A 43-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of abdominal pain for the past 6 months. She reports that the pain is localized to her lower abdomen and often resolves with bowel movements. She states that some days she has diarrhea while other times she will go 4-5 days without having a bowel movement. She started a gluten-free diet in hopes that it would help her symptoms, but she has not noticed much improvement. She denies nausea, vomiting, hematochezia, or melena. Her medical history is significant for generalized anxiety disorder and hypothyroidism. Her father has a history of colon cancer. The patient takes citalopram and levothyroxine. Physical examination reveals mild abdominal tenderness with palpation of lower quadrant but no guarding or rebound. A guaiac test is negative. A complete blood count is pending. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Q312
A 30-year-old caucasian female comes to the physician because of chronic diarrhea and abdominal bloating that started 6 months ago. She also reports increasing fatigue and intermittent tingling in her hands and feet. She lost 5 kg (11 lb) of weight over the past 6 months without changing her diet or trying to lose weight. She and her husband have been trying to conceive for over a year without any success. Menses have been irregular at 28–45 day intervals and last for 1–2 days. She has generalized anxiety disorder for which she takes sertraline. Her height is 151 cm and weight is 50 kg; BMI is 22 kg/m2. Examination shows generalized pallor. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 3900/mm3
Platelet count 130,000/mm3
Serum
Glucose 100 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.6 mg/dL
Thyroid-stimulating hormone 3.3 μU/mL
Vitamin B12 80 pg/mL (N > 200)
IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody negative
Serum IgA decreased
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Q313
An 80-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of anemia. His medical history is relevant for end-stage renal disease and aortic stenosis. When questioned about his bowel movements, the patient mentions that he has occasional episodes of loose, maroon-colored stools. His heart rate is 78/min, respiratory rate is 17/min, temperature is 36.6°C (97.8°F), and blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. Physical examination shows pale skin and conjunctiva and orthostasis upon standing. A complete blood count shows his hemoglobin is 8.7 g/dL, hematocrit is 27%, and mean corpuscular volume is 76 μm³. A colonoscopy is obtained. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
Q314
A 74-year-old woman with a past medical history of hypertension, peripheral artery disease, and migraine headaches presents to the emergency department with a two hour history of severe abdominal pain. The patient cannot recall any similar episodes, although she notes occasional abdominal discomfort after eating. She describes the pain as sharp periumbilical pain. She denies recent illness, fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. Her last normal bowel movement was yesterday evening. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 110/min, blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg, and respirations are 20/min. On exam, the patient is grimacing and appears to be in significant discomfort. Heart and lung exams are within normal limits. The patient's abdomen is soft and non-distended with diffuse periumbilical pain on palpation. There is no rebound tenderness or guarding, and bowel sounds are present. The rest of the exam is unremarkable. Labs in the emergency room show:
Serum:
Na+: 144 mEq/L
Cl-: 105 mEq/L
K+: 3.7 mEq/L
HCO3-: 20 mEq/L
BUN: 15 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.7 mg/dL
Phosphorus: 5.2 mg/dL
Lactate: 7.0 mmol/L
Amylase: 240 U/L
Hemoglobin: 13.4 g/dL
Hematocrit: 35%
Leukocyte count: 12,100 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 405,000/mm^3
What is the next best step in diagnosis?
Q315
A 25-year-old man comes to the physician for a 2-month history of abdominal discomfort, fatigue, and increased urinary frequency, especially at night. He has also noticed that despite eating more often he has lost 14-lbs (6-kg). He has a congenital solitary kidney and a history of Hashimoto thyroiditis, for which he takes levothyroxine. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 10 years. BMI is 18 kg/m2. His temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Serum studies show an osmolality of 305 mOsm/L and bicarbonate of 17 mEq/L. Urinalysis shows clear-colored urine with no organisms. Which of the following is most likely to be helpful in establishing the diagnosis?
