A 52-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of upper abdominal pain and nausea that occurs about 3 hours after eating and at night. These symptoms improve with eating. After eating, he often has a feeling of fullness and bloating. He has had several episodes of dark stools over the past month. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years and drinks 2 alcoholic beverages daily. He takes no medications. His temperature is 36.4°C (97.5°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows epigastric tenderness with no guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are normal. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate to prevent further complications of the disease in this patient?
Q272
A 62-year-old man, a retired oil pipeline engineer, presents to his primary care physician with complaints of headaches, fatigue, and constant ringing in his ears. Recurrently he has developed pruritus, usually after a hot shower. He also noted a constant burning sensation in his fingers and toes, independent of physical activity. On examination, he has a red face and his blood pressure levels are 147/89 mm Hg. A CBC revealed that his Hb is 19.0 g/dL and Hct is 59%. Because of his condition, his physician prescribes him 81 mg of aspirin to be taken daily in addition to therapeutic phlebotomy. Which of the statements below is true about this patient’s condition?
Q273
A 32-year-old man presents to his physician with a complaint of pain with urination that has developed and persisted over the past 8 days. Upon awakening today, he also noted a clear discharge from his urethra. The patient states he is otherwise healthy. Social history is notable for the patient working at a local farm with livestock. Review of systems is notable for left knee and ankle pain for the past week and worsening of his seasonal allergies with red and itchy eyes. His temperature is 97.7°F (36.5°C), blood pressure is 122/83 mmHg, pulse is 89/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Which of the following is likely to be positive in this patient?
Q274
A 59-year-old female presents to your office with complaints of progressive numbness and tingling in her fingers and toes over the last several months. She also reports "feeling weak" in her arms and legs. The patient's past medical history is significant for hypertension and Crohn's disease, which has been well-controlled since undergoing an ileocolectomy 7 years ago. Physical examination is significant for the following findings: decreased sensation to light touch, temperature, and vibration in the bilateral lower extremities; ataxia; positive Romberg sign. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?
Q275
A 42-year-old woman presents complaining of pain in her hands. She reports that the pain is in both hands, and that it is usually worse in the morning. She reports that her hands are also stiff in the morning, but that this gradually improves throughout the morning. She notes, however, that her symptoms seem to be getting worse over the last three months. What is the most likely pathogenesis of her disease process?
Q276
A 24-year-old African American college student comes to the office for a scheduled visit. He has been healthy, although he reports occasional flank discomfort which comes and goes. He denies any fever, chills, dysuria, or polyuria in the past year. His vaccinations are up to date. His family history is unknown, as he was adopted. He smokes 1 pack of cigarettes every 3 days, drinks socially, and denies any current illicit drug use, although he endorses a history of injection drug use. He currently works as a waiter to afford his college tuition. His physical examination shows a young man with a lean build, normal heart sounds, clear breath sounds, bowel sounds within normal limits, and no lower extremity edema. You order a urinalysis which shows 8 red blood cells (RBCs) per high-power field (HPF). The test is repeated several weeks later and shows 6 RBCs/HPF. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q277
A 24-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of a severely pruritic skin rash. Physical examination shows a symmetrical rash over the knees and elbows with tense, grouped vesicles, and several excoriation marks. Microabscesses in the papillary dermis are seen on light microscopy. Immunofluorescence shows deposits of immunoglobulin A at the tips of dermal papillae. This patient's skin findings are most likely associated with which of the following?
Q278
A 33-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 14-hour history of left flank pain associated with dark urine. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F). The abdomen is soft with normal bowel sounds. There is guarding on the left lateral side and tenderness to palpation over the left costophrenic angle. An x-ray of the abdomen shows an 8-mm kidney stone. Stone analysis reveals a calcium oxalate stone. In addition to adequate hydration, which of the following diets should be advised for this patient?
Q279
A 45-year-old woman presents with fever, chills, nausea, and dysuria. She says her symptoms started 4 days ago and have progressively worsened. Her past medical history is significant for recurrent UTIs for the past 6 months and for diabetes mellitus type 2, diagnosed 5 years ago and treated with metformin. Her vital signs include: temperature 39.5°C (103.1°F), blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg, pulse 90/min, and respiratory rate 23/min. On physical examination, moderate right costovertebral angle tenderness is noted. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
WBC 9,500/mm3
RBC 4.20 x 106/mm3
Hematocrit 41.5%
Hemoglobin 13.0 g/dL
Platelet count 225,000/mm3
Urinalysis:
Color Dark yellow
Clarity Turbid
pH 5.5
Specific gravity 1.021
Glucose None
Ketones None
Nitrites Positive
Leukocyte esterase Positive
Bilirubin Negative
Urobilirubin 0.6 mg/dL
Protein Trace
Blood None
WBC 25/hpf
Bacteria Many
Urine culture and sensitivities are pending. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Q280
A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 12-month history of upper abdominal pain. The pain is worse after eating, which she reports as 7 out of 10 in intensity. Over the last year, she has also had nausea, heartburn, and multiple episodes of diarrhea with no blood or mucus. Eight months ago, she underwent an upper endoscopy, which showed several ulcers in the gastric antrum, the pylorus, and the duodenum, as well as thick gastric folds. The biopsies from these ulcers were negative for H. pylori. Current medications include pantoprazole and over-the-counter antacids. She appears anxious. Vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and there is tenderness to palpation in the epigastric and umbilical areas. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. A repeat upper endoscopy shows persistent gastric and duodenal ulceration with minimal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 271: A 52-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of upper abdominal pain and nausea that occurs about 3 hours after eating and at night. These symptoms improve with eating. After eating, he often has a feeling of fullness and bloating. He has had several episodes of dark stools over the past month. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years and drinks 2 alcoholic beverages daily. He takes no medications. His temperature is 36.4°C (97.5°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows epigastric tenderness with no guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are normal. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate to prevent further complications of the disease in this patient?
A. Intravenous vitamin B12 supplementation
B. Truncal vagotomy
C. Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole (Correct Answer)
D. Fundoplication, hiatoplasty, and gastropexy
E. Distal gastrectomy with gastroduodenostomy
Explanation: ***Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole***
- This patient's symptoms (epigastric pain 3 hours after eating and at night, improvement with eating, dark stools) are highly suggestive of a **duodenal ulcer complicated by upper gastrointestinal bleeding**. The most common cause of duodenal ulcers is *H. pylori* infection.
- The recommended first-line treatment for *H. pylori* infection involves a triple therapy regimen, including two antibiotics (like **amoxicillin and clarithromycin**) to eradicate the bacteria and a **proton pump inhibitor (omeprazole)** to reduce acid production and promote ulcer healing.
*Intravenous vitamin B12 supplementation*
- This treatment is appropriate for **vitamin B12 deficiency**, which can occur in conditions like atrophic gastritis, pernicious anemia, or following gastric resections, but is not indicated for acute peptic ulcer disease and wouldn't address the primary pathology.
- There is no clinical indication in the patient's presentation (e.g., neurological symptoms, macrocytic anemia) to suggest a deficiency in vitamin B12.
*Truncal vagotomy*
- **Truncal vagotomy** is a surgical procedure that was historically performed to reduce gastric acid secretion by cutting the vagus nerve. It is rarely used now due to the effectiveness of medical therapies for peptic ulcer disease.
- This invasive surgical option is generally reserved for refractory cases of peptic ulcer disease not responsive to medical management, or when complications like uncontrolled bleeding or perforation necessitate surgical intervention.
*Fundoplication, hiatoplasty, and gastropexy*
- These surgical procedures are primarily used to treat **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)** and **hiatal hernia**, not peptic ulcer disease.
- Fundoplication wraps the stomach fundus around the lower esophagus to reinforce the lower esophageal sphincter, addressing reflux symptoms which are not the primary complaint here.
*Distal gastrectomy with gastroduodenostomy*
- **Distal gastrectomy** is a major surgical procedure involving the removal of the distal part of the stomach. It is typically reserved for severe complications of peptic ulcer disease (e.g., perforation, obstruction, recurrent bleeding unresponsive to other treatments) or gastric cancer.
- While it might be considered in extreme cases of complicated peptic ulcer, it is not the initial or most appropriate treatment for preventing further complications in a patient who has yet to receive standard anti-*H. pylori* therapy.
Question 272: A 62-year-old man, a retired oil pipeline engineer, presents to his primary care physician with complaints of headaches, fatigue, and constant ringing in his ears. Recurrently he has developed pruritus, usually after a hot shower. He also noted a constant burning sensation in his fingers and toes, independent of physical activity. On examination, he has a red face and his blood pressure levels are 147/89 mm Hg. A CBC revealed that his Hb is 19.0 g/dL and Hct is 59%. Because of his condition, his physician prescribes him 81 mg of aspirin to be taken daily in addition to therapeutic phlebotomy. Which of the statements below is true about this patient’s condition?
A. Warfarin and phlebotomy are the preferred course of treatment.
B. The patient has a decreased risk of developing myelofibrosis.
C. Serum erythropoietin is expected to be high.
D. Arterial oxygen saturation is usually higher than normal values in this condition.
E. Mutation of the JAK2 gene is commonly seen in this condition. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Mutation of the JAK2 gene is commonly seen in this condition.***
* The patient's symptoms (headaches, fatigue, tinnitus, pruritus after hot showers, erythromelalgia, facial plethora, hypertension, and elevated hemoglobin/hematocrit) are highly suggestive of **polycythemia vera (PV)**.
* Over 95% of patients with PV have a **JAK2 V617F mutation**, leading to constitutive activation of the JAK-STAT pathway, resulting in uncontrolled erythrocyte production.
*Warfarin and phlebotomy are the preferred course of treatment.*
* While **phlebotomy** is a cornerstone of PV management to reduce hematocrit and prevent thrombotic events, **warfarin** is generally not indicated for primary thromboprophylaxis in PV.
* **Low-dose aspirin** is preferred for reducing thrombotic risk, as indicated by the physician's prescription, along with phlebotomy.
*The patient has a decreased risk of developing myelofibrosis.*
* Polycythemia vera is a **myeloproliferative neoplasm**, and a significant percentage of patients (10-15%) will progress to **post-polycythemia vera myelofibrosis** over time.
* This progression is a natural history of the disease rather than a decreased risk, occurring as the bone marrow becomes exhausted and fibrotic.
*Serum erythropoietin is expected to be high.*
* In polycythemia vera, the **erythroid progenitors** are hypersensitive to erythropoietin (EPO), and red blood cell production occurs independently of EPO.
* Consequently, the **serum erythropoietin level is typically low or undetectable** due to feedback inhibition from the high red blood cell mass.
*Arterial oxygen saturation is usually higher than normal values in this condition.*
* Arterial oxygen saturation is generally **normal** in polycythemia vera, differentiating it from secondary polycythemia caused by hypoxemia (where oxygen saturation would be low).
* The increased red blood cell mass in PV does not inherently lead to higher-than-normal arterial oxygen saturation; it leads to increased oxygen-carrying capacity.
Question 273: A 32-year-old man presents to his physician with a complaint of pain with urination that has developed and persisted over the past 8 days. Upon awakening today, he also noted a clear discharge from his urethra. The patient states he is otherwise healthy. Social history is notable for the patient working at a local farm with livestock. Review of systems is notable for left knee and ankle pain for the past week and worsening of his seasonal allergies with red and itchy eyes. His temperature is 97.7°F (36.5°C), blood pressure is 122/83 mmHg, pulse is 89/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Which of the following is likely to be positive in this patient?
A. p-ANCA
B. HLA-B27 (Correct Answer)
C. Anti-dsDNA
D. Anti-CCP
E. HLA-DR4
Explanation: ***HLA-B27***
- The patient presents with a classic triad of symptoms: **urethritis** (painful urination, clear discharge), **arthritis** (left knee and ankle pain), and **conjunctivitis** (red and itchy eyes), which is highly suggestive of **reactive arthritis**.
- **Reactive arthritis** is strongly associated with the presence of the **HLA-B27** allele, found in 30-50% to up to 80% of patients depending on the population.
*p-ANCA*
- **p-ANCA (perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies)** are typically associated with certain **vasculitides** like microscopic polyangiitis or eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome).
- Symptoms of **vasculitis** such as constitutional symptoms, organ damage, or purpuric rash are not described in this patient's presentation.
*Anti-dsDNA*
- **Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies** are a highly specific marker for **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**.
- The patient's symptoms (urethritis, arthritis, conjunctivitis) are not typical for a primary presentation of SLE, which often involves skin rashes, serositis, and renal or hematological manifestations.
*Anti-CCP*
- **Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies** are a specific and sensitive marker for **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**.
- While the patient has arthritis, the accompanying conjunctivitis and urethritis are not characteristic features of RA, and RA typically presents with symmetrical polyarthritis.
*HLA-DR4*
- **HLA-DR4** is a genetic marker strongly associated with **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**, particularly in certain ethnic groups.
- As with anti-CCP antibodies, the overall clinical picture, including urethritis and conjunctivitis, makes RA an unlikely primary diagnosis.
Question 274: A 59-year-old female presents to your office with complaints of progressive numbness and tingling in her fingers and toes over the last several months. She also reports "feeling weak" in her arms and legs. The patient's past medical history is significant for hypertension and Crohn's disease, which has been well-controlled since undergoing an ileocolectomy 7 years ago. Physical examination is significant for the following findings: decreased sensation to light touch, temperature, and vibration in the bilateral lower extremities; ataxia; positive Romberg sign. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?
A. Vitamin B2
B. Vitamin B3
C. Vitamin B12 (Correct Answer)
D. Vitamin B1
E. Vitamin B6
Explanation: ***Vitamin B12***
- The patient's history of an **ileocolectomy** for Crohn's disease significantly impairs **vitamin B12 absorption**, which primarily occurs in the terminal ileum.
- Her neurological symptoms, including **paresthesias**, **weakness**, **ataxia**, decreased sensation (light touch, temperature, vibration), and a **positive Romberg sign**, are classic manifestations of **subacute combined degeneration** due to B12 deficiency.
*Vitamin B2*
- Deficiency (ariboflavinosis) typically presents with **cheilosis**, **angular stomatitis**, **glossitis**, and **seborrheic dermatitis**.
- **Neurological symptoms** like those described are not characteristic of vitamin B2 deficiency.
*Vitamin B3*
- Deficiency (pellagra) is characterized by the **"3 Ds"**: **dermatitis**, **diarrhea**, and **dementia**.
- While neurological symptoms can occur (dementia), the specific sensory and motor deficits with ataxia are less typical compared to B12 deficiency.
*Vitamin B1*
- Deficiency (beriberi) can manifest as **peripheral neuropathy** ("dry beriberi") or **cardiac dysfunction** ("wet beriberi").
- While it causes neuropathy, the overall clinical picture, especially the history of ileocolectomy, points more strongly to B12 deficiency.
*Vitamin B6*
- Deficiency is rare and can cause **peripheral neuropathy**, **seborrheic dermatitis**, **cheilosis**, and sometimes **microcytic anemia**.
- However, the specific constellation of symptoms, including profound ataxia and the history of ileocolectomy, makes B12 deficiency a much more likely cause.
Question 275: A 42-year-old woman presents complaining of pain in her hands. She reports that the pain is in both hands, and that it is usually worse in the morning. She reports that her hands are also stiff in the morning, but that this gradually improves throughout the morning. She notes, however, that her symptoms seem to be getting worse over the last three months. What is the most likely pathogenesis of her disease process?
A. Production of antibodies against smooth muscle
B. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody production
C. Production of antibodies against antibodies (Correct Answer)
D. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
E. Repetitive microtrauma
Explanation: ***Production of antibodies against antibodies***
- The patient's symptoms of **bilateral hand pain and morning stiffness** improving with activity, worsening over three months, are classic for **Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)**.
- RA is characterized by the production of **rheumatoid factor (RF)**, an antibody (typically IgM) directed against the Fc portion of IgG, which is essentially an antibody against an antibody.
*Production of antibodies against smooth muscle*
- This describes the presence of **anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA)**, which are characteristic of **Autoimmune Hepatitis type 1**.
- Autoimmune hepatitis primarily affects the liver, leading to symptoms like fatigue, jaundice, and elevated liver enzymes, not primarily joint pain.
*Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody production*
- This refers to **ANCA (anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies)**, which are associated with various forms of **vasculitis**, such as Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (Wegener's), Microscopic Polyangiitis, and Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss).
- While vasculitis can cause systemic symptoms, the patient's presentation