A 16-year-old Caucasian boy presents to your family practice office complaining of itchiness. He denies other symptoms. He also denies tobacco, alcohol, or other illicit drug use and is not sexually active. He has no other significant past medical or surgical history aside from a meniscal repair from a wrestling injury sustained two years ago from which he has recovered fully. Vitals are T 98.3, HR 67, BP 110/70. On exam you note several pruritic, erythematous, slightly raised annular patches with central clearing on his back.
Which of the following additional tests or features are sufficient to make the diagnosis of this boy's skin lesion?
Q22
A 29-year-old woman presents for an annual flu shot. She has no symptoms. Past medical history is significant for mild rheumatoid arthritis, diagnosed 3 years ago and managed with celecoxib and methotrexate. Current medications also include a daily folate-containing multivitamin. She also had 2 elective cesarean sections during her early 20s and an appendectomy in her teens. Her family history is insignificant. The patient does not consume alcohol, smoke cigarettes, or take recreational drugs. Her physical examination is unremarkable. Recent laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin (Hb) 14.2 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 103 fL
Since she is asymptomatic, the patient asks if her medications can be discontinued. Which of the following diagnostic tests is the most useful for monitoring this patient’s condition and detecting the overall inflammatory state of the patient at this time?
Q23
A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician because of an 8-month history of worsening difficulties swallowing food and retrosternal chest discomfort. She reports that she sometimes has a feeling of "food getting stuck" in her throat and hears a "gurgling sound" from her throat while eating. She says that she occasionally coughs up pieces of undigested food. She has noticed a bad taste in her mouth and bad breath. She has not had fever or weight loss. She has been visiting Mexico every year for the past 7 years. She has Raynaud disease treated with nifedipine. Her father died because of gastric cancer. She had smoked one-half pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years but stopped 25 years ago. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Her hemoglobin concentration is 14 g/dL, leukocyte count is 9800/mm3, and platelet count is 215,000/mm3. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with no evidence of ischemia. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Q24
A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department concerned about a large amount of blood in his recent bowel movement. He states he was at home when he noticed a large amount of red blood in his stool. He is not experiencing any pain and otherwise feels well. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes and obesity. His temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 147/88 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals a non-distressed man. His abdomen is non-tender, and he has normoactive bowel sounds. Stool guaiac test is positive for blood. The patient is started on IV fluids and kept nil per os. His next bowel movement 4 hours later appears grossly normal. Which of the following interventions will most likely reduce future complications in this patient?
Q25
Five days after undergoing an open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, a 68-year-old woman has crampy abdominal pain. During this period, she has also had two episodes of loose, bloody stools. Her surgery was complicated by severe blood loss requiring the administration of vasopressors and multiple transfusions. Cefazolin was administered as a perioperative antibiotic. The patient has hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and coronary artery disease. The patient has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for 50 years and drinks 3–4 glasses of wine every week. Her current medications include hydrochlorothiazide, atorvastatin, amlodipine, aspirin, and metoprolol. She appears ill. Her temperature is 38.0°C (100.4°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 96/58 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a distended abdomen with absent bowel sounds. The abdomen is exquisitely tender to palpation in all quadrants. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows an S4 gallop. An x-ray of the abdomen shows air-filled distended bowel. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q26
A 53-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis comes to the physician for a follow-up examination one week after being discharged from the hospital. While she was in the hospital, she received acetaminophen and erythropoietin. This patient most likely has which of the following additional conditions?
Q27
A 59-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for trouble sleeping. The patient states that when she goes to bed at night she has an urge to get up out of bed and walk around. The patient often wakes her husband when she does this which irritates him. She states that there is a perpetual uneasiness and feeling of a need to move at night which is relieved by getting up and walking around. The patient denies symptoms during the day. She works as a mail carrier and is nearing retirement. She has a past medical history of anxiety, depression, irritable bowel syndrome, and dysmenorrhea. She is not currently taking any medications. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 157/98 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals 5/5 strength in the upper and lower extremities, 2+ reflexes in the upper and lower extremities, a stable gait pattern, and normal sensation. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal exams are within normal limits. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
Q28
A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department for fever and altered mental status. The patient was found by his wife in his chair at home. She noticed he responded incoherently to her questions. He has a past medical history of pancreatitis and alcohol abuse and is currently in a rehabilitation program. His temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 127/68 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory values are obtained and shown below.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 29 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Ca2+: 5.2 mg/dL
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol: 50 nmol/L
Physical exam notes a diffusely distended and tender abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely symptom this patient is experiencing secondary to his laboratory abnormalities?