Q316
A 52-year-old male presents with several months of fatigue, malaise, dry cough, and occasional episodes of painless hematuria. He recalls having had a sore throat several days prior to the onset of these symptoms that resolved without antibiotics. Physical exam is remarkable for diffusely coarse breath sounds bilaterally. Urinalysis reveals 2+ protein, 2+ blood, and numerous red blood cell casts are visible under light microscopy. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Q317
A 42-year-old woman presents with exertional dyspnea and fatigue for the past 3 months. Her past medical history is significant for multiple episodes of mild diarrhea for many years, which was earlier diagnosed as irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She denies any current significant gastrointestinal symptoms. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals oral aphthous ulcers and mild conjunctival pallor. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. There is a rash present on the peripheral extremities bilaterally (see image). Laboratory findings are significant for evidence of microcytic hypochromic anemia. FOBT is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q318
A 45-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is brought to the physician because of a 3-week history of nausea, abdominal pain, and confusion. She has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease treated with over-the-counter antacids. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her only medication is metformin. Her pulse is 86/min and blood pressure is 142/85 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft abdomen. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
pH 7.46
PCO2 44 mm Hg
PO2 94 mm Hg
HCO3- 30 mEq/L
An ECG shows a QT interval corrected for heart rate (QTc) of 0.36 seconds (N = 0.40–0.44). The serum concentration of which of the following substances is most likely to be increased in this patient?
Q319
A previously healthy 31-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of acute onset of left flank pain radiating to his inner groin and scrotum for 3 hours. He also had nausea and one episode of hematuria. His only medication is a multivitamin. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 104/min, respirations are 19/min, and blood pressure is 132/85 mm Hg. Physical examination shows marked tenderness in the left costovertebral area. He has normal skin turgor, a capillary refill time of < 1 second, and has been urinating normally. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
Phosphorus 4.3 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 15 mg/dL
Urine
pH 6.5
RBCs 50–60/hpf
A CT scan of the abdomen shows a 4-mm stone in the left distal ureter. Intravenous fluid resuscitation is begun and treatment with tamsulosin and ketorolac is initiated. Five hours later, he passes the stone. Metabolic analysis of the stone is most likely going to show which of the following?
Q320
A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care provider for routine follow-up. He complains of mild fatigue and occasional tingling in both feet. He reports that this numbness and tingling has led to him having 3 falls over the last month. He has had type 2 diabetes mellitus for 23 years and hypertension for 15 years, for which he takes metformin and enalapril. He denies tobacco or alcohol use. His blood pressure is 126/82 mm Hg, the heart rate is 78/min, and the respiratory rate is 15/min. Significant laboratory results are shown:
Hemoglobin 10 g/dL
Hematocrit 30%
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 110 fL
Serum B12 level 210 picograms/mL
Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient’s condition?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: A 43-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of abdominal pain for the past 6 months. She reports that the pain is localized to her lower abdomen and often resolves with bowel movements. She states that some days she has diarrhea while other times she will go 4-5 days without having a bowel movement. She started a gluten-free diet in hopes that it would help her symptoms, but she has not noticed much improvement. She denies nausea, vomiting, hematochezia, or melena. Her medical history is significant for generalized anxiety disorder and hypothyroidism. Her father has a history of colon cancer. The patient takes citalopram and levothyroxine. Physical examination reveals mild abdominal tenderness with palpation of lower quadrant but no guarding or rebound. A guaiac test is negative. A complete blood count is pending. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
A. Loperamide
B. Thyroid ultrasound
C. High fiber diet
D. Anti-endomysial antibody titer
E. Colonoscopy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Colonoscopy***
- Given her age (43 years), **family history of colon cancer** (father), and new-onset, fluctuating bowel habits with abdominal pain, a **colonoscopy** is indicated to rule out organic pathology.
- While her symptoms are suggestive of **irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)**, the **red flag symptom** of a family history of colon cancer necessitates further investigation beyond a clinical diagnosis of IBS.
*Loperamide*
- **Loperamide** is an antidiarrheal generally used for **symptomatic relief** in individuals with diarrhea-predominant IBS (IBS-D).
- Her symptoms fluctuate between diarrhea and constipation, and addressing the underlying cause or ruling out more serious conditions should precede symptomatic treatment.
*Thyroid ultrasound*
- She has a history of **hypothyroidism** and is on **levothyroxine**, but there is no indication of uncontrolled thyroid disease or a new thyroid issue.
- Her abdominal symptoms are unrelated to her thyroid condition, making a thyroid ultrasound an inappropriate next step.
