A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chief complaints of abdominal pain, distension, and bloody diarrhea for a day. Abdominal pain was episodic in nature and limited to the left lower quadrant. It was also associated with nausea and vomiting. He also has a history of postprandial abdominal pain for several months. He had an acute myocardial infarction which was treated with thrombolytics 3 months ago. He is a chronic smoker and has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus for 10 years. On physical examination, the patient is ill-looking with a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, pulse 100/min, respiratory rate of 22/min, temperature of 38.0°C (100.5°F) with oxygen saturation of 98% in room air. The abdomen is tender on palpation and distended. Rectal examination demonstrates bright red color stool. Leukocyte count is 14,000/mm3. Other biochemical tests were within normal ranges. Abdominal X-ray did not detect pneumoperitoneum or air-fluid level. The recent use of antibiotics was denied by the patient and stool culture was negative for C. difficile. Contrast-enhanced CT scan revealed segmental colitis involving the distal transverse colon. What is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?
Q322
A 39-year-old woman comes to the physician because of recurrent episodes of severe pain over her neck, back, and shoulders for the past year. The pain worsens with exercise and lack of sleep. Use of over-the-counter analgesics have not resolved her symptoms. She also has stiffness of the shoulders and knees and tingling in her upper extremities that is worse in the morning. She takes escitalopram for generalized anxiety disorder. She also has tension headaches several times a month. Her maternal uncle has ankylosing spondylitis. Examination shows marked tenderness over the posterior neck, bilateral mid trapezius, and medial aspect of the left knee. Muscle strength is normal. Laboratory studies, including a complete blood count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and thyroid-stimulating hormone are within the reference ranges. X-rays of her cervical and lumbar spine show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q323
A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for fatigue. He is accompanied by his granddaughter who is worried that the patient is depressed. She states that over the past 2 months he has lost 15 lbs. He has not come to some family events because he complains of being “too tired.” The patient states that he tries to keep up with things he likes to do like biking and bowling with his friends but just tires too easily. He does not feel like he has trouble sleeping. He does agree that he has lost weight due to a decreased appetite. The patient has coronary artery disease and osteoarthritis. He has not been to a doctor in “years” and takes no medications, except acetaminophen as needed. Physical examination is notable for hepatomegaly. Routine labs are obtained, as shown below:
Leukocyte count: 11,000/mm^3
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Platelet count: 300,000/mm^3
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 75 µm^3
Serum iron: 35 mcg/dL
An abdominal ultrasound reveals multiple, hypoechoic liver lesions. Computed tomography of the abdomen confirms multiple, centrally-located, hypoattenuated lesions. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Q324
A 24-year-old woman presents with generalized edema, hematuria, and severe right-sided flank pain. Her vital signs are normal. A 24-hour urine collection shows >10 grams of protein in her urine. Serum LDH is markedly elevated. Contrast-enhanced spiral CT scan shows thrombosis of the right renal vein. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism behind this thrombosis?
Q325
An 81-year-old man is brought in by his neighbor with altered mental status. The patient's neighbor is unsure exactly how long he was alone, but estimates that it was at least 3 days. The neighbor says that the patient usually has his daughter at home to look after him but she had to go into the hospital recently. The patient is unable to provide any useful history. Past medical history is significant for long-standing hypercholesterolemia and hypertension, managed medically with rosuvastatin and hydrochlorothiazide, respectively. His vital signs include: blood pressure, 140/95 mm Hg; pulse, 106/min; temperature, 37.2°C (98.9°F); and respiratory rate, 19/min. On physical examination, the patient is confused and unable to respond to commands. His mucus membranes are dry and he has tenting of the skin. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Sodium 141 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Chloride 111 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 21 mEq/L
BUN 40 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL
Glucose (fasting) 80 mg/dL
Magnesium 1.9 mg/dL
Calcium 9.3 mg/dL
Phosphorous 3.6 mg/dL
24-hour urine collection
Urine Sodium 169 mEq/24 hr (ref: 100–260 mEq/24 hr)
Urine Creatinine 0.795 g/24 hr (ref: 1.0–1.6 g/24 hr)
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's acute renal failure?