Q29
A 46-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider reporting several weeks of fatigue and recent episodes of lightheadedness. She is concerned that she will have an episode while driving. She has never lost consciousness, and reports that there is no associated vertigo or dizziness. She states that she normally goes for a jog 3 times a week but that she has become winded much more easily and has not been able to run as far. On exam, her temperature is 97.9°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 110/68 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 14/min. Auscultation of the lungs reveals no abnormalities. On laboratory testing, her hemoglobin is found to be 8.0 g/dL. At this point, the patient reveals that she was also recently diagnosed with fibroids, which have led to heavier and longer menstrual bleeds in the past several months. Which of the following would suggest that menstrual bleeding is the cause of this patient’s anemia?
Q30
A 75-year-old woman presents with episodic abdominal pain following meals for the past few years. She says these episodes have worsened over the past month. Past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus diagnosed 30 years ago, managed with metformin. Her most recent HbA1C last month was 10%. Vital signs include: blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg, pulse 80/min, and respiratory rate 16/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 16-year-old Caucasian boy presents to your family practice office complaining of itchiness. He denies other symptoms. He also denies tobacco, alcohol, or other illicit drug use and is not sexually active. He has no other significant past medical or surgical history aside from a meniscal repair from a wrestling injury sustained two years ago from which he has recovered fully. Vitals are T 98.3, HR 67, BP 110/70. On exam you note several pruritic, erythematous, slightly raised annular patches with central clearing on his back.
Which of the following additional tests or features are sufficient to make the diagnosis of this boy's skin lesion?
A. Presence of hyphae when KOH added to skin scrapings (Correct Answer)
B. History of recent herald patch and lesions along skin cleavage lines
C. Acid-fast bacilli on smear from skin scrapings
D. History of time spent in a Lyme-endemic region
E. Symmetrical distribution on bilateral extremities progressing proximally
Explanation: ***Presence of hyphae when KOH added to skin scrapings***
- The description of **pruritic, erythematous, slightly raised annular patches with central clearing** is highly suggestive of **tinea corporis** (ringworm), a superficial fungal infection.
- Visualization of **hyphae** on a **potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount** of skin scrapings confirms the presence of dermatophytes, thus confirming the diagnosis.
*History of recent herald patch and lesions along skin cleavage lines*
- This constellation of findings is characteristic of **pityriasis rosea**, which typically presents with a **herald patch** followed by smaller, oval lesions distributed along **Langer's lines** (skin cleavage lines).
- Pityriasis rosea is usually asymptomatic or mildly pruritic and does not typically present with the same degree of central clearing or the need for fungal confirmation.
*Acid-fast bacilli on smear from skin scrapings*
- The presence of **acid-fast bacilli** on a smear from skin scrapings would suggest a **mycobacterial infection**, such as cutaneous tuberculosis or atypical mycobacterial infection.
- This is inconsistent with the described annular, centrally clearing patch and the common presentation of these infections.
*History of time spent in a Lyme-endemic region*
- A history of time spent in a **Lyme-endemic region** would raise suspicion for **Lyme disease**, which can present with **erythema migrans**, a characteristic annular rash.
- While erythema migrans can have central clearing, it does not typically itch as severely, is often larger (exceeding 5 cm), and would not show hyphae on KOH prep.
*Symmetrical distribution on bilateral extremities progressing proximally*
- A **symmetrical distribution on bilateral extremities progressing proximally** could describe a drug eruption or certain types of vasculitis.
- This pattern does not fit the description of isolated, annular, centrally clearing plaques on the back, nor does it typically present primarily with itchiness in this manner.
Question 22: A 29-year-old woman presents for an annual flu shot. She has no symptoms. Past medical history is significant for mild rheumatoid arthritis, diagnosed 3 years ago and managed with celecoxib and methotrexate. Current medications also include a daily folate-containing multivitamin. She also had 2 elective cesarean sections during her early 20s and an appendectomy in her teens. Her family history is insignificant. The patient does not consume alcohol, smoke cigarettes, or take recreational drugs. Her physical examination is unremarkable. Recent laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin (Hb) 14.2 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 103 fL
Since she is asymptomatic, the patient asks if her medications can be discontinued. Which of the following diagnostic tests is the most useful for monitoring this patient’s condition and detecting the overall inflammatory state of the patient at this time?