*High fiber diet*
- A **high-fiber diet** can be beneficial for some forms of IBS, particularly **constipation-predominant IBS (IBS-C)**.
- However, it would not address the **red flag symptom** of family history of colon cancer and would not be the priority over ruling out malignancy.
*Anti-endomysial antibody titer*
- An **anti-endomysial antibody titer** is used to screen for **celiac disease**.
- While she tried a gluten-free diet, there are no other symptoms highly suggestive of celiac disease, and more importantly, this test would not address the **red flag concerns** for colorectal cancer.
Question 312: A 30-year-old caucasian female comes to the physician because of chronic diarrhea and abdominal bloating that started 6 months ago. She also reports increasing fatigue and intermittent tingling in her hands and feet. She lost 5 kg (11 lb) of weight over the past 6 months without changing her diet or trying to lose weight. She and her husband have been trying to conceive for over a year without any success. Menses have been irregular at 28–45 day intervals and last for 1–2 days. She has generalized anxiety disorder for which she takes sertraline. Her height is 151 cm and weight is 50 kg; BMI is 22 kg/m2. Examination shows generalized pallor. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 3900/mm3
Platelet count 130,000/mm3
Serum
Glucose 100 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.6 mg/dL
Thyroid-stimulating hormone 3.3 μU/mL
Vitamin B12 80 pg/mL (N > 200)
IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody negative
Serum IgA decreased
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
A. Plasma zinc concentration
B. IgG deamidated gliadin peptide test (Correct Answer)
C. Fecal fat test
D. IgA endomysial antibody
E. Skin prick test
Explanation: ***IgG deamidated gliadin peptide test***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of **malabsorption** (chronic diarrhea, bloating, weight loss, fatigue, neuropathy, infertility, anemia) and **IgA deficiency**, which renders IgA-based celiac serology (like IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase) unreliable.
- An **IgG-based test**, such as **IgG deamidated gliadin peptide (DGP) antibody**, is the most appropriate next step to diagnose celiac disease in the presence of IgA deficiency.
*Plasma zinc concentration*
- While **zinc deficiency** can occur in malabsorption syndromes, measuring plasma zinc is a diagnostic test for a specific deficiency rather than for the underlying cause of malabsorption.
- This test would not help identify the primary etiology, such as celiac disease.
*Fecal fat test*
- A **fecal fat test** can confirm the presence of **steatorrhea** and **fat malabsorption**, but it does not specify the cause.
- Given the strong indicators for celiac disease (malabsorption symptoms combined with IgA deficiency making standard IgA celiac testing invalid), a more specific test for celiac disease is warranted first.
*IgA endomysial antibody*
- **IgA endomysial antibody (EMA)** is another highly specific test for celiac disease, but like anti-tTG, it relies on adequate IgA levels.
- Since the patient has **decreased serum IgA**, this test would likely yield a false negative result and is therefore not appropriate.
*Skin prick test*
- A **skin prick test** is used to identify **allergic reactions** to specific substances (e.g., food allergies, environmental allergens).
- While food allergies can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, the patient's constellation of symptoms, including weight loss, anemia, neuropathy, and infertility, is more consistent with a malabsorption syndrome like celiac disease, not typically food allergy.
Question 313: An 80-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of anemia. His medical history is relevant for end-stage renal disease and aortic stenosis. When questioned about his bowel movements, the patient mentions that he has occasional episodes of loose, maroon-colored stools. His heart rate is 78/min, respiratory rate is 17/min, temperature is 36.6°C (97.8°F), and blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. Physical examination shows pale skin and conjunctiva and orthostasis upon standing. A complete blood count shows his hemoglobin is 8.7 g/dL, hematocrit is 27%, and mean corpuscular volume is 76 μm³. A colonoscopy is obtained. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
A. Angiodysplasia (Correct Answer)
B. Colorectal cancer
C. Ischemic colitis
D. Portal hypertension
E. Colonic polyps
Explanation: ***Angiodysplasia***
- This patient's **end-stage renal disease (ESRD)** and **aortic stenosis** are strongly associated with angiodysplasia, which can cause **intermittent, painless gastrointestinal bleeding**.
