A 30-year-old man with a BMI of 33.7 kg/m2 presents with severe pain in his right great toe that began this morning. He had a few beers last night at a friend's party but otherwise has had no recent dietary changes. On examination, the right great toe appears swollen, warm, red, and tender to touch. Joint aspiration is performed. What will examination of the fluid most likely reveal?
Q292
A 41-year-old male presents to his primary care provider after seeing bright red blood in the toilet bowl after his last two bowel movements. He reports that the second time he also noticed some blood mixed with his stool. The patient denies abdominal pain and any changes in his stool habits. He notes a weight loss of eight pounds in the last two months. His past medical history is significant for an episode of pancreatitis two years ago for which he was hospitalized for several days. He drinks 2-3 beers on the weekend, and he has never smoked. He has no family history of colon cancer. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 135/78 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 14/min. On physical exam, his abdomen is soft and nontender to palpation. Bowel sounds are present, and there is no hepatomegaly.
Which of the following is the best next step in diagnosis?
Q293
A 32-year-old man with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with vomiting and diarrhea for 1 week. He states he feels weak and has had poor oral intake during this time. The patient is a current smoker and has presented many times to the emergency department for alcohol intoxication. His temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 102/62 mmHg, pulse is 135/min, respirations are 25/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. On physical exam, he is found to have orthostatic hypotension and dry mucus membranes. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 3.9 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.8 mg/dL
The patient is given normal saline, oral potassium, dextrose, thiamine, and folic acid. The following day, the patient seems confused and complains of diffuse weakness and muscle/bone pain. An ECG and head CT are performed and are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's new symptoms?
Q294
A 49-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of bloating and constipation alternating with diarrhea. She eats a balanced diet, and there are no associations between her symptoms and specific foods. She had been a competitive swimmer since high school but stopped going to training 4 months ago because her fingers hurt and turned blue as soon as she got into the cold water. She drinks one to two glasses of wine daily. Physical examination shows swollen hands and fingers with wax-like thickening of the skin. There are numerous small, superficial, dilated blood vessels at the tips of the fingers. The abdomen is distended and mildly tender with no guarding or rebound. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q295
A 72-year-old male is brought from his nursing home to the emergency department for fever, chills, dyspnea, productive cough, and oliguria over the past 72 hours. He was in his normal state of health and slowly developed breathing problems and fever. His past medical history is significant for hepatitis C, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. His medications include bisoprolol, hydrochlorothiazide, and atorvastatin. Upon arrival to the ED, his blood pressure is 80/48 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, a respiratory rate of 28/min, and body temperature of 39.0°C (102.2°F). Physical examination reveals decreased breathing sounds in the base of the left lung, along with increased vocal resonance, and pan-inspiratory crackles. The abdomen is mildly distended with a positive fluid wave. The patient's level of consciousness ranges from disoriented to drowsiness. He is transferred immediately to the ICU where vasoactive support is initiated. Laboratory tests show leukocytosis, neutrophilia with bands. Since admission 6 hours ago, the patient has remained anuric. Which of the following additional findings would you expect in this patient?
Q296
A 48-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with diarrhea and weight loss. He states he has had diarrhea for the past several months that has been worsening steadily. The patient recently went on a camping trip and drank unfiltered stream water. Otherwise, the patient endorses a warm and flushed feeling in his face that occurs sporadically. His temperature is 97.2°F (36.2°C), blood pressure is 137/68 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a murmur heard best over the left lower sternal border and bilateral wheezing on pulmonary exam. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
Q297
A 35-year-old woman presents to an outpatient clinic during winter for persistent rhinorrhea. She states it is persistent and seems to be worse when she goes outside. Otherwise, she states she is generally healthy and only has a history of constipation. Her temperature is 98.7°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 144/91 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Nasal cytology reveals eosinophilia and boggy turbinates. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q298
A 60-year-old woman presents to the physician because of shortness of breath and easy fatigability over the past 3 months. Her symptoms become worse with physical activity. She notes no chest pain, cough, or wheezing. Her last menstrual period was 10 years ago. She currently takes calcium and vitamin D supplements as well as a vaginal estrogen cream. For several years, her diet has been poor, as she often does not feel like eating. The patient’s medical history is otherwise unremarkable. She works as a piano teacher at the local community center. She does not use tobacco or illicit drugs and enjoys an occasional glass of red wine with dinner. Her vital signs include: pulse 100/min, respiratory rate 16/min, and blood pressure 140/84 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals impaired vibratory sensation in the legs. Pallor is evident on her hands. Which of the following laboratory tests is expected to be abnormal in this patient?