Q326
A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with anxiety and trouble swallowing. He states that his symptoms have slowly been getting worse over the past year, and he now struggles to swallow liquids. He recently recovered from the flu. Review of systems is notable only for recent weight loss. The patient has a 33 pack-year smoking history and is a former alcoholic. Physical exam is notable for poor dental hygiene and foul breath. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q327
A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increased urinary frequency for the past 3 days. The patient reports that he has had to get up every few hours in the night to go to the bathroom, and says "whenever I feel the urge I have to go right away.” Past medical history is significant for a chlamydial infection in his twenties that was adequately treated. He endorses lower back pain and subjective warmth for the past 2 days. A rectal examination reveals a slightly enlarged prostate that is tender to palpation. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
Q328
A 70-year-old man comes to the physician because of intermittent shortness of breath while going up stairs and walking his dog. It began about 1 month ago and seems to be getting worse. He has also developed a dry cough. He has not had any wheezing, fevers, chills, recent weight loss, or shortness of breath at rest. He has a history of Hodgkin lymphoma, for which he was treated with chemotherapy and radiation to the chest 7 years ago. He also has hypertension, for which he takes lisinopril. Ten years ago, he retired from work in the shipbuilding industry. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily since the age of 21. Vital signs are within normal limits. On lung auscultation, there are mild bibasilar crackles. A plain x-ray of the chest shows bilateral ground-glass opacities at the lung bases and bilateral calcified pleural plaques. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for this patient's current condition?
Q329
A 68-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increasing heartburn for the last few months. During this period, she has taken ranitidine several times a day without relief and has lost 10 kg (22 lbs). She has retrosternal pressure and burning with every meal. She has had heartburn for several years and took ranitidine as needed. She has hypertension. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 40 years and drinks one glass of wine occasionally. Other current medications include amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide. She appears pale. Her height is 163 cm (5 ft 4 in), her weight is 75 kg (165 lbs), BMI is 27.5 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.96°F), pulse is 78/min, and blood pressure is 135/80 mm Hg. Cardiovascular examination shows no abnormalities. Abdominal examination shows mild tenderness to palpation in the epigastric region. Bowel sounds are normal. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 78 μm
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin 23 pg/cell
Leukocyte count 9,500/mm3
Platelet count 330,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 137 mEq/L
K+ 3.8 mEq/L
Cl- 100 mEq/L
HCO3- 25 mEq/L
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase 260 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase 18 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase 15 U/L
Lipase (N < 280 U/L) 40 U/L
Troponin I (N < 0.1 ng/mL) 0.029 ng/mL
An ECG shows normal sinus rhythm without ST-T changes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q330
A 27-year-old African American male presents to his family physician for “spots” on his foot. Yesterday, he noticed brown spots on his foot that have a whitish rim around them. The skin lesions are not painful, but he got particularly concerned when he found similar lesions on his penis that appear wet. He recalls having pain with urination for the last 4 weeks, but he did not seek medical attention until now. He also has joint pain in his right knee which started this week. He is sexually active with a new partner and uses condoms inconsistently. His physician prescribes a topical glucocorticoid to treat his lesions. Which of the following risk factors is most commonly implicated in the development of this condition?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 321: A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chief complaints of abdominal pain, distension, and bloody diarrhea for a day. Abdominal pain was episodic in nature and limited to the left lower quadrant. It was also associated with nausea and vomiting. He also has a history of postprandial abdominal pain for several months. He had an acute myocardial infarction which was treated with thrombolytics 3 months ago. He is a chronic smoker and has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus for 10 years. On physical examination, the patient is ill-looking with a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, pulse 100/min, respiratory rate of 22/min, temperature of 38.0°C (100.5°F) with oxygen saturation of 98% in room air. The abdomen is tender on palpation and distended. Rectal examination demonstrates bright red color stool. Leukocyte count is 14,000/mm3. Other biochemical tests were within normal ranges. Abdominal X-ray did not detect pneumoperitoneum or air-fluid level. The recent use of antibiotics was denied by the patient and stool culture was negative for C. difficile. Contrast-enhanced CT scan revealed segmental colitis involving the distal transverse colon. What is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?
