to light touch and pinprick in the toes bilaterally. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 8.2 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 108 μm3
Serum
Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) 51 ng/L (N = 170–900)
Folic acid 13 ng/mL (N = 5.4–18)
An oral dose of radiolabeled vitamin B12 is administered, followed by an intramuscular injection of nonradioactive vitamin B12. A 24-hour urine sample is collected and urine vitamin B12 levels are unchanged. The procedure is repeated with the addition of oral intrinsic factor, and 24-hour urine vitamin B12 levels increase. This patient's findings indicate an increased risk for which of the following conditions?
A. Gastric carcinoma (Correct Answer)
B. De Quervain thyroiditis
C. Celiac disease
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
E. Colorectal carcinoma
Explanation: ***Gastric carcinoma***
- The patient's presentation of **macrocytic anemia** (low hemoglobin, MCV 108), **low vitamin B12**, and a positive **Schilling test** *corrected by intrinsic factor* indicates **pernicious anemia**.
- **Pernicious anemia** is an autoimmune condition that causes **atrophic gastritis** and is a significant risk factor for developing **gastric carcinoma** due to chronic inflammation and changes in the gastric mucosa.
*De Quervain thyroiditis*
- This condition is a **subacute granulomatous thyroiditis**, characterized by **neck pain**, **fever**, and transient **hyperthyroidism** followed by hypothyroidism.
- It has no direct association with **pernicious anemia** or **vitamin B12 deficiency**.
*Celiac disease*
- **Celiac disease** is an autoimmune disorder triggered by **gluten**, leading to **malabsorption** in the small intestine.
- While it can cause **anemia** (often iron deficiency anemia), it typically presents with **gastrointestinal symptoms** like diarrhea and abdominal pain, and is not directly indicated by the **Schilling test** findings for intrinsic factor deficiency.
*Type 2 diabetes mellitus*
- **Type 2 diabetes mellitus** is a metabolic disorder characterized by **insulin resistance** and hyperglycemia.
- There is no direct link between **pernicious anemia** and an increased risk of developing **type 2 diabetes mellitus**.
*Colorectal carcinoma*
- While **colorectal carcinoma** can cause **anemia** (usually iron deficiency anemia due to chronic blood loss), it does not typically present with **macrocytic anemia** or **vitamin B12 deficiency** as seen in this patient.
- The **Schilling test** results specifically point to an issue with **intrinsic factor**, which is related to gastric function, not colorectal.
Question 345: A 70-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of an 8-week history of blood in his stool. Two months ago, he had an episode of bronchitis and was treated with amoxicillin. Since then, he has noticed blood in his stool and on the toilet paper occasionally. The patient has had intermittent constipation for the past 5 years. Six months ago, he had severe left lower quadrant pain and fever that resolved with antibiotic therapy. He underwent a colonoscopy 3 years ago, which did not show any evidence of malignancy. He takes levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. He had smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years, but quit smoking 10 years ago. He drinks one glass of red wine every night. He appears pale. He is 180 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 98 kg (216 lb); BMI is 32 kg/m2. His temperature is 36°C (96.8°F), pulse is 85/min, and blood pressure is 135/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows pale conjunctivae. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no organomegaly. Digital rectal examination shows no masses. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 11 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 76 μm3
Red cell distribution width 17% (N = 13–15)
Leukocyte count 5,000/mm3
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Diverticulosis
B. Ischemic colitis
C. Hemorrhoids
D. Pseudomembranous colitis
E. Colorectal carcinoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Colorectal carcinoma***
- This patient presents with **chronic occult GI bleeding** leading to **microcytic anemia** (MCV 76 μm³) and **elevated RDW** (17%), which is the classic presentation of **colorectal cancer**.
- **Key clinical features**: 8-week history of hematochezia, positive fecal occult blood test, pale conjunctivae, and iron deficiency anemia all point to chronic blood loss from a GI malignancy.