- The presentation of **maroon-colored stools**, **anemia** (low hemoglobin, hematocrit, and MCV indicating **iron-deficiency anemia**), and **hypotension** with **orthostasis** is characteristic of significant lower GI bleeding from angiodysplasia.
*Colorectal cancer*
- While colorectal cancer can cause anemia and maroon stools, it typically presents with more **insidious bleeding** and often leads to changes in bowel habits or weight loss, which are not highlighted here.
- The combination of **ESRD** and **aortic stenosis** makes angiodysplasia a more likely etiology for recurrent bleeding.
*Ischemic colitis*
- Ischemic colitis usually presents with **acute abdominal pain**, bloody diarrhea, and tenderness, often precipitated by conditions causing **hypoperfusion** to the colon.
- The patient's history of intermittent, maroon-colored stools and chronic anemia is less consistent with acute ischemic colitis.
*Portal hypertension*
- Portal hypertension typically results in **upper GI bleeding** (e.g., esophageal varices, gastric varices), presenting as hematemesis or melena.
- While it can cause anemia, the description of **maroon-colored stools** points to a lower GI source.
*Colonic polyps*
- Although colonic polyps can cause chronic low-grade bleeding and iron-deficiency anemia, they are usually **asymptomatic** or cause occult bleeding, not typically frank maroon-colored stools unless very large or numerous.
- Like colorectal cancer, polyps do not directly explain the strong association with **ESRD** and **aortic stenosis** seen in angiodysplasia.
Question 314: A 74-year-old woman with a past medical history of hypertension, peripheral artery disease, and migraine headaches presents to the emergency department with a two hour history of severe abdominal pain. The patient cannot recall any similar episodes, although she notes occasional abdominal discomfort after eating. She describes the pain as sharp periumbilical pain. She denies recent illness, fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. Her last normal bowel movement was yesterday evening. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 110/min, blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg, and respirations are 20/min. On exam, the patient is grimacing and appears to be in significant discomfort. Heart and lung exams are within normal limits. The patient's abdomen is soft and non-distended with diffuse periumbilical pain on palpation. There is no rebound tenderness or guarding, and bowel sounds are present. The rest of the exam is unremarkable. Labs in the emergency room show:
Serum:
Na+: 144 mEq/L
Cl-: 105 mEq/L
K+: 3.7 mEq/L
HCO3-: 20 mEq/L
BUN: 15 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.7 mg/dL
Phosphorus: 5.2 mg/dL
Lactate: 7.0 mmol/L
Amylase: 240 U/L
Hemoglobin: 13.4 g/dL
Hematocrit: 35%
Leukocyte count: 12,100 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 405,000/mm^3
What is the next best step in diagnosis?
A. Plain abdominal radiograph
B. Exploratory laparotomy
C. Abdominal duplex ultrasound
D. CT angiography (Correct Answer)
E. D-dimer level
Explanation: ***CT angiography***
- The patient's presentation with **severe abdominal pain out of proportion to physical exam findings**, history of **peripheral artery disease**, and elevated **lactate** strongly suggests **acute mesenteric ischemia**.
- **CT angiography** is the most sensitive and specific imaging modality to confirm the diagnosis of arterial occlusion in acute mesenteric ischemia by visualizing the mesenteric vessels.
*Plain abdominal radiograph*
- A plain abdominal radiograph has **poor sensitivity** for mesenteric ischemia and is primarily useful for detecting free air, bowel obstruction, or severe constipation, which are not the primary concerns here.
- While it can sometimes show **thumbprinting** in later stages due to bowel wall edema, it is not the initial diagnostic choice for acute vascular compromise.
*Exploratory laparotomy*
- **Exploratory laparotomy** is a surgical intervention, not a diagnostic step, and is typically performed after a diagnosis of mesenteric ischemia is established and definitive management is required.
- While it can directly visualize the bowel, it is **invasive** and should not be the first step in diagnosis, especially when less invasive imaging options are available.
*Abdominal duplex ultrasound*
- **Abdominal duplex ultrasound** can assess blood flow in the mesenteric arteries but is often **limited by bowel gas** and body habitus, making it less reliable for diagnosing acute mesenteric ischemia than CT angiography.