A. Clostridium difficile infection
B. Atherosclerosis (Correct Answer)
C. Embolism
D. Hypokalemia
E. Aneurysm
Explanation: ***Atherosclerosis***
- The patient's history of **acute myocardial infarction**, **smoking**, and **diabetes mellitus** are significant risk factors for widespread **atherosclerosis**, including mesenteric arteries.
- The symptoms of **postprandial abdominal pain** (intestinal angina) and episodic and severe abdominal pain with bloody diarrhea are consistent with **chronic mesenteric ischemia** progressing to **acute mesenteric ischemia** due to atherosclerotic narrowing or occlusion of mesenteric vessels.
*Clostridium difficile infection*
- This is less likely given the denial of recent antibiotic use and a **negative stool culture for C. difficile**, which are key diagnostic indicators.
- While *C. difficile* can cause colitis with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea, the chronicity of postprandial pain and the acute cardiovascular risk factors point away from this diagnosis.
*Embolism*
- While an acute **mesenteric embolism** can cause similar acute symptoms, the preceding history of **postprandial abdominal pain** makes chronic mesenteric ischemia due to atherosclerosis a more likely underlying cause.
- An embolic event often presents more acutely without a long history of intestinal angina.
*Hypokalemia*
- **Hypokalemia** can lead to **ileus** and abdominal distension, but it typically does not cause **bloody diarrhea** or the acute, severe abdominal pain described.
- It would not explain the chronic postprandial abdominal pain or the patient's cardiovascular risk factors in this context.
*Aneurysm*
- While an **abdominal aortic aneurysm** can cause abdominal pain, it typically presents differently, often as a pulsatile mass or back pain.
- It would not directly explain the **bloody diarrhea** or the chronic postprandial abdominal pain consistent with intestinal ischemia.
Question 322: A 39-year-old woman comes to the physician because of recurrent episodes of severe pain over her neck, back, and shoulders for the past year. The pain worsens with exercise and lack of sleep. Use of over-the-counter analgesics have not resolved her symptoms. She also has stiffness of the shoulders and knees and tingling in her upper extremities that is worse in the morning. She takes escitalopram for generalized anxiety disorder. She also has tension headaches several times a month. Her maternal uncle has ankylosing spondylitis. Examination shows marked tenderness over the posterior neck, bilateral mid trapezius, and medial aspect of the left knee. Muscle strength is normal. Laboratory studies, including a complete blood count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and thyroid-stimulating hormone are within the reference ranges. X-rays of her cervical and lumbar spine show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Axial spondyloarthritis
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Polymyalgia rheumatica
D. Fibromyalgia (Correct Answer)
E. Polymyositis
Explanation: ***Fibromyalgia***
- This patient presents with **chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain** (neck, back, shoulders, stiffness in shoulders and knees) and **fatigue, sleep disturbance, and cognitive dysfunction** (tingling, morning stiffness, worsening with lack of sleep).
- The presence of **multiple tender points** on examination (posterior neck, bilateral mid trapezius, medial aspect of left knee) in the absence of objective inflammation (normal ESR, normal imaging) strongly points to fibromyalgia.
*Axial spondyloarthritis*
- While there is a family history of ankylosing spondylitis, this patient's pain is widespread and not typically inflammatory back pain characterized by improvement with exercise and worsening with rest.
- Absence of **sacroiliitis** on imaging and normal inflammatory markers make this diagnosis less likely.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While depression and anxiety are often comorbid with fibromyalgia, the primary clinical picture is dominated by the **chronic pain and tender points**, rather than purely mood disturbances.
- The patient is already on escitalopram, which would typically alleviate some somatic symptoms if depression were the sole cause.
*Polymyalgia rheumatica*
- Typically affects individuals **over 50 years old** and is characterized by **proximal muscle pain and stiffness**, often accompanied by **elevated ESR**.
- This patient is 39 years old and has normal ESR.
*Polymyositis*
- Characterized by **proximal muscle weakness** and elevated muscle enzymes (e.g., CK), which are not described in this patient.
- The patient has normal muscle strength and the primary complaint is pain and tenderness, not weakness.