Q299
A 51-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of diffuse perineal and scrotal pain. On a 10-point scale, he rates the pain as a 5 to 6. He reports that during this time he also has pain during ejaculation and dysuria. He did not have fever. The pain is persistent despite taking over-the-counter analgesics. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. He appears healthy and well nourished. Vital signs are within normal limits. Abdominal and scrotal examination shows no abnormalities. Rectal examination shows a mildly tender prostate without asymmetry or induration. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 5000/mm3
Platelet count 320,000/mm3
Urine
RBC none
WBC 4-5/hpf
A urine culture is negative. Analysis of expressed prostatic secretions shows 6 WBCs/hpf (N <10). Scrotal ultrasonography shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q300
A 25-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider for fatigue. She states that she has felt fatigued for the past 6 months and has tried multiple diets and sleep schedules to improve her condition, but none have succeeded. She has no significant past medical history. She is currently taking a multivitamin, folate, B12, iron, fish oil, whey protein, baby aspirin, copper, and krill oil. Her temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 107/58 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory values are as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 8 g/dL
Hematocrit: 24%
Leukocyte count: 6,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 147,000/mm^3
Physical exam is notable for decreased proprioception in the lower extremities and 4/5 strength in the patient's upper and lower extremities. Which of the following is the best next step in management to confirm the diagnosis?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 291: A 30-year-old man with a BMI of 33.7 kg/m2 presents with severe pain in his right great toe that began this morning. He had a few beers last night at a friend's party but otherwise has had no recent dietary changes. On examination, the right great toe appears swollen, warm, red, and tender to touch. Joint aspiration is performed. What will examination of the fluid most likely reveal?
A. Anti-CCP antibodies
B. Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals on polarized light (Correct Answer)
C. Increased glucose
D. Rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent crystals on polarized light
E. Gram-negative diplococci
Explanation: ***Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals on polarized light***
- The clinical presentation, including the patient's **BMI**, **alcohol consumption**, rapid onset of severe pain, and classic signs of inflammation in the **first metatarsophalangeal joint** (**podagra**), is highly indicative of **gout**.
- **Urate crystals** are characteristically **needle-shaped** and display **negative birefringence** under polarized light microscopy.
*Anti-CCP antibodies*
- **Anti-CCP antibodies** are a serological marker for **rheumatoid arthritis**, which typically presents with chronic, symmetric polyarthritis, not acute monoarticular pain.
- The acute, severe inflammation in a single joint, especially the toe, makes rheumatoid arthritis unlikely.
*Increased glucose*
- Synovial fluid glucose levels are **not diagnostically useful** for gout or most inflammatory arthritides.
- Synovial fluid glucose is typically **decreased** in septic arthritis due to bacterial metabolism, not increased.
*Rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent crystals on polarized light*
- **Rhomboid-shaped**, **positively birefringent crystals** are characteristic of **calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD)**, also known as **pseudogout**.
- While pseudogout can cause acute arthritis, the typical presentation of **podagra** and the specific historical context (obesity, alcohol consumption) point more strongly to gout.
*Gram-negative diplococci*
- The presence of **Gram-negative diplococci** in joint fluid would indicate **septic arthritis** due to **Neisseria gonorrhoeae**.