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
B. Complete blood count
C. Rheumatoid factor (RF)
D. C-reactive protein (CRP) (Correct Answer)
E. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP)
Explanation: ***C-reactive protein (CRP)***
- **CRP** is an acute phase reactant that is rapidly produced by the liver in response to inflammatory cytokines, making it a sensitive and objective marker for systemic inflammation.
- It has a shorter half-life than ESR, allowing for a more **dynamic assessment of disease activity** and response to treatment in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis.
*Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)*
- While **ESR** is also a marker of inflammation, it is less specific and sensitive than CRP because it is influenced by many factors, including age, gender, and other medical conditions.
- ESR changes more slowly than CRP, making it less useful for promptly monitoring acute changes in **disease activity** or treatment effectiveness.
*Complete blood count*
- A **complete blood count (CBC)** primarily evaluates different blood cell types and can indicate anemia (though not present here), infection, or medication side effects (e.g., myelosuppression from methotrexate, which often causes **macrocytosis** as seen by the elevated MCV).
- While it's important for monitoring methotrexate-related side effects, it is not a direct measure of the systemic **inflammatory state** in rheumatoid arthritis.
*Rheumatoid factor (RF)*
- **Rheumatoid factor (RF)** is an autoantibody primarily used for the diagnosis and classification of rheumatoid arthritis, rather than for monitoring disease activity.
- Its levels do not consistently correlate with the degree of inflammation or clinical improvement over time, making it a poor choice for **monitoring disease progression**.
*Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP)*
- **Anti-CCP antibodies** are highly specific for rheumatoid arthritis and are primarily used for diagnosis and prognosis, especially in predicting more erosive disease.
- Similar to RF, anti-CCP levels do not reliably fluctuate with changes in disease activity or inflammation, so they are not suitable for **routine monitoring**.
Question 23: A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician because of an 8-month history of worsening difficulties swallowing food and retrosternal chest discomfort. She reports that she sometimes has a feeling of "food getting stuck" in her throat and hears a "gurgling sound" from her throat while eating. She says that she occasionally coughs up pieces of undigested food. She has noticed a bad taste in her mouth and bad breath. She has not had fever or weight loss. She has been visiting Mexico every year for the past 7 years. She has Raynaud disease treated with nifedipine. Her father died because of gastric cancer. She had smoked one-half pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years but stopped 25 years ago. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Her hemoglobin concentration is 14 g/dL, leukocyte count is 9800/mm3, and platelet count is 215,000/mm3. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with no evidence of ischemia. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. Esophageal pH monitoring
C. Barium esophagram (Correct Answer)
D. Endoscopic ultrasound
E. Serology and PCR
Explanation: ***Barium esophagram***
- The patient's symptoms, including **dysphagia**, **"food getting stuck," "gurgling sound,"** and **regurgitation of undigested food**, are classic for an **esophageal diverticulum**, specifically a **Zenker's diverticulum**.
- A **barium esophagram** is the **most definitive diagnostic tool** for identifying the presence, size, and location of an esophageal diverticulum, as it can visualize the outpouching of the mucosa through the posterior wall of the hypopharynx.
*Esophagogastroduodenoscopy*
- While EGD can visualize the esophagus, it carries a **risk of perforation** when attempting to navigate through a Zenker's diverticulum, and can miss the diverticulum if the scope enters the true esophageal lumen.
- It is primarily used for direct visualization of the esophageal lining, **biopsy**, and identifying conditions like esophagitis or ulcers, not typically for structural malformations like a diverticulum.
*Esophageal pH monitoring*
- This test is used to measure **gastroesophageal reflux (GERD)** by detecting acid exposure in the esophagus.
- The patient's symptoms are not typical for GERD, and her description of regurgitating **undigested food** points away from acid reflux.
*Endoscopic ultrasound*
- EUS provides detailed imaging of the esophageal wall and surrounding structures, primarily to stage **esophageal cancer** or evaluate submucosal lesions.