Question 323: A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for fatigue. He is accompanied by his granddaughter who is worried that the patient is depressed. She states that over the past 2 months he has lost 15 lbs. He has not come to some family events because he complains of being “too tired.” The patient states that he tries to keep up with things he likes to do like biking and bowling with his friends but just tires too easily. He does not feel like he has trouble sleeping. He does agree that he has lost weight due to a decreased appetite. The patient has coronary artery disease and osteoarthritis. He has not been to a doctor in “years” and takes no medications, except acetaminophen as needed. Physical examination is notable for hepatomegaly. Routine labs are obtained, as shown below:
Leukocyte count: 11,000/mm^3
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Platelet count: 300,000/mm^3
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 75 µm^3
Serum iron: 35 mcg/dL
An abdominal ultrasound reveals multiple, hypoechoic liver lesions. Computed tomography of the abdomen confirms multiple, centrally-located, hypoattenuated lesions. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
A. Fluorouracil, leucovorin, and oxaliplatin
B. Citalopram
C. Colonoscopy (Correct Answer)
D. Surgical resection
E. Fine-needle aspiration
Explanation: ***Colonoscopy***
- The patient presents with **fatigue**, unexplained **weight loss**, **anemia** (Hb 9 g/dL, MCV 75 µm^3, likely **iron deficiency** due to chronic blood loss), and **hepatomegaly** with suspicious liver lesions. These findings are highly concerning for **metastatic colorectal cancer**.
- A **colonoscopy** is the next best step to identify the primary tumor, which is crucial for diagnosis and staging, especially given the evidence of liver metastases.
*Fluorouracil, leucovorin, and oxaliplatin*
- This is a combination chemotherapy regimen (FOLFOX) used for treating **metastatic colorectal cancer**, but it's premature to initiate treatment without a confirmed diagnosis and primary tumor identification.
- While highly suspected, a definitive diagnosis via biopsy of the primary tumor is essential before starting chemotherapy.
*Citalopram*
- This is an **antidepressant** (SSRI) used to treat depression. Although the patient's granddaughter is concerned about depression, the patient's symptoms (fatigue, weight loss, anemia, hepatomegaly) are more indicative of an underlying organic medical condition like malignancy rather than primary depression.
- Addressing the underlying medical cause should take precedence before considering antidepressant therapy.
*Surgical resection*
- **Surgical resection** is a treatment modality for colorectal cancer, potentially including liver metastases. However, performing surgery before identifying the primary tumor and establishing the stage of the disease is inappropriate.
- The extent of disease must be fully assessed to determine if the patient is a candidate for surgical intervention, especially given the apparent multiple liver lesions.
*Fine-needle aspiration*
- While **fine-needle aspiration (FNA)** of the liver lesions could provide a diagnosis of metastatic adenocarcinoma, it does not identify the **primary source** of the cancer.
- Identifying the primary tumor through colonoscopy is crucial for complete staging, genetic testing, and determining the optimal treatment strategy for colorectal cancer.
Question 324: A 24-year-old woman presents with generalized edema, hematuria, and severe right-sided flank pain. Her vital signs are normal. A 24-hour urine collection shows >10 grams of protein in her urine. Serum LDH is markedly elevated. Contrast-enhanced spiral CT scan shows thrombosis of the right renal vein. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism behind this thrombosis?
A. Hereditary factor VIII deficiency
B. Urinary loss of antithrombin III (Correct Answer)
C. Oral contraceptive pills
D. Severe dehydration
E. Hepatic synthetic failure
Explanation: ***Urinary loss of antithrombin III***
- The patient's presentation with **generalized edema**, **massive proteinuria (>10g/24hr)**, and **renal vein thrombosis** is classic for **nephrotic syndrome**.
- In nephrotic syndrome, the damaged glomerular basement membrane allows for the urinary loss of anticoagulant proteins, particularly **antithrombin III**, which increases the risk of **thromboembolic events**, including renal vein thrombosis.
*Hereditary factor VIII deficiency*
- Hereditary factor VIII deficiency is synonymous with **hemophilia A**, a **bleeding disorder** characterized by spontaneous or prolonged bleeding.
- This condition is associated with a **reduced ability to form clots**, directly contradicting the thrombosis observed in this patient.
*Oral contraceptive pills*
- Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) can increase the risk of thrombosis by altering the **balance of coagulation factors**, leading to a **hypercoagulable state**.
- While OCPs are a risk factor for thrombosis, the patient's prominent **nephrotic syndrome** with massive proteinuria points to a more specific mechanism related to protein loss.