- Although he had a colonoscopy 3 years ago showing no malignancy, **colorectal cancer can develop within 3 years**, especially if the prior exam was incomplete or missed lesions. His age (70), smoking history (45 pack-years), and new-onset bleeding warrant **repeat colonoscopy**.
- The prior episode of diverticulitis is a red herring and does not explain the chronic anemia.
*Diverticulosis*
- Diverticular bleeding typically presents as **acute, painless, brisk hematochezia** with large-volume blood loss, not chronic occult bleeding.
- Diverticulosis does **not** cause **microcytic anemia** because the bleeding is episodic and overt, not chronic and occult.
- While this patient had diverticulitis 6 months ago, this does not explain his current 8-week history of occult bleeding with iron deficiency.
*Ischemic colitis*
- Typically presents with **acute onset** of cramping abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, and occurs in the setting of cardiovascular disease or hypotension.
- Does not cause **chronic microcytic anemia** as seen in this patient.
- The patient's intermittent constipation and chronic bleeding pattern are inconsistent with ischemic colitis.
*Hemorrhoids*
- Can cause bright red blood on toilet paper and stool surface, but **rarely cause significant microcytic anemia** requiring this degree of iron deficiency.
- Hemorrhoidal bleeding is typically intermittent and associated with straining, not chronic occult blood loss.
- The severity of anemia (Hb 11 g/dL with MCV 76) suggests a more proximal source of bleeding.
*Pseudomembranous colitis*
- Caused by **Clostridioides difficile** infection following antibiotic use, presenting with **watery or bloody diarrhea**, fever, and abdominal pain.
- While the patient received amoxicillin 2 months ago, the absence of diarrhea and the chronic nature of anemia make this diagnosis unlikely.
- The left lower quadrant pain episode **preceded** the antibiotic use, making C. difficile an unlikely explanation.
Question 346: A 58-year-old woman with a history of nephrolithiasis presents with fever and acute-onset right flank pain. The patient says that 2 days ago she developed sudden-onset right flank pain and nausea which has progressively worsened. She describes the pain as severe, colicky, localized to the right flank, and radiating to the groin. This morning she woke with a fever and foul-smelling urine. She has no significant past medical history. Vital signs are temperature 40.0°C (104.0°F), blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg, pulse 92/min, and respiratory rate 21/min. Physical examination shows severe right costovertebral angle tenderness. Her laboratory findings are significant for the following:
WBC 12,500/mm3
RBC 4.20 x 106/mm3
Hematocrit 41.5%
Hemoglobin 14.0 g/dL
Platelet count 225,000/mm3
Urinalysis:
Color Dark yellow
Clarity Turbid
pH 5.9
Specific gravity 1.026
Glucose None
Ketones None
Nitrites Positive
Leukocyte esterase Positive
Bilirubin Negative
Urobilirubin 0.6 mg/dL
Protein Trace
RBC 325/hpf
WBC 8,200/hpf
Bacteria Many
A non-contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis shows an obstructing 7-mm diameter stone lodged at the ureteropelvic junction. There is also evidence of hydronephrosis of the right kidney. Which of the following is the best course of treatment for this patient?
A. Administer potassium citrate
B. Discharge home with oral antibiotics
C. Administer hydrochlorothiazide
D. Admit to hospital for percutaneous nephrostomy and IV antibiotics (Correct Answer)
E. Admit to hospital for IV antibiotics
Explanation: ***Admit to hospital for percutaneous nephrostomy and IV antibiotics***
* This patient presents with signs of **sepsis** (fever, elevated WBC, acute flank pain) secondary to an **obstructing ureteral stone** and **pyelonephritis** (foul-smelling urine, positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase, CVA tenderness, hydronephrosis).
* **Urgent decompression** of the obstructed kidney via percutaneous nephrostomy (or ureteral stent placement) is critical in addition to intravenous antibiotics for this life-threatening condition to relieve the obstruction and prevent further renal damage.