- While septic arthritis can cause acute, severe joint pain, the classic features of gout are more prominent in this case, and there's no mention of risk factors for gonococcal infection (e.g., sexually active young adult, disseminated infection).
Question 292: A 41-year-old male presents to his primary care provider after seeing bright red blood in the toilet bowl after his last two bowel movements. He reports that the second time he also noticed some blood mixed with his stool. The patient denies abdominal pain and any changes in his stool habits. He notes a weight loss of eight pounds in the last two months. His past medical history is significant for an episode of pancreatitis two years ago for which he was hospitalized for several days. He drinks 2-3 beers on the weekend, and he has never smoked. He has no family history of colon cancer. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 135/78 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 14/min. On physical exam, his abdomen is soft and nontender to palpation. Bowel sounds are present, and there is no hepatomegaly.
Which of the following is the best next step in diagnosis?
A. Colonoscopy (Correct Answer)
B. Complete blood count
C. Abdominal CT
D. Anoscopy
E. Barium enema
Explanation: ***Colonoscopy***
- The patient's age combined with **rectal bleeding** (bright red blood and mixed with stool) and **unexplained weight loss** are red flags for **colorectal cancer**, necessitating a thorough endoscopic evaluation of the colon.
- A colonoscopy allows for direct visualization of the entire colon and rectum, enabling **biopsy of suspicious lesions** and removal of polyps, which is crucial for diagnosis and prevention.
*Complete blood count*
- While a CBC could reveal **anemia** due to chronic blood loss, it does not identify the **source of the bleeding** or the underlying pathology like malignant lesions.
- Anemia, if present, would be a supportive finding but insufficient for a definitive diagnosis in this scenario.
*Abdominal CT*
- An abdominal CT scan can identify masses or abnormalities in the abdomen but is **less sensitive for visualizing mucosal lesions** in the colon and rectum, which are typical presentations of early colorectal cancer.
- It also does not allow for **biopsy** or therapeutic intervention, which is critical for diagnosis.
*Anoscopy*
- Anoscopy is useful for visualizing the **anal canal and distal rectum** (up to 5-6 cm), which could identify hemorrhoids or anal fissures.
- However, the patient's symptoms (blood mixed with stool, weight loss) suggest a potentially more proximal source of bleeding that would not be visible with an anoscopy alone.
*Barium enema*
- A barium enema is a less invasive imaging technique but has **lower sensitivity** compared to colonoscopy for detecting small polyps or early cancerous lesions.
- It also **does not allow for tissue biopsy** or polyp removal, which are essential steps in the management of suspected colorectal cancer.
Question 293: A 32-year-old man with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with vomiting and diarrhea for 1 week. He states he feels weak and has had poor oral intake during this time. The patient is a current smoker and has presented many times to the emergency department for alcohol intoxication. His temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 102/62 mmHg, pulse is 135/min, respirations are 25/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. On physical exam, he is found to have orthostatic hypotension and dry mucus membranes. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 3.9 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.8 mg/dL
The patient is given normal saline, oral potassium, dextrose, thiamine, and folic acid. The following day, the patient seems confused and complains of diffuse weakness and muscle/bone pain. An ECG and head CT are performed and are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's new symptoms?
A. Hypomagnesemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypophosphatemia (Correct Answer)
E. Hypocalcemia
Explanation: **Hypophosphatemia**
- **Hypophosphatemia** is common in **alcoholics**, often exacerbated by refeeding (administration of glucose and fluids). The patient's initial symptoms of weakness and muscle/bone pain after treatment suggest this condition.
- Symptoms such as **confusion**, **diffuse weakness**, and **muscle/bone pain** are classic manifestations of severe hypophosphatemia as phosphorus is vital for muscle and nerve function, and bone health.
*Hypomagnesemia*
- While common in alcoholics and capable of causing weakness, **hypomagnesemia** typically presents with symptoms like **tremors**, **seizures**, and **cardiac arrhythmias**.