- Its utility is primarily in screening for chronic mesenteric ischemia rather than acute presentations.
*D-dimer level*
- An elevated **D-dimer level** indicates recent or ongoing clot formation or breakdown and can be elevated in many conditions, including thrombosis, inflammation, and infection, making it a **non-specific marker**.
- While it might be elevated in mesenteric ischemia, it is not specific enough to confirm the diagnosis and should not be relied upon as the primary diagnostic tool.
Question 315: A 25-year-old man comes to the physician for a 2-month history of abdominal discomfort, fatigue, and increased urinary frequency, especially at night. He has also noticed that despite eating more often he has lost 14-lbs (6-kg). He has a congenital solitary kidney and a history of Hashimoto thyroiditis, for which he takes levothyroxine. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 10 years. BMI is 18 kg/m2. His temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Serum studies show an osmolality of 305 mOsm/L and bicarbonate of 17 mEq/L. Urinalysis shows clear-colored urine with no organisms. Which of the following is most likely to be helpful in establishing the diagnosis?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Ultrasonography of the thyroid gland
C. Serum glucose (Correct Answer)
D. Digital rectal examination
E. Water deprivation test
Explanation: ***Serum glucose***
- The patient's symptoms of **polyuria** (increased urinary frequency, especially at night), **polyphagia** (eating more often), and **unexplained weight loss** are classic signs of **diabetes mellitus**.
- The **low serum bicarbonate (17 mEq/L)** suggests **metabolic acidosis**, raising concern for early **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)**.
- Given the **low BMI**, young age, and history of an **autoimmune condition** (Hashimoto thyroiditis), **Type 1 diabetes mellitus** is high on the differential diagnosis, making serum glucose measurement the crucial first diagnostic test.
- The **elevated serum osmolality (305 mOsm/L)** is consistent with hyperosmolar state from hyperglycemia.
*Serum creatinine*
- While the patient has a **solitary kidney**, his blood pressure is normal and physical exam is unremarkable, making acute kidney injury less likely as the primary cause.
- Elevated creatinine would indicate kidney dysfunction, but it would not directly explain the polyuria, polyphagia, weight loss, and metabolic acidosis pattern seen here.
- Chronic kidney disease would not typically present with this acute constellation of symptoms.
*Ultrasonography of the thyroid gland*
- The patient has a history of **Hashimoto thyroiditis** and is on **levothyroxine**, suggesting his thyroid function is likely controlled.
- His current symptoms are not typical for thyroid dysfunction (hyperthyroidism would cause heat intolerance, tremors, and tachycardia; hypothyroidism would cause weight gain, constipation, and bradycardia).
- Thyroid imaging would not explain the metabolic acidosis or elevated osmolality.
*Digital rectal examination*
- This examination is primarily used to assess the prostate for conditions like **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)** or **prostate cancer**.
- While urinary frequency is present, BPH is uncommon in a 25-year-old, and the constellation of other symptoms (weight loss, polyphagia, metabolic acidosis) points away from a primary prostate issue.
*Water deprivation test*
- This test is used to diagnose **diabetes insipidus (DI)**, which causes polyuria and polydipsia.
- However, DI does not explain the **weight loss**, **polyphagia**, or **metabolic acidosis** seen in this patient.
- In DI, patients typically have **high serum osmolality with inappropriately dilute urine** (low urine osmolality), but this would not cause the metabolic acidosis pattern observed here.
- The clear urine noted on urinalysis could suggest dilute urine, but the overall clinical picture strongly favors diabetes mellitus over diabetes insipidus.
Question 316: A 52-year-old male presents with several months of fatigue, malaise, dry cough, and occasional episodes of painless hematuria. He recalls having had a sore throat several days prior to the onset of these symptoms that resolved without antibiotics. Physical exam is remarkable for diffusely coarse breath sounds bilaterally. Urinalysis reveals 2+ protein, 2+ blood, and numerous red blood cell casts are visible under light microscopy. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Transitional cell bladder carcinoma
B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C. Microscopic polyangiitis (Correct Answer)
D. Diffuse membranous glomerulopathy
E. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Explanation: ***Microscopic polyangiitis***
- This patient's presentation with **fatigue, malaise, dry cough, painless hematuria**, and **red blood cell casts** is highly suggestive of a **rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis** often associated with a systemic vasculitis. Diffusely coarse breath sounds can indicate **pulmonary capillaritis**, a common finding in **microscopic polyangiitis (MPA)**.