*Administer potassium citrate*
* **Potassium citrate** is used to prevent the formation of certain kidney stones, particularly **calcium oxalate** and **uric acid stones**, by alkalinizing the urine.
* It is not a treatment for an **acute, obstructed, infected stone** and would not address the patient's immediate and serious condition.
*Discharge home with oral antibiotics*
* Discharging a patient with **urosepsis** and an **obstructing kidney stone** with oral antibiotics is inappropriate and would lead to worsening of her condition and potentially septic shock.
* The patient requires **IV antibiotics** due to the severity of the infection and the need for prompt blood levels, as well as **urgent drainage** of the obstructed urinary system.
*Administer hydrochlorothiazide*
* **Hydrochlorothiazide** is a diuretic primarily used to treat **hypertension** and **calcium oxalate kidney stones** by reducing urinary calcium excretion.
* It is not indicated for the management of an acute, infected, obstructing kidney stone and would not resolve the patient's current severe symptoms or infection.
*Admit to hospital for IV antibiotics*
* While **IV antibiotics** are crucial for treating the severe urinary tract infection, **admitting for IV antibiotics alone** is insufficient given the presence of an **obstructing stone** causing hydronephrosis.
* The obstruction must be **relieved urgently** to allow drainage of infected urine, prevent treatment failure, and avoid further complications like renal abscess or sepsis.
Question 347: A 49-year-old sexually active woman presents with dysuria and urinary frequency. She denies any previous urinary tract infections (UTIs), but she says that her mother has had frequent UTIs. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, cervical cancer, and hypercholesterolemia. She currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day, drinks a glass of wine per day, and denies any illicit drug use. Her vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 87/min, and respiratory rate 17/min. On physical examination, her lung sounds are clear. She has a grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur heard best over the left upper sternal border. She also has tenderness in the suprapubic area. A urinalysis shows the presence of numerous leukocytes, leukocyte esterase, and nitrites. Which of the following factors would not classify a UTI as complicated?
A. The patient has nephrolithiasis
B. The patient has an indwelling catheter
C. The patient has diabetes
D. The causative organism is Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. The patient is a premenopausal woman (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***The patient is a premenopausal woman***
- Being a **premenopausal woman** with an otherwise uncomplicated lower UTI (cystitis) does NOT automatically classify the infection as complicated.
- **Uncomplicated cystitis** typically occurs in premenopausal, non-pregnant women without structural or functional urinary tract abnormalities.
- However, this patient DOES have diabetes, which would actually classify her UTI as complicated despite being premenopausal.
*The patient has an indwelling catheter*
- The presence of an **indwelling catheter** provides a foreign body and direct pathway for bacteria to enter the bladder, classifying the UTI as complicated.
- Catheter-associated UTIs are harder to treat and associated with increased morbidity.
*The patient has diabetes*
- **Diabetes mellitus** impairs immune function and can cause neurogenic bladder dysfunction, making UTIs in diabetic patients complicated.
- Diabetic patients have higher risk for severe infections including emphysematous cystitis and pyelonephritis.
*The causative organism is Pseudomonas aeruginosa*
- Infection with **multidrug-resistant organisms** like *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* indicates a complicated UTI requiring broader-spectrum antibiotics.
- *Pseudomonas* UTIs are typically healthcare-associated and suggest abnormal urinary tract or recent instrumentation.
*The patient has nephrolithiasis*
- **Nephrolithiasis (kidney stones)** causes urinary obstruction and provides a nidus for bacterial persistence, classifying the UTI as complicated.
- Obstructive uropathy prevents effective bacterial clearance and increases risk of urosepsis.