- The patient's primary symptoms of confusion and diffuse muscle/bone pain are less characteristic of magnesium deficiency compared to phosphorus deficiency.
*Hyponatremia*
- The patient's initial sodium level was 139 mEq/L, which is within the normal range, making **hyponatremia** unlikely to be the cause of new symptoms.
- While severe hyponatremia can cause confusion, it typically presents with other neurological symptoms like **headache** and **seizures**, which are not reported here.
*Hypoglycemia*
- The initial glucose level of 99 mg/dL was normal, and the patient received dextrose, making **hypoglycemia** an unlikely cause of the new symptoms.
- Symptoms of hypoglycemia usually include **sweating**, **tremors**, and **palpitations**, in addition to confusion.
*Hypocalcemia*
- The patient's initial calcium level was 9.8 mg/dL, which is within the normal range, making **hypocalcemia** an unlikely cause of the new symptoms.
- Symptoms of hypocalcemia typically include **tetany**, **paresthesias**, and a **prolonged QT interval** on EKG, none of which are described.
Question 294: A 49-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of bloating and constipation alternating with diarrhea. She eats a balanced diet, and there are no associations between her symptoms and specific foods. She had been a competitive swimmer since high school but stopped going to training 4 months ago because her fingers hurt and turned blue as soon as she got into the cold water. She drinks one to two glasses of wine daily. Physical examination shows swollen hands and fingers with wax-like thickening of the skin. There are numerous small, superficial, dilated blood vessels at the tips of the fingers. The abdomen is distended and mildly tender with no guarding or rebound. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Calcium deposits in the skin (Correct Answer)
B. Villous atrophy in the duodenum
C. Periumbilical dilation of subcutaneous veins
D. Outpouchings of the sigmoid colon
E. Bilateral pupillary constriction
Explanation: ***Calcium deposits in the skin***
- The patient's symptoms, including **Raynaud phenomenon** (fingers turning blue in cold water), **swollen hands and fingers with wax-like skin thickening**, and **dilated blood vessels at fingertips** (telangiectasias), are highly suggestive of **CREST syndrome**, a limited form of systemic sclerosis.
- **Calcinosis**, or calcium deposits in the skin, is a component of the CREST acronym (Calcinosis, Raynaud phenomenon, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasias) and is a common finding in this condition.
*Villous atrophy in the duodenum*
- **Villous atrophy** is characteristic of **celiac disease** rather than systemic sclerosis, and there are no strong indicators of malabsorption (beyond the generalized GI symptoms which can occur in sclerosis).
- While malabsorption can rarely occur in systemic sclerosis due to small bowel dysmotility, villous atrophy is not a primary or common feature.
*Periumbilical dilation of subcutaneous veins*
- **Periumbilical dilation of subcutaneous veins** (**Caput Medusae**) is a sign of **portal hypertension**, typically due to severe liver disease.
- There is no clinical information in the vignette to suggest liver pathology or portal hypertension.
*Outpouchings of the sigmoid colon*
- **Outpouchings of the sigmoid colon**, known as **diverticula**, are a common age-related finding and can cause changes in bowel habits, but they do not explain the patient's rheumatological and dermatological symptoms.
- Systemic sclerosis can affect the gastrointestinal tract with dysmotility, but diverticula are not a direct manifestation of the disease.
*Bilateral pupillary constriction*
- **Bilateral pupillary constriction** is associated with opioid use, organophosphate poisoning, or certain neurological conditions, none of which align with the patient's presentation.
- This finding has no connection to systemic sclerosis or the other described symptoms.