- MPA is a **pauci-immune systemic vasculitis** affecting small vessels, often presenting with both **renal (glomerulonephritis)** and **pulmonary (hemoptysis, cough)** manifestations, and is typically **antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)-positive**, usually for **p-ANCA (MPO)**.
*Transitional cell bladder carcinoma*
- While **painless hematuria** is a hallmark symptom, bladder carcinoma does not typically present with **fatigue, malaise, cough**, or **red blood cell casts**, which indicate a glomerular origin of hematuria.
- The presence of **red blood cell casts** specifically points to **glomerular disease**, not lower urinary tract pathology like bladder cancer.
*Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis*
- FSGS is a common cause of **nephrotic syndrome**, characterized by heavy **proteinuria** (typically >3.5 g/day), **edema**, and hyperlipidemia. While hematuria can occur, **red blood cell casts** and rapid progression are less typical.
- It does not usually present with the systemic symptoms like **cough** or widespread malaise seen in vasculitis.
*Diffuse membranous glomerulopathy*
- This is another common cause of **nephrotic syndrome** in adults, primarily characterized by **heavy proteinuria** and **edema**.
- **Red blood cell casts** and significant systemic symptoms like cough and malaise, especially with rapid progression, are not typical features of membranous glomerulopathy.
*Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis*
- APSGN typically follows an infection (most commonly pharyngitis or impetigo) by **1-3 weeks**; the patient's sore throat "several days prior" to symptom onset is too short an interval for APSGN.
- While it presents with hematuria, red blood cell casts, and often edema, it's more common in children and usually follows a **latent period**, unlike the rapid onset suggested here.
Question 317: A 42-year-old woman presents with exertional dyspnea and fatigue for the past 3 months. Her past medical history is significant for multiple episodes of mild diarrhea for many years, which was earlier diagnosed as irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She denies any current significant gastrointestinal symptoms. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals oral aphthous ulcers and mild conjunctival pallor. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. There is a rash present on the peripheral extremities bilaterally (see image). Laboratory findings are significant for evidence of microcytic hypochromic anemia. FOBT is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth
B. Whipple's disease
C. Non-tropical sprue (Correct Answer)
D. Inflammatory bowel disease
E. Tropical sprue
Explanation: ***Non-tropical sprue***
- The patient's presentation with **exertional dyspnea, fatigue, oral aphthous ulcers, microcytic hypochromic anemia** (indicating **iron deficiency from malabsorption**), and a rash consistent with **dermatitis herpetiformis** (as indicated by the peripheral rash on extremities) despite no current significant GI symptoms, strongly points to **celiac disease (non-tropical sprue)**.
- Celiac disease can manifest with **extra-intestinal symptoms** like iron deficiency anemia, skin rashes, and oral ulcers due to malabsorption, even in the absence of severe gastrointestinal complaints, and its diagnosis can be often delayed due to misdiagnosis of IBS.
- **Iron deficiency anemia** is the most common hematologic manifestation of celiac disease due to impaired absorption in the proximal small intestine.
*Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth*
- While SIBO can cause malabsorption and diarrhea, it **does not typically present with oral aphthous ulcers or a rash consistent with dermatitis herpetiformis**.
- **Anemia** can occur due to long-standing SIBO, but the overall constellation of findings is more suggestive of another diagnosis.
*Whipple's disease*
- Whipple's disease is a rare systemic infection that can cause **malabsorption, arthralgias, ocular symptoms**, and **neurological abnormalities**.
- However, **oral aphthous ulcers and dermatitis herpetiformis are not characteristic features** of Whipple's disease, and the skin lesions in Whipple's are usually hyperpigmentation.
*Inflammatory bowel disease*
- While Crohn's disease (a type of IBD) can be associated with **oral aphthous ulcers** and **anemia**, the rash on the extremities is not typical for IBD except for **erythema nodosum or pyoderma gangrenosum** which do not match the expected dermatitis herpetiformis pattern.