Question 348: A 34-year-old woman visits the physician with complaints of difficulty swallowing and recurrent vomiting for the past 6 months. She even noticed food particles in her vomit a few hours after eating her meals. She has lost about 3.0 kg (6.6 lb) over the past 4 months. Her history is significant for a trip to Argentina last year. Her past medical history is insignificant. She is a non-smoker. On examination, her blood pressure is 118/75 mm Hg, respirations are 17/min, pulse is 78/min, temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), and her BMI is 24 kg/m². There is no abdominal tenderness, distension, or evidence of jaundice. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Barium swallow study (Correct Answer)
B. Biopsy
C. Antibiotic therapy
D. Routine blood tests
E. Surgery
Explanation: ***Barium swallow study***
- The symptoms of **difficulty swallowing**, **recurrent vomiting** with undigested food hours after eating, and **weight loss** suggest an **esophageal motility disorder** like **achalasia**.
- The patient's history of travel to **Argentina** raises suspicion for **Chagas disease** (caused by *Trypanosoma cruzi*), which can cause **secondary achalasia** by destroying the myenteric plexus.
- A **barium swallow study** will show the characteristic **"bird's beak" appearance** with proximal esophageal dilation, which supports the diagnosis.
- Among the options listed, this is the **most appropriate imaging study** to evaluate suspected achalasia. (Note: **Esophageal manometry** is the gold standard confirmatory test but is not listed as an option here.)
*Incorrect: Biopsy*
- While endoscopy with biopsy might be considered to **rule out malignancy** or pseudoachalasia (cancer mimicking achalasia), it is **not the first-line diagnostic test** for suspected achalasia.
- Biopsy would be more appropriate if imaging revealed a mass or if there was suspicion for **eosinophilic esophagitis**.
*Incorrect: Antibiotic therapy*
- This patient's symptoms suggest a **mechanical obstruction or motility disorder**, not an acute bacterial infection.
- **Antibiotics have no role** in treating achalasia or Chagas disease in the chronic phase (the acute phase would present differently with fever and systemic symptoms).
*Incorrect: Routine blood tests*
- While **CBC and metabolic panel** may be part of the general workup to assess nutritional status and overall health, they **will not diagnose the cause of dysphagia**.
- Blood tests are **not the most appropriate next step** for establishing the esophageal pathology causing these symptoms.
*Incorrect: Surgery*
- **Surgery** (e.g., **Heller myotomy** or peroral endoscopic myotomy) is a **definitive treatment** for achalasia, not a diagnostic step.
- Surgery is indicated **after diagnosis is confirmed** and is typically reserved for patients who have failed medical management or have severe symptoms.
Question 349: A 40-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 5-month history of watery diarrhea and episodic crampy abdominal pain. He has no fever, nausea, or vomiting. Over the past 6 months, he has had a 1.8-kg (4-lb) weight loss, despite experiencing no decrease in appetite. His wife has noticed that sometimes his face and neck become red after meals or when he is in distress. A year ago, he was diagnosed with asthma. He has hypertension. Current medications include an albuterol inhaler and enalapril. He drinks one beer daily. His temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), pulse is 85/min, and blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. A grade 2/6 systolic murmur is heard best at the left sternal border and fourth intercostal space. The abdomen is soft, and there is mild tenderness to palpation with no guarding or rebound. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. A complete blood count is within the reference range. Without treatment, this patient is at greatest risk for which of the following conditions?
A. Asphyxia
B. Carcinoid heart disease (Correct Answer)
C. Dementia
D. Megaloblastic anemia
E. Intestinal fistula
Explanation: ***Carcinoid heart disease***
- This patient has **carcinoid syndrome**, evidenced by the classic triad of **watery diarrhea**, **cutaneous flushing** (face/neck redness), and **bronchospasm** (misdiagnosed as asthma).
- The **systolic murmur at the left sternal border** suggests early **right-sided valvular involvement**, which is the hallmark of carcinoid heart disease.
- **Carcinoid heart disease** occurs in **50-60% of patients** with carcinoid syndrome and is caused by **fibrotic plaques** on the **tricuspid and pulmonary valves** due to chronic serotonin exposure.
- Without treatment, this progresses to **right-sided heart failure** and is the **leading cause of morbidity and mortality** in carcinoid syndrome.
- The presence of a murmur indicates the process has already begun, making this the **greatest risk without treatment**.