Question 295: A 72-year-old male is brought from his nursing home to the emergency department for fever, chills, dyspnea, productive cough, and oliguria over the past 72 hours. He was in his normal state of health and slowly developed breathing problems and fever. His past medical history is significant for hepatitis C, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. His medications include bisoprolol, hydrochlorothiazide, and atorvastatin. Upon arrival to the ED, his blood pressure is 80/48 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, a respiratory rate of 28/min, and body temperature of 39.0°C (102.2°F). Physical examination reveals decreased breathing sounds in the base of the left lung, along with increased vocal resonance, and pan-inspiratory crackles. The abdomen is mildly distended with a positive fluid wave. The patient's level of consciousness ranges from disoriented to drowsiness. He is transferred immediately to the ICU where vasoactive support is initiated. Laboratory tests show leukocytosis, neutrophilia with bands. Since admission 6 hours ago, the patient has remained anuric. Which of the following additional findings would you expect in this patient?
A. Urine sodium > 40 mEq/L
B. Urinary osmolality > 500 mOsmol/kg
C. Urinary osmolality < 350 mOsmol/kg
D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN):Serum creatinine (Cr) ratio <15:1
E. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN):Serum creatinine (Cr) ratio > 20:1 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Blood urea nitrogen (BUN):Serum creatinine (Cr) ratio > 20:1***
- This patient is presenting with signs of **septic shock** (fever, hypotension, altered mental status, oliguria, leukocytosis) likely due to **pneumonia**. The prolonged hypotension and poor perfusion lead to **prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI)** that may be progressing to **acute tubular necrosis (ATN)**.
- In **prerenal AKI**, reduced renal perfusion leads to increased reabsorption of urea and water in the renal tubules, resulting in a **BUN:creatinine ratio greater than 20:1**. This elevated ratio persists even as the patient transitions to ATN.
- Given **6 hours of anuria** despite vasoactive support, this suggests significant renal injury, but the BUN:Cr ratio remains the most reliable finding at this stage.
*Urine sodium > 40 mEq/L*
- A urine sodium concentration greater than 40 mEq/L is typically seen in **intrinsic AKI** (e.g., acute tubular necrosis), where tubular damage impairs sodium reabsorption.
- While this patient may be developing ATN given the prolonged anuria, in the **early phase** of septic AKI with recent hypotension, the kidneys initially attempt to conserve sodium, resulting in **low urine sodium (<20 mEq/L)**.
*Urinary osmolality > 500 mOsmol/kg*
- A urinary osmolality above 500 mOsmol/kg indicates appropriately concentrated urine, which is a compensatory mechanism in **early prerenal AKI** as the kidneys try to conserve water.
- However, given this patient has been **anuric for 6 hours** despite ICU-level vasoactive support, the kidney injury has likely progressed beyond pure prerenal state. In established ATN, the concentrating ability is impaired, and urinary osmolality would be **closer to isotonic (<350 mOsmol/kg)** rather than highly concentrated.
- The **elevated BUN:Cr ratio** is more reliable in this mixed clinical picture.
*Urinary osmolality < 350 mOsmol/kg*
- A urinary osmolality less than 350 mOsmol/kg indicates inappropriately diluted urine, which is characteristic of **established intrinsic AKI (acute tubular necrosis)**, where the kidney's concentrating ability is impaired.
- While the patient may be progressing toward ATN, the **BUN:Cr ratio elevation** develops earlier and is the most expected finding at this presentation stage.
*Blood urea nitrogen (BUN):Serum creatinine (Cr) ratio <15:1*
- A BUN:creatinine ratio less than 15:1 is typically seen in **intrinsic AKI after several days**, **normal renal function**, or conditions with decreased urea production.
- In this patient with septic shock and acute hypoperfusion leading to AKI, the ratio would be **elevated (>20:1)** due to enhanced urea reabsorption in the setting of decreased renal blood flow.