- It is not the primary diagnostic tool for identifying a structural pouch like a Zenker's diverticulum, which is better visualized by contrast studies.
*Serology and PCR*
- These tests are used to detect infections (e.g., **Chagas disease, CMV, HIV**) or autoimmune conditions that might affect esophageal motility.
- The patient's symptoms are mechanical and structural rather than infectious or rheumatological in nature, making serology and PCR unlikely to confirm the diagnosis.
Question 24: A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department concerned about a large amount of blood in his recent bowel movement. He states he was at home when he noticed a large amount of red blood in his stool. He is not experiencing any pain and otherwise feels well. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes and obesity. His temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 147/88 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals a non-distressed man. His abdomen is non-tender, and he has normoactive bowel sounds. Stool guaiac test is positive for blood. The patient is started on IV fluids and kept nil per os. His next bowel movement 4 hours later appears grossly normal. Which of the following interventions will most likely reduce future complications in this patient?
A. Sigmoid colon resection
B. Reduce red meat consumption
C. Sitz baths
D. Ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
E. Increase fiber and fluid intake (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increase fiber and fluid intake***
- The patient's presentation with **painless large volume rectal bleeding** and prompt cessation suggests **diverticular bleeding**. Increasing **dietary fiber** and fluid mechanically reduces stress on the colon wall, helping to prevent future diverticula formation and bleeding events.
- Diverticular disease is strongly associated with a **low-fiber diet** leading to increased intraluminal pressure, which can cause diverticula to form and bleed.
*Sigmoid colon resection*
- This is an **invasive surgical procedure** typically reserved for recurrent, severe, or complicated diverticulitis (e.g., perforation, fistula formation, obstruction), not for uncomplicated diverticular bleeding that resolves spontaneously.
- Surgery carries risks and is a last resort; conservative management is preferred for stable, self-limiting bleeding.
*Reduce red meat consumption*
- While a diet high in red meat has been linked to an increased risk of diverticulitis, its direct role in preventing diverticular bleeding is less established compared to fiber intake.
- Reducing red meat intake alone would not address the primary mechanical cause of diverticula formation and bleeding related to low fiber.
*Sitz baths*
- **Sitz baths** are primarily used to relieve symptoms associated with **anal conditions** such as hemorrhoids or anal fissures, which typically cause painful bleeding and are not consistent with this patient's painless, large-volume bleeding.
- This intervention would not address the underlying cause of painless diverticular bleeding.
*Ciprofloxacin and metronidazole*
- This antibiotic regimen is used to treat **acute diverticulitis**, an inflammatory condition characterized by abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis.
- The patient's presentation of painless bleeding with no signs of infection (no fever, non-tender abdomen) does not indicate diverticulitis, so antibiotics are inappropriate.
Question 25: Five days after undergoing an open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, a 68-year-old woman has crampy abdominal pain. During this period, she has also had two episodes of loose, bloody stools. Her surgery was complicated by severe blood loss requiring the administration of vasopressors and multiple transfusions. Cefazolin was administered as a perioperative antibiotic. The patient has hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and coronary artery disease. The patient has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for 50 years and drinks 3–4 glasses of wine every week. Her current medications include hydrochlorothiazide, atorvastatin, amlodipine, aspirin, and metoprolol. She appears ill. Her temperature is 38.0°C (100.4°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 96/58 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a distended abdomen with absent bowel sounds. The abdomen is exquisitely tender to palpation in all quadrants. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows an S4 gallop. An x-ray of the abdomen shows air-filled distended bowel. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture
B. Postoperative ileus
C. Ischemic colitis (Correct Answer)
D. Abdominal compartment syndrome
E. Pseudomembranous colitis
Explanation: ***Ischemic colitis***
- The patient's history of **severe blood loss**, requiring **vasopressors** and transfusions during **abdominal aortic aneurysm repair**, significantly increases the risk of **mesenteric ischemia**. The current presentation with **crampy abdominal pain**, **bloody stools**, **distended abdomen**, and **absent bowel sounds** is highly consistent with ischemic colitis, particularly given the systemic signs of illness (fever, tachycardia, hypotension).
- The use of **vasopressors** can lead to **splanchnic vasoconstriction**, reducing blood flow to the colon, especially the **watershed areas** (e.g., splenic flexure, rectosigmoid junction). This makes the colon vulnerable to ischemia following a hypotensive or hypoperfusion event.
*Abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture*
- This patient already underwent an open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, meaning the aneurysm has been addressed. While a graft complication could occur, a new rupture of the *original* aneurysm as the primary diagnosis five days post-op is unlikely in this context.
- Abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture typically presents with **acute, severe abdominal or back pain**, often radiating to the groin or flank, and profound **hypotension** or shock due to massive blood loss into the retroperitoneum or peritoneum. There would also likely be pulsatile abdominal mass or signs of retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
*Postoperative ileus*
- **Postoperative ileus** is common after abdominal surgery and presents with **abdominal distention**, **nausea**, **vomiting**, and **absent bowel sounds**. However, it typically does not cause **bloody stools** or the systemic signs of illness like hypotension and fever seen in this patient, and it is usually not associated with exquisite tenderness in all quadrants.
- The presence of **bloody stools** strongly suggests a more serious pathology involving mucosal damage, such as ischemia or inflammation, rather than just functional bowel paralysis.
*Abdominal compartment syndrome*
- **Abdominal compartment syndrome** typically presents with progressively increasing **intra-abdominal pressure**, leading to **abdominal distention**, **tense abdomen**, and **organ dysfunction** (e.g., oliguria, respiratory compromise). While the patient has distention and severe tenderness, there's no mention of specific signs of organ compression, and bloody stools are not a primary feature.
- It usually develops acutely (within 24-48 hours) after major abdominal surgery, trauma, or massive fluid resuscitation. Although the patient had a complicated surgery, the delayed onset with bloody stools points away from isolated abdominal compartment syndrome as the primary issue.
*Pseudomembranous colitis*
- **Pseudomembranous colitis**, caused by *Clostridioides difficile* infection, is a possibility given the recent **antibiotic use (cefazolin)**. However, while it causes **crampy abdominal pain** and **diarrhea** (often bloody in severe cases), the presence of **hypotension** and the direct link to the **hypoperfusion event** during surgery make ischemic colitis a more immediate and likely diagnosis.
- Diagnosis requires detection of *C. difficile* toxin in stool. While possible, the clinical picture strongly favors ischemia due to the preceding severe blood loss and vasopressor use, which are direct risk factors for ischemic colitis.
Question 26: A 53-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis comes to the physician for a follow-up examination one week after being discharged from the hospital. While she was in the hospital, she received acetaminophen and erythropoietin. This patient most likely has which of the following additional conditions?
A. Anemia of chronic disease (Correct Answer)
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Vitamin K deficiency
D. Agranulocytosis
E. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation: ***Anemia of chronic disease***
- The use of **erythropoietin** in a patient with **rheumatoid arthritis** strongly suggests the presence of anemia of chronic disease, as rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory condition that often leads to this type of anemia.
- **Erythropoietin** is a common treatment for anemia of chronic disease because the inflammation suppresses erythropoiesis and reduces the kidney's production of erythropoietin.
*Factor VIII deficiency*
- This condition is also known as **hemophilia A**, a genetic bleeding disorder characterized by frequent and prolonged bleeding episodes, typically affecting males.
- There is no information in the vignette to suggest bleeding or a history consistent with **Factor VIII deficiency**.
*Vitamin K deficiency*
- **Vitamin K deficiency** primarily affects **coagulation** by impairing the synthesis of clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X).
- This would present with bleeding tendencies, not anemia that responds to **erythropoietin**.
*Agranulocytosis*
- **Agranulocytosis** is a severe reduction in **granulocytes** (a type of white blood cell), increasing susceptibility to infections.
- It is not directly related to rheumatoid arthritis causing anemia, and erythropoietin would not be the appropriate treatment.
*Immune thrombocytopenic purpura*
- **Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)** is a disorder causing a low platelet count due to immune destruction, leading to bleeding and bruising.
- This condition primarily affects **platelets**, and its treatment does not involve erythropoietin.