*Intestinal fistula*
- Intestinal fistula formation is **not a typical complication** of carcinoid tumors, which are typically **slow-growing** neuroendocrine tumors.
- Fistulas are more commonly associated with **Crohn's disease**, **diverticulitis**, or **aggressive adenocarcinomas**, not carcinoid tumors.
- While carcinoid tumors can cause bowel obstruction, they rarely invade adjacent structures to form fistulas.
*Asphyxia*
- While carcinoid syndrome can cause **bronchospasm** (likely the cause of his "asthma"), acute asphyxia is not a common long-term complication.
- Bronchospasm in carcinoid syndrome is usually manageable and does not typically progress to life-threatening asphyxia.
*Dementia*
- **Pellagra** (niacin deficiency) can rarely occur in carcinoid syndrome because the tumor uses tryptophan to produce serotonin instead of niacin, and pellagra can cause dementia.
- However, this is a **rare complication** and not the greatest risk compared to carcinoid heart disease.
- Modern nutritional supplementation makes this even less likely.
*Megaloblastic anemia*
- **Megaloblastic anemia** results from **vitamin B12 or folate deficiency**.
- While chronic diarrhea could theoretically cause malabsorption, this is **not a characteristic complication** of carcinoid syndrome.
- This patient's CBC is normal, and megaloblastic anemia is not the primary concern in untreated carcinoid syndrome.
Question 350: A 52-year-old-woman presents to an urgent care clinic with right upper quadrant pain for the past few hours. She admits to having similar episodes of pain in the past but milder than today. Past medical history is insignificant. She took an antacid, but it did not help. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F ), respirations are 16/min, pulse is 78/min, and blood pressure is 122/98 mm Hg. Physical examination is normal, and she says that her pain has subsided. The urgent care provider suspects she has cholecystitis, so she undergoes a limited abdominal ultrasound to confirm it. However, no evidence of cholecystitis is seen with ultrasound, but adenomyomatosis of the gallbladder is incidentally noted. The patient has no clinical features suspicious for malignancy. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. No further treatment required (Correct Answer)
B. Barium swallow study
C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
D. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
E. Cholecystectomy
Explanation: ***No further treatment required***
- The patient's **RUQ pain** has subsided, and the ultrasound, while revealing **adenomyomatosis**, showed no signs of **acute cholecystitis** or malignancy. Given the resolution of symptoms and benign incidental finding, no immediate further treatment is indicated.
- **Adenomyomatosis** is a benign condition of the gallbladder characterized by hyperplasia of the gallbladder wall with intramural diverticula (Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses). In the absence of ongoing symptoms or suspicion of malignancy, it typically does not require intervention and is managed with observation only.
*Barium swallow study*
- A **barium swallow study** evaluates the **esophagus and stomach** and is not relevant for investigating gallbladder pathology or right upper quadrant pain.
- This study would be more appropriate for symptoms like **dysphagia**, odynophagia, or suspected esophageal strictures.
*Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography*
- **ERCP** is an invasive procedure primarily used for therapeutic interventions in the **biliary or pancreatic ducts**, such as stone removal or stent placement.
- It carries risks of **pancreatitis** and perforation and is not indicated for a patient with resolved symptoms and an incidental benign gallbladder finding.
*Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography*
- **MRCP** is a non-invasive imaging technique used to visualize the **biliary and pancreatic ducts** and is primarily indicated for suspected **choledocholithiasis** or **ductal abnormalities**.
- Since the patient's acute symptoms have resolved and the ultrasound was negative for choledocholithiasis, MRCP is not immediately necessary.
*Cholecystectomy*
- **Cholecystectomy** is the surgical removal of the gallbladder, typically reserved for symptomatic conditions like **cholelithiasis** causing recurrent pain or **acute cholecystitis**.
- Given that the patient's pain has resolved, and there is no evidence of acute inflammation or symptomatic gallstones, immediate surgery is unwarranted.