Question 296: A 48-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with diarrhea and weight loss. He states he has had diarrhea for the past several months that has been worsening steadily. The patient recently went on a camping trip and drank unfiltered stream water. Otherwise, the patient endorses a warm and flushed feeling in his face that occurs sporadically. His temperature is 97.2°F (36.2°C), blood pressure is 137/68 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a murmur heard best over the left lower sternal border and bilateral wheezing on pulmonary exam. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
A. Pulmonary function tests
B. Plasma free metanephrine levels
C. Urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid level (Correct Answer)
D. Echocardiography
E. Stool culture and ova and parasite analysis
Explanation: ***Urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid level***
- The combination of **diarrhea**, **weight loss**, episodic **flushing**, **wheezing**, and a **cardiac murmur** (suggesting right-sided valve involvement) is highly suggestive of **carcinoid syndrome**. The **urinary 5-HIAA** level is the most reliable initial biochemical test to diagnose this condition.
- Carcinoid tumors secrete **serotonin**, which is metabolized to 5-HIAA and excreted in the urine. Elevated levels confirm the diagnosis.
*Pulmonary function tests*
- While the patient has **wheezing**, which could be due to **bronchospasm** as part of carcinoid syndrome, pulmonary function tests are not the best initial diagnostic step.
- They would characterize the lung involvement but not identify the underlying cause of the systemic symptoms.
*Plasma free metanephrine levels*
- This test is used to diagnose **pheochromocytoma**, a condition that can also cause episodic flushing and palpitations.
- However, pheochromocytoma does not typically cause chronic diarrhea, weight loss, or the characteristic right-sided cardiac involvement seen in this patient.
*Echocardiography*
- An **echocardiogram** would be useful to evaluate the cardiac murmur and assess for **right-sided valvular heart disease**, which is a common manifestation of **carcinoid heart disease**.
- However, it is a follow-up imaging study to characterize complications, not the initial diagnostic test to confirm the biochemical syndrome.
*Stool culture and ova and parasite analysis*
- Given the history of drinking unfiltered stream water, **gastrointestinal infections** are a possibility for the diarrhea.
- However, the combination of **flushing**, **wheezing**, and a **cardiac murmur** points away from an infectious etiology as the primary cause of all symptoms.
Question 297: A 35-year-old woman presents to an outpatient clinic during winter for persistent rhinorrhea. She states it is persistent and seems to be worse when she goes outside. Otherwise, she states she is generally healthy and only has a history of constipation. Her temperature is 98.7°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 144/91 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Nasal cytology reveals eosinophilia and boggy turbinates. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Coronavirus
B. Environmental allergen (Correct Answer)
C. Cold weather
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation: ***Environmental allergen***
- The presence of **eosinophilia on nasal cytology** is a hallmark indicator of an allergic response, specifically in **allergic rhinitis**.
- Symptoms like **persistent rhinorrhea** worsening with outdoor exposure during winter suggest sensitivity to outdoor allergens that are prevalent in colder seasons, such as **mold spores** for some regions or **dust mites** indoors when windows are closed.
*Coronavirus*
- While coronavirus can cause **rhinorrhea**, it is typically accompanied by other symptoms such as **fever, cough, and body aches**, which are absent in this patient.
- **Nasal eosinophilia** is not a characteristic finding in viral infections like coronavirus.
*Streptococcus pneumoniae*
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* causes **bacterial infections**, often presenting with **purulent (green or yellow) nasal discharge, fever, and facial pain**.
- **Nasal eosinophilia** is not associated with bacterial infections; instead, **neutrophilia** would be expected.
*Cold weather*
- Exposure to **cold weather** can induce **vasomotor rhinitis**, characterized by rhinorrhea due to increased nasal blood flow.
- However, **eosinophilia on nasal cytology** differentiates allergic rhinitis from simple vasomotor responses to cold.
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- *Staphylococcus aureus* is a common cause of **bacterial sinusitis or nasal infections**, presenting with **purulent discharge, pain, and sometimes fever**.
- Like other bacterial infections, it does not cause **nasal eosinophilia**; **neutrophilic inflammation** would be seen.