Question 27: A 59-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for trouble sleeping. The patient states that when she goes to bed at night she has an urge to get up out of bed and walk around. The patient often wakes her husband when she does this which irritates him. She states that there is a perpetual uneasiness and feeling of a need to move at night which is relieved by getting up and walking around. The patient denies symptoms during the day. She works as a mail carrier and is nearing retirement. She has a past medical history of anxiety, depression, irritable bowel syndrome, and dysmenorrhea. She is not currently taking any medications. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 157/98 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals 5/5 strength in the upper and lower extremities, 2+ reflexes in the upper and lower extremities, a stable gait pattern, and normal sensation. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal exams are within normal limits. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
A. Alprazolam
B. Ferrous sulfate
C. Pramipexole
D. Iron studies (Correct Answer)
E. Supportive therapy and an exercise routine
Explanation: ***Iron studies***
- The patient's symptoms of an **urge to move** the legs, uneasiness, relief with movement, and nighttime predominance are classic for **Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS)**.
- **Iron deficiency** is a common and treatable cause or exacerbating factor for RLS, making iron studies the essential initial diagnostic step.
*Alprazolam*
- **Benzodiazepines** like alprazolam can be used to manage sleep disturbances associated with RLS, but they primarily treat symptoms and do not address the underlying cause.
- This medication should be considered after addressing potential underlying causes and if other first-line treatments are insufficient, due to risks of **tolerance and dependence**.
*Ferrous sulfate*
- While **iron supplementation** is an appropriate treatment for RLS when iron deficiency is confirmed, it should only be initiated **after laboratory confirmation** of low iron stores.
- Administering iron without confirming deficiency can lead to **iron overload**, which can be harmful.
*Pramipexole*
- **Dopamine agonists** like pramipexole are effective treatments for RLS, especially in moderate to severe cases.
- However, they are typically considered a **second-line treatment** after addressing iron deficiency and optimizing lifestyle, as they have potential side effects including augmentation.
*Supportive therapy and an exercise routine*
- **Lifestyle modifications**, such as regular moderate exercise, avoiding caffeine, and maintaining good sleep hygiene, are important supportive measures for RLS.
- While beneficial, these alone are usually **insufficient** for the described severity of symptoms and do not address the potential underlying iron deficiency.
Question 28: A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department for fever and altered mental status. The patient was found by his wife in his chair at home. She noticed he responded incoherently to her questions. He has a past medical history of pancreatitis and alcohol abuse and is currently in a rehabilitation program. His temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 127/68 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory values are obtained and shown below.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 29 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Ca2+: 5.2 mg/dL
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol: 50 nmol/L
Physical exam notes a diffusely distended and tender abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely symptom this patient is experiencing secondary to his laboratory abnormalities?
A. Asymptomatic
B. Paresthesias (Correct Answer)
C. QT prolongation
D. Laryngospasm
E. Tetany
Explanation: ***Paresthesias***
- The patient's **calcium level of 5.2 mg/dL** is critically low, indicating severe **hypocalcemia**.
- **Paresthesias** (tingling around the mouth and in the extremities) are a common early symptom of hypocalcemia due to increased neuronal excitability.
*Asymptomatic*
- A calcium level of **5.2 mg/dL is severely low** and is very unlikely to be asymptomatic.
- Significant hypocalcemia almost always leads to neurological or neuromuscular symptoms.
*QT prolongation*
- While hypocalcemia can cause **QT prolongation** on an EKG, it is an **EKG finding**, not a symptom the patient experiences directly.
- The question asks for a "symptom this patient is experiencing."
*Laryngospasm*
- Although **laryngospasm** can occur with severe hypocalcemia, it is a **spasm of the vocal cords**, which is a more severe and less common manifestation.
- **Paresthesias** are generally the first and most common symptomatic presentation.
*Tetany*
- **Tetany** (muscle spasms, twitching, and cramps) is a symptom of hypocalcemia, but it is typically a **later and more severe manifestation** than paresthesias.
- The increased neuronal excitability first manifests as sensory disturbances like paresthesias.
Question 29: A 46-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider reporting several weeks of fatigue and recent episodes of lightheadedness. She is concerned that she will have an episode while driving. She has never lost consciousness, and reports that there is no associated vertigo or dizziness. She states that she normally goes for a jog 3 times a week but that she has become winded much more easily and has not been able to run as far. On exam, her temperature is 97.9°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 110/68 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 14/min. Auscultation of the lungs reveals no abnormalities. On laboratory testing, her hemoglobin is found to be 8.0 g/dL. At this point, the patient reveals that she was also recently diagnosed with fibroids, which have led to heavier and longer menstrual bleeds in the past several months. Which of the following would suggest that menstrual bleeding is the cause of this patient’s anemia?
A. Normocytic anemia, increased TIBC, increased ferritin
B. Microcytic anemia, increased TIBC, increased ferritin
C. Normocytic anemia, decreased TIBC, increased ferritin
D. Microcytic anemia, increased TIBC, decreased ferritin (Correct Answer)
E. Macrocytic anemia, decreased TIBC, decreased ferritin
Explanation: ***Microcytic anemia, increased TIBC, decreased ferritin***
- Heavy menstrual bleeding leads to **chronic blood loss**, which depletes **iron stores**, causing **iron deficiency anemia**.
- **Iron deficiency anemia** is characterized by **microcytic hypochromic red blood cells**, decreased ferritin (indicating low iron stores), and increased TIBC (as the body tries to absorb more iron).
*Normocytic anemia, increased TIBC, increased ferritin*
- **Normocytic anemia** is typically seen in early stages of iron deficiency, chronic disease, or acute blood loss, but not with increased ferritin.
- **Increased ferritin** indicates iron overload or inflammation, which is contrary to iron deficiency caused by menstrual bleeding.
*Microcytic anemia, increased TIBC, increased ferritin*
- While **microcytic anemia** and **increased TIBC** are consistent with iron deficiency, **increased ferritin** is not.
- Increased ferritin would suggest **iron overload** or **inflammation**, making iron deficiency less likely.
*Normocytic anemia, decreased TIBC, increased ferritin*
- **Normocytic anemia** with **decreased TIBC** and **increased ferritin** is characteristic of **anemia of chronic disease**, where iron is trapped in macrophages.
- This pattern contradicts the iron deficiency expected with heavy menstrual bleeding.
*Macrocytic anemia, decreased TIBC, decreased ferritin*
- **Macrocytic anemia** is typically associated with **B12** or **folate deficiency**, not iron deficiency from blood loss.
- While **decreased ferritin** is consistent with iron deficiency, **decreased TIBC** would contradict iron deficiency from blood loss as the body attempts to absorb more iron.
Question 30: A 75-year-old woman presents with episodic abdominal pain following meals for the past few years. She says these episodes have worsened over the past month. Past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus diagnosed 30 years ago, managed with metformin. Her most recent HbA1C last month was 10%. Vital signs include: blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg, pulse 80/min, and respiratory rate 16/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Chronic renal failure
B. Ruptured aortic aneurysm
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Mesenteric artery occlusion (Correct Answer)
E. Hepatic infarction
Explanation: ***Mesenteric artery occlusion***
- The patient's long-standing diabetes, poor glycemic control (**HbA1C 10%**), and postprandial abdominal pain worsening over time are highly suggestive of **chronic mesenteric ischemia** due to atherosclerosis.
- This condition is often described as "abdominal angina" and is caused by **occlusion of mesenteric arteries**, leading to reduced blood flow to the intestines, especially after meals when digestive demands increase blood supply.
*Chronic renal failure*
- While chronic diabetes can lead to **renal insufficiency** (nephropathy), abdominal pain is not a primary or typical presenting symptom of chronic renal failure itself.
- The patient's blood pressure is normal, and there are no other symptoms or signs indicative of advanced kidney disease.
*Ruptured aortic aneurysm*
- A ruptured aortic aneurysm typically presents with **sudden, severe, tearing abdominal or back pain**, often accompanied by profound hypotension and hemodynamic instability.
- The patient's symptoms are chronic, episodic, and gradually worsening, and her vital signs are stable, making a ruptured aneurysm unlikely.
*Acute pancreatitis*
- Acute pancreatitis usually presents with **severe, constant epigastric pain** radiating to the back, often associated with nausea, vomiting, and elevated amylase and lipase levels.
- The patient's pain is postprandial, episodic, and chronic, which is not characteristic of acute pancreatitis.
*Hepatic infarction*
- Hepatic infarction is a rare condition that typically presents with **acute, severe right upper quadrant pain**, fever, and elevated liver enzymes.
- There are no clinical signs or risk factors specifically pointing to hepatic infarction in this patient, and the episodic, postprandial nature of her pain does not align with this diagnosis.