- The patient's long history of episodic diarrhea diagnosed as IBS, but with evolving extra-intestinal symptoms, makes celiac disease a more fitting diagnosis.
*Tropical sprue*
- **Tropical sprue** is a malabsorption syndrome occurring in residents or visitors to tropical regions, typically presenting with **chronic diarrhea, steatorrhea, and weight loss**.
- It is **not commonly associated with oral aphthous ulcers or specific dermatological manifestations like dermatitis herpetiformis**, and the patient's history does not indicate recent travel to tropical areas.
Question 318: A 45-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is brought to the physician because of a 3-week history of nausea, abdominal pain, and confusion. She has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease treated with over-the-counter antacids. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her only medication is metformin. Her pulse is 86/min and blood pressure is 142/85 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft abdomen. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
pH 7.46
PCO2 44 mm Hg
PO2 94 mm Hg
HCO3- 30 mEq/L
An ECG shows a QT interval corrected for heart rate (QTc) of 0.36 seconds (N = 0.40–0.44). The serum concentration of which of the following substances is most likely to be increased in this patient?
A. Phosphate
B. β-hydroxybutyrate
C. Parathyroid hormone
D. 24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
E. Calcium (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Calcium***
- This patient presents with classic **milk-alkali syndrome**, characterized by the triad of hypercalcemia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal insufficiency
- **Clinical features of hypercalcemia**: nausea, abdominal pain, confusion ("stones, bones, abdominal groans, and psychiatric overtones")
- **Chronic use of calcium-containing antacids** for GERD is the likely etiology
- **ABG shows metabolic alkalosis** (pH 7.46, HCO3- 30 mEq/L) from alkali ingestion
- **Shortened QTc of 0.36 seconds** (normal 0.40-0.44) is characteristic of hypercalcemia - calcium accelerates cardiac repolarization
- The diagnosis is confirmed by elevated serum calcium levels
*Phosphate*
- In hypercalcemia, phosphate is typically **decreased**, not increased
- Elevated calcium inhibits proximal tubular reabsorption of phosphate, leading to phosphaturia and hypophosphatemia
- Additionally, suppressed PTH (due to hypercalcemia) reduces phosphate mobilization from bone
*β-hydroxybutyrate*
- This would be elevated in **diabetic ketoacidosis** or starvation ketosis
- The ABG shows **metabolic alkalosis**, not metabolic acidosis, ruling out ketoacidosis
- No clinical features suggest DKA (patient is on metformin, not insulin; no polyuria, polydipsia, or Kussmaul breathing mentioned)
*Parathyroid hormone*
- In milk-alkali syndrome, PTH is **suppressed**, not elevated
- Hypercalcemia provides negative feedback to the parathyroid glands
- Low PTH is a key diagnostic feature distinguishing milk-alkali syndrome from primary hyperparathyroidism
*24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol*
- This is a relatively inactive metabolite of vitamin D
- In hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH, 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity is decreased, leading to **reduced** production of vitamin D metabolites
- This substance would not be characteristically elevated in milk-alkali syndrome
Question 319: A previously healthy 31-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of acute onset of left flank pain radiating to his inner groin and scrotum for 3 hours. He also had nausea and one episode of hematuria. His only medication is a multivitamin. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 104/min, respirations are 19/min, and blood pressure is 132/85 mm Hg. Physical examination shows marked tenderness in the left costovertebral area. He has normal skin turgor, a capillary refill time of < 1 second, and has been urinating normally. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
Phosphorus 4.3 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 15 mg/dL
Urine
pH 6.5
RBCs 50–60/hpf
A CT scan of the abdomen shows a 4-mm stone in the left distal ureter. Intravenous fluid resuscitation is begun and treatment with tamsulosin and ketorolac is initiated. Five hours later, he passes the stone. Metabolic analysis of the stone is most likely going to show which of the following?
A. Uric acid
B. Calcium oxalate (Correct Answer)
C. Xanthine
D. Cystine
E. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
Explanation: ***Calcium oxalate***
- **Calcium oxalate stones** are the most common type of kidney stone, accounting for about 80% of all cases. The patient's presentation with acute **flank pain**, **hematuria**, and a 4-mm **ureteral stone** is classic for nephrolithiasis.
- The provided normal serum calcium, phosphorus, creatinine, and urine pH (6.5) do not suggest other specific stone types like uric acid (low pH), struvite (high pH with infection), or cystine (genetic disorder).
*Uric acid*
- **Uric acid stones** typically form in acidic urine (pH < 5.5). This patient's urine pH is 6.5, which makes uric acid stones less likely.
- Uric acid stones are often associated with conditions like **gout** or **myeloproliferative disorders**, which are not indicated here.
*Xanthine*
- **Xanthine stones** are very rare and are typically associated with a genetic deficiency of **xanthine oxidase** or treatment with **allopurinol** (which inhibits xanthine oxidase).
- There is no clinical information in the vignette to suggest such a rare metabolic disorder or drug use (other than a multivitamin).
*Cystine*
- **Cystine stones** are also rare and result from an inherited defect in renal tubular amino acid transport, leading to high urinary excretion of **cystine**.
- They tend to form hexagonal crystals and typically present at a younger age or with recurrent stone formation, and are not indicated by the normal lab values in this patient.
*Magnesium ammonium phosphate*
- **Magnesium ammonium phosphate** (struvite) stones are typically associated with **chronic urinary tract infections** by urease-producing bacteria (e.g., Proteus, Klebsiella), which leads to alkaline urine (pH usually >7.0 or 7.5).
- This patient's urine pH of 6.5 and lack of symptoms of infection (normal temperature, no mention of pyuria or bacteriuria) make struvite stones unlikely.
Question 320: A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care provider for routine follow-up. He complains of mild fatigue and occasional tingling in both feet. He reports that this numbness and tingling has led to him having 3 falls over the last month. He has had type 2 diabetes mellitus for 23 years and hypertension for 15 years, for which he takes metformin and enalapril. He denies tobacco or alcohol use. His blood pressure is 126/82 mm Hg, the heart rate is 78/min, and the respiratory rate is 15/min. Significant laboratory results are shown:
Hemoglobin 10 g/dL
Hematocrit 30%
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 110 fL
Serum B12 level 210 picograms/mL
Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient’s condition?
A. Methylmalonic acid level (Correct Answer)
B. Folic acid supplementation
C. Pregabalin or gabapentin
D. Intrinsic factor antibody
E. Schilling test
Explanation: ***Methylmalonic acid level***
- The patient presents with symptoms of **peripheral neuropathy** (tingling, numbness, falls) and **macrocytic anemia** (MCV 110 fL, Hb 10 g/dL), along with a **borderline low serum vitamin B12 level** (210 pg/mL).
- **Long-term metformin use** (23 years in this patient) is a well-known risk factor for vitamin B12 deficiency due to impaired intestinal absorption.
- **Methylmalonic acid (MMA)** is a more sensitive and specific marker for **functional vitamin B12 deficiency**, as its levels are elevated when B12 is insufficient to convert MMA to succinyl CoA.
- When serum B12 is in the borderline range (200-400 pg/mL) but clinical suspicion is high, MMA and homocysteine levels confirm true deficiency.
*Folic acid supplementation*
- While folic acid deficiency also causes **macrocytic anemia**, the neurological symptoms (neuropathy, falls) are characteristic of **vitamin B12 deficiency**, not folate deficiency.
- Supplementing with folic acid in a B12-deficient patient can mask the hematological signs of B12 deficiency while allowing neurological damage to progress.
*Pregabalin or gabapentin*
- These medications are used to treat **neuropathic pain**, which can be a symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency.
- However, they address symptoms rather than the underlying cause, and the priority is to diagnose and treat the deficiency to prevent further neurological deterioration.
*Intrinsic factor antibody*
- **Intrinsic factor antibodies** are helpful in diagnosing **pernicious anemia**, a common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency.
- However, the initial step after identifying borderline B12 and symptoms of deficiency is to confirm the actual functional deficiency with MMA and homocysteine levels, before determining the cause.
*Schilling test*
- The **Schilling test** is an older diagnostic test used to determine the cause of vitamin B12 malabsorption.
- It is rarely performed due to its complexity and the availability of more modern diagnostic tools like anti-intrinsic factor antibodies and gastric parietal cell antibodies.