*Severe dehydration*
- Severe dehydration leads to **hemoconcentration** (increased blood viscosity), which can contribute to a hypercoagulable state and increase the risk of thrombosis.
- However, the patient's presentation with **generalized edema** and **massive proteinuria** is inconsistent with severe dehydration, as edema indicates fluid retention.
*Hepatic synthetic failure*
- Hepatic synthetic failure, in severe cases, can impair the liver's production of various clotting factors and anticoagulant proteins, leading to either a bleeding or thrombotic tendency depending on the specific deficiencies.
- While the liver produces antithrombin III, the primary cause of its deficiency in this scenario is **urinary loss due to heavy proteinuria**, not a failure of hepatic synthesis.
Question 325: An 81-year-old man is brought in by his neighbor with altered mental status. The patient's neighbor is unsure exactly how long he was alone, but estimates that it was at least 3 days. The neighbor says that the patient usually has his daughter at home to look after him but she had to go into the hospital recently. The patient is unable to provide any useful history. Past medical history is significant for long-standing hypercholesterolemia and hypertension, managed medically with rosuvastatin and hydrochlorothiazide, respectively. His vital signs include: blood pressure, 140/95 mm Hg; pulse, 106/min; temperature, 37.2°C (98.9°F); and respiratory rate, 19/min. On physical examination, the patient is confused and unable to respond to commands. His mucus membranes are dry and he has tenting of the skin. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Sodium 141 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Chloride 111 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 21 mEq/L
BUN 40 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL
Glucose (fasting) 80 mg/dL
Magnesium 1.9 mg/dL
Calcium 9.3 mg/dL
Phosphorous 3.6 mg/dL
24-hour urine collection
Urine Sodium 169 mEq/24 hr (ref: 100–260 mEq/24 hr)
Urine Creatinine 0.795 g/24 hr (ref: 1.0–1.6 g/24 hr)
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's acute renal failure?
A. Sepsis
B. Acute tubular necrosis
C. Dehydration (Correct Answer)
D. NSAID use
E. UTI due to obstructive nephrolithiasis
Explanation: ***Dehydration***
- The patient's presentation with **dry mucous membranes**, **skin tenting**, **elevated BUN/creatinine ratio** (40/1.4 = 28.5, typically seen if > 20), and a **history of being alone for at least 3 days** strongly suggests dehydration as the cause of acute renal failure.
- The elevated pulse rate and use of a diuretic (hydrochlorothiazide) further support significant **volume depletion**.
*Sepsis*
- While sepsis can cause acute kidney injury, there are no specific signs of infection such as **fever (temperature is normal)** or a clear source like pneumonia or urinary tract infection.
- The primary clinical signs all point towards hypovolemia rather than a systemic inflammatory response.
*Acute tubular necrosis*
- **Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)** typically results from prolonged severe ischemia or nephrotoxins, and while dehydration can lead to it, the current lab pattern (high BUN/creatinine ratio) is more indicative of **pre-renal azotemia**.
- In ATN, the urine sodium is usually **high** (>40 mEq/L) due to tubular damage, but here it is 169 mEq/24 hr, which is within the normal range for 24-hour excretion, and specific gravity would be low, indicating inability to concentrate urine, which is not provided.
*NSAID use*
- There is **no history of NSAID use** mentioned in the patient's medication list or history.
- NSAID-induced acute kidney injury often presents with interstitial nephritis or hemodynamic changes, which are not the primary features here.
*UTI due to obstructive nephrolithiasis*
- There are **no symptoms or signs of a urinary tract infection**, such as dysuria, frequency, or fever.
- **Obstructive nephrolithiasis** would typically cause acute onset flank pain, hematuria, and oliguria, none of which are described.
Question 326: A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with anxiety and trouble swallowing. He states that his symptoms have slowly been getting worse over the past year, and he now struggles to swallow liquids. He recently recovered from the flu. Review of systems is notable only for recent weight loss. The patient has a 33 pack-year smoking history and is a former alcoholic. Physical exam is notable for poor dental hygiene and foul breath. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Viral-induced gastroparesis
B. Squamous cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
C. Globus hystericus
D. Zenker diverticulum
E. Achalasia
Explanation: ***Squamous cell carcinoma***
- The patient's presentation with **progressive dysphagia** (now including liquids), **weight loss**, and significant risk factors like a **33 pack-year smoking history** and **former alcoholism** strongly suggest **advanced esophageal squamous cell carcinoma**.
- Esophageal cancer typically causes dysphagia to **solids first**, but as the tumor progresses and causes more complete obstruction, **liquids become affected**, indicating **advanced disease**.
- **Poor dental hygiene** and **foul breath** can be associated with oral and upper GI tract cancers, potentially due to necrotic tissue, food stasis, or associated infections.
- The patient's age (67) and heavy smoking/alcohol exposure make malignancy the most concerning diagnosis.
*Achalasia*
- **Achalasia** is characterized by the **failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax** and the **loss of peristalsis**, leading to dysphagia for **both solids and liquids from the outset**.
- While this patient does have dysphagia to liquids, the **progressive nature** (worse over a year), **weight loss**, significant **smoking and alcohol history**, and **age 67** make esophageal cancer far more likely.
- Achalasia typically presents in younger patients (20s-40s) and has a more gradual, chronic course without the concerning risk factors seen here.
*Zenker diverticulum*
- A **Zenker diverticulum** can cause **dysphagia**, **regurgitation of undigested food**, and **halitosis** (foul breath) due to food trapped in the pharyngeal pouch.
- However, the patient's prominent risk factors for cancer (smoking, alcohol), **progressive dysphagia to liquids**, and **weight loss** without explicit mention of regurgitation make carcinoma more likely in this case.
*Viral-induced gastroparesis*
- This condition is characterized by **delayed gastric emptying**, typically presenting with *nausea*, *vomiting*, *early satiety*, and *bloating*.
- **Gastroparesis does not cause dysphagia** (difficulty swallowing), as it affects gastric motility, not esophageal function.
- While the patient recently had the flu, the primary symptom of **progressive dysphagia** points to an esophageal pathology, not a gastric motility disorder.
*Globus hystericus*
- **Globus sensation** (formerly globus hystericus) is the feeling of a **lump in the throat** without actual obstruction, often worsened by stress or anxiety.
- It does not cause **progressive dysphagia to liquids** or **weight loss**, which are hallmarks of organic disease in this patient.
- The presence of "red flag" symptoms (weight loss, progressive course, age, risk factors) rules out this functional disorder.
Question 327: A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increased urinary frequency for the past 3 days. The patient reports that he has had to get up every few hours in the night to go to the bathroom, and says "whenever I feel the urge I have to go right away.” Past medical history is significant for a chlamydial infection in his twenties that was adequately treated. He endorses lower back pain and subjective warmth for the past 2 days. A rectal examination reveals a slightly enlarged prostate that is tender to palpation. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
A. Prostatic adenocarcinoma
B. Reinfection with Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Infection with Escherichia coli (Correct Answer)
D. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
E. Chemical irritation of the prostate
Explanation: ***Infection with Escherichia coli***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of **acute bacterial prostatitis**, including increased urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, lower back pain, subjective fever (warmth), and a tender, slightly enlarged prostate on rectal exam.
- **Escherichia coli** is the most common causative organism for acute bacterial prostatitis, often ascending from the urethra.
*Prostatic adenocarcinoma*
- While prostatic adenocarcinoma can cause urinary symptoms, it typically presents with a **hard, nodular, and irregular prostate** on rectal exam, not a tender one.
- **Systemic symptoms** like fever or warmth are not typically associated with early-stage prostate cancer.
*Reinfection with Chlamydia trachomatis*
- Although Chlamydia can cause **epididymitis or prostatitis**, the patient's symptoms (acute onset, fever, tender prostate) are more consistent with bacterial prostatitis, commonly caused by E. coli in older men.
- While a sexually transmitted infection, reinfection would be less likely to cause such an acute and severe presentation without additional risk factors or exposure.
*Benign prostatic hyperplasia*
- **BPH** causes similar obstructive and irritative urinary symptoms (frequency, nocturia, urgency) but usually presents with a **smooth, enlarged, non-tender prostate** on rectal exam.
- **Fever and tenderness** are not characteristic features of BPH and suggest an inflammatory or infectious process.
*Chemical irritation of the prostate*
- **Chemical irritation** might cause urinary symptoms but would typically not be associated with **fever, lower back pain, or a tender prostate** on examination.
- There is no clear history in this patient suggesting exposure to irritants that would cause chemical prostatitis.
Question 328: A 70-year-old man comes to the physician because of intermittent shortness of breath while going up stairs and walking his dog. It began about 1 month ago and seems to be getting worse. He has also developed a dry cough. He has not had any wheezing, fevers, chills, recent weight loss, or shortness of breath at rest. He has a history of Hodgkin lymphoma, for which he was treated with chemotherapy and radiation to the chest 7 years ago. He also has hypertension, for which he takes lisinopril. Ten years ago, he retired from work in the shipbuilding industry. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily since the age of 21. Vital signs are within normal limits. On lung auscultation, there are mild bibasilar crackles. A plain x-ray of the chest shows bilateral ground-glass opacities at the lung bases and bilateral calcified pleural plaques. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for this patient's current condition?
A. Family history
B. Smoking
C. Radiation therapy
D. Occupational exposure (Correct Answer)
E. Advanced age
Explanation: ***Occupational exposure***
- The patient's history of working in the **shipbuilding industry** and the presence of **calcified pleural plaques** strongly suggest **asbestosis**, a chronic lung disease caused by inhaling asbestos fibers.
- **Asbestosis** typically presents with **progressive shortness of breath** and a **dry cough**, along with bibasilar crackles and ground-glass opacities, consistent with the patient's symptoms and chest X-ray findings.
*Family history*
- While genetics can play a role in some interstitial lung diseases (e.g., familial pulmonary fibrosis), there is no specific family history mentioned that would strongly link it to the patient's present illness.
- The patient's presentation with **pleural plaques** points away from a primary genetic cause and towards environmental exposure.
*Smoking*
- Smoking is a risk factor for various lung conditions, including **emphysema** and **lung cancer**, and can exacerbate other lung diseases. However, the presence of **pleural plaques** is not caused by smoking.
- While smoking can worsen the prognosis of asbestos-related diseases, it is not the primary cause of the pleural plaques or the most likely underlying condition in this specific clinical picture.
*Radiation therapy*
- **Radiation pneumonitis** and **fibrosis** can occur following chest radiation, and the patient received radiation for Hodgkin lymphoma 7 years ago. However, the **calcified pleural plaques** are highly characteristic of asbestos exposure, not radiation.
- Radiation-induced lung changes are typically more localized to the irradiated field and would not specifically cause pleural plaques.
*Advanced age*
- While the incidence of many chronic diseases increases with age, age itself is not a specific risk factor for the characteristic findings of **calcified pleural plaques** and the described clinical picture.
- The presence of specific radiological findings (pleural plaques) strongly points to an environmental exposure rather than simply advanced age.
Question 329: A 68-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increasing heartburn for the last few months. During this period, she has taken ranitidine several times a day without relief and has lost 10 kg (22 lbs). She has retrosternal pressure and burning with every meal. She has had heartburn for several years and took ranitidine as needed. She has hypertension. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 40 years and drinks one glass of wine occasionally. Other current medications include amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide. She appears pale. Her height is 163 cm (5 ft 4 in), her weight is 75 kg (165 lbs), BMI is 27.5 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.96°F), pulse is 78/min, and blood pressure is 135/80 mm Hg. Cardiovascular examination shows no abnormalities. Abdominal examination shows mild tenderness to palpation in the epigastric region. Bowel sounds are normal. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 78 μm
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin 23 pg/cell
Leukocyte count 9,500/mm3
Platelet count 330,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 137 mEq/L
K+ 3.8 mEq/L
Cl- 100 mEq/L
HCO3- 25 mEq/L
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase 260 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase 18 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase 15 U/L
Lipase (N < 280 U/L) 40 U/L
Troponin I (N < 0.1 ng/mL) 0.029 ng/mL
An ECG shows normal sinus rhythm without ST-T changes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. 24-hour esophageal pH monitoring
B. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (Correct Answer)
C. Barium swallow
D. Trial of proton-pump inhibitor
E. Esophageal manometry
Explanation: ***Esophagogastroduodenoscopy***
- This patient presents with **alarm symptoms** (weight loss, iron deficiency anemia, persistent heartburn unresponsive to ranitidine) that warrant an immediate investigation for underlying malignancy or severe mucosal damage.
- **EGD directly visualizes the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum**, allowing for biopsies of suspicious lesions, which is crucial given her risk factors (smoking, chronic GERD, age).
*24-hour esophageal pH monitoring*
- This test is primarily used to **diagnose GERD** in patients with typical symptoms but normal endoscopy, or to guide treatment for refractory GERD.
- It is not the appropriate first step here because the patient has alarm symptoms, which necessitate direct visualization and biopsy to rule out serious pathology.
*Barium swallow*
- A barium swallow can identify **structural abnormalities** such as strictures, diverticula, or large masses but has limited utility for detecting subtle mucosal changes or early malignancy.
- It does not allow for **biopsy**, which is essential for definitive diagnosis in a patient with alarm symptoms.
*Trial of proton-pump inhibitor*
- A trial of PPIs is appropriate for patients with **typical GERD symptoms** without alarm features, as a diagnostic and therapeutic intervention.
- However, this patient has already tried ranitidine (an H2 blocker) without relief and exhibits multiple **alarm symptoms**, making empirical treatment insufficient and potentially dangerous by delaying diagnosis.
*Esophageal manometry*
- Esophageal manometry assesses **esophageal motility** and sphincter function, useful for diagnosing motility disorders like achalasia or diffuse esophageal spasm.
- It is indicated if a motility disorder is suspected, usually *after* ruling out structural causes with EGD, and does not address the immediate concern of underlying malignancy or severe damage raised by the patient's alarm symptoms.
Question 330: A 27-year-old African American male presents to his family physician for “spots” on his foot. Yesterday, he noticed brown spots on his foot that have a whitish rim around them. The skin lesions are not painful, but he got particularly concerned when he found similar lesions on his penis that appear wet. He recalls having pain with urination for the last 4 weeks, but he did not seek medical attention until now. He also has joint pain in his right knee which started this week. He is sexually active with a new partner and uses condoms inconsistently. His physician prescribes a topical glucocorticoid to treat his lesions. Which of the following risk factors is most commonly implicated in the development of this condition?
A. Increased CRP serum levels
B. Co-infection with HIV
C. Diagnosis with psoriasis
D. HLA B27 allele (Correct Answer)
E. Race
Explanation: ***HLA B27 allele***
- The patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **Reactive Arthritis** (Reiter's Syndrome), characterized by the triad of **urethritis**, **arthritis**, and **conjunctivitis** (though conjunctivitis is not explicitly stated, the penile lesions and joint pain fit the profile). The characteristic **"spots" on his foot with a whitish rim** sound like **keratoderma blennorrhagicum**, a skin manifestation often seen in reactive arthritis. The penile lesions appearing wet are consistent with **circinate balanitis**, another classic skin finding.
- The **HLA B27 allele** is strongly associated with an increased risk for developing **reactive arthritis**, particularly following certain infections.
*Increased CRP serum levels*
- **Increased CRP (C-reactive protein)** levels are a non-specific marker of inflammation and would be expected in reactive arthritis.
- However, CRP elevation is a consequence of the disease process, not a **risk factor** for its development.
*Co-infection with HIV*
- While HIV co-infection can alter the course or presentation of reactive arthritis (e.g., more severe skin lesions or less responsive to treatment), it is not a primary **risk factor** for its initial development.
- The underlying trigger for reactive arthritis is usually a specific infection in genetically susceptible individuals, not HIV itself creating susceptibility.
*Diagnosis with psoriasis*
- **Psoriasis** is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that can be associated with **psoriatic arthritis**, a distinct spondyloarthropathy.
- However, the patient's presentation with preceding urethritis and specific skin lesions like keratoderma blennorrhagicum and circinate balanitis points more strongly to reactive arthritis, not psoriasis.
*Race*
- While certain autoimmune conditions have higher prevalence in specific racial groups, **race itself is not a direct risk factor** for developing reactive arthritis.
- The primary risk factor is genetic predisposition (**HLA-B27**) coupled with a triggering infection, which can affect individuals of various ethnic backgrounds.