Question 298: A 60-year-old woman presents to the physician because of shortness of breath and easy fatigability over the past 3 months. Her symptoms become worse with physical activity. She notes no chest pain, cough, or wheezing. Her last menstrual period was 10 years ago. She currently takes calcium and vitamin D supplements as well as a vaginal estrogen cream. For several years, her diet has been poor, as she often does not feel like eating. The patient’s medical history is otherwise unremarkable. She works as a piano teacher at the local community center. She does not use tobacco or illicit drugs and enjoys an occasional glass of red wine with dinner. Her vital signs include: pulse 100/min, respiratory rate 16/min, and blood pressure 140/84 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals impaired vibratory sensation in the legs. Pallor is evident on her hands. Which of the following laboratory tests is expected to be abnormal in this patient?
A. Serum methylmalonic acid level (Correct Answer)
B. Erythrocyte pyruvate kinase activity
C. Erythrocyte glutathione reductase activity
D. Serum folate level
E. Serum protoporphyrin level
Explanation: ***Serum methylmalonic acid level***
- The patient's symptoms of **shortness of breath**, **fatigability**, **pallor**, and **impaired vibratory sensation** suggest **vitamin B12 deficiency**, which leads to **megaloblastic anemia** and **neurological deficits**.
- **Vitamin B12** is a cofactor for the enzyme **methylmalonyl-CoA mutase**. A deficiency leads to the accumulation of **methylmalonic acid (MMA)**, making an elevated serum MMA level an expected abnormal finding.
*Erythrocyte pyruvate kinase activity*
- **Pyruvate kinase deficiency** is a rare cause of **hemolytic anemia**, which presents as chronic anemia, jaundice, and splenomegaly.
- The symptoms in this patient are more consistent with a **nutritional deficiency**, not a genetic enzymatic defect.
*Erythrocyte glutathione reductase activity*
- **Glutathione reductase deficiency** can impair the erythrocyte's ability to handle **oxidative stress**, potentially causing **hemolytic anemia**.
- This deficiency is less common and symptoms like impaired vibratory sensation are not characteristic.
*Serum folate level*
- While **folate deficiency** can also cause **megaloblastic anemia** with symptoms like fatigue and pallor, it does not typically cause **neurological symptoms** such as impaired vibratory sensation.
- The neurological signs strongly point towards **vitamin B12 deficiency**, which causes elevated MMA, whereas folate deficiency would show a low serum folate level.
*Serum protoporphyrin level*
- An elevated **serum protoporphyrin level** can indicate **iron deficiency anemia** or **lead poisoning**.
- While iron deficiency can cause fatigue and pallor, it typically does not cause neurological symptoms like impaired vibratory sensation, which is a hallmark of B12 deficiency.
Question 299: A 51-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of diffuse perineal and scrotal pain. On a 10-point scale, he rates the pain as a 5 to 6. He reports that during this time he also has pain during ejaculation and dysuria. He did not have fever. The pain is persistent despite taking over-the-counter analgesics. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. He appears healthy and well nourished. Vital signs are within normal limits. Abdominal and scrotal examination shows no abnormalities. Rectal examination shows a mildly tender prostate without asymmetry or induration. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 5000/mm3
Platelet count 320,000/mm3
Urine
RBC none
WBC 4-5/hpf
A urine culture is negative. Analysis of expressed prostatic secretions shows 6 WBCs/hpf (N <10). Scrotal ultrasonography shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
B. Bladder neck cancer
C. Prostatic abscess
D. Chronic pelvic pain syndrome (Correct Answer)
E. Chronic epididymitis
Explanation: ***Chronic pelvic pain syndrome***
- This patient's symptoms of **diffuse perineal and scrotal pain**, **pain with ejaculation**, and **dysuria** for 3 months, without fever or signs of infection (negative urine culture, normal WBCs in prostatic secretions), are classic for **chronic pelvic pain syndrome (CPPS)**.
- The findings of a mildly tender prostate without induration, normal scrotal ultrasound, and negative infectious workup further support the diagnosis of CPPS, differentiating it from infectious or structural causes.
*Benign prostatic hyperplasia*
- While common in this age group, **BPH** primarily causes **obstructive and irritative lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)**, such as nocturia, hesitancy, and weak stream.
- It typically does not cause diffuse perineal or scrotal pain, nor pain with ejaculation, which are prominent features in this case.
*Bladder neck cancer*
- **Bladder neck cancer** can cause symptoms like **hematuria**, **dysuria**, and **urinary frequency**, but diffuse perineal/scrotal pain and pain with ejaculation are less typical.
- There are no symptoms or signs (e.g., macroscopic hematuria, significant irritative LUTS, suspicious imaging) in the patient's presentation to suggest bladder cancer.
*Prostatic abscess*
- A **prostatic abscess** would typically present with **severe systemic symptoms** including **fever**, chills, and more pronounced localized pain.
- The absence of fever and the localized nature of the findings (mildly tender prostate) make a prostatic abscess highly unlikely.
*Chronic epididymitis*
- **Chronic epididymitis** causes **localized pain and tenderness in the epididymis**, often unilateral, and can be associated with swelling.
- This patient's pain is described as diffuse perineal and scrotal, without specific epididymal tenderness, and scrotal ultrasonography is normal, ruling out epididymitis.
Question 300: A 25-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider for fatigue. She states that she has felt fatigued for the past 6 months and has tried multiple diets and sleep schedules to improve her condition, but none have succeeded. She has no significant past medical history. She is currently taking a multivitamin, folate, B12, iron, fish oil, whey protein, baby aspirin, copper, and krill oil. Her temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 107/58 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory values are as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 8 g/dL
Hematocrit: 24%
Leukocyte count: 6,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 147,000/mm^3
Physical exam is notable for decreased proprioception in the lower extremities and 4/5 strength in the patient's upper and lower extremities. Which of the following is the best next step in management to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Homocysteine level
B. Transferrin level
C. Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies (Correct Answer)
D. Iron level
E. Bone marrow biopsy
Explanation: ***Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies***
- The patient's **macrocytic anemia** and **neurological symptoms** (decreased proprioception and weakness) **despite oral B12 supplementation** strongly suggest **pernicious anemia**, an autoimmune condition causing **B12 malabsorption**.
- **Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies** are highly specific (>95%) for pernicious anemia and would confirm the diagnosis by demonstrating an autoimmune attack on intrinsic factor, which is essential for vitamin B12 absorption in the terminal ileum.
- The key clue is that she is **already taking B12 orally** but still has deficiency symptoms, indicating malabsorption rather than dietary insufficiency.
*Homocysteine level*
- An elevated **homocysteine level** can support **B12 or folate deficiency**, but it is **not specific** and would not differentiate between dietary deficiency and malabsorption due to pernicious anemia.
- Since she is already supplementing with both B12 and folate, this test would not confirm the underlying cause (pernicious anemia), which is crucial for appropriate management.
*Transferrin level*
- **Transferrin** is an iron-binding protein; an elevated level suggests **iron deficiency**, but the patient is already taking iron supplementation and the clinical picture points to B12 deficiency.
- This test would assess iron status but would not explain the **neurological symptoms** (subacute combined degeneration from B12 deficiency) or the lack of response to oral B12 supplementation.
*Iron level*
- An **iron level** would assess iron stores, which may contribute to anemia, but it would not explain the **neurological symptoms** or the **failure to respond to oral B12 supplementation**.
- While iron deficiency can cause fatigue and anemia, it does not cause **decreased proprioception** or the specific neurological findings of B12 deficiency (posterior column and corticospinal tract involvement).
*Bone marrow biopsy*
- A **bone marrow biopsy** is an invasive procedure generally reserved for unexplained cytopenias or suspicion of primary bone marrow disorders like **aplastic anemia** or **myelodysplastic syndromes**.
- Given the clear clinical picture of B12 malabsorption (anemia with neurological symptoms despite oral supplementation), less invasive and more specific serological tests like anti-intrinsic factor antibodies should be pursued first to confirm pernicious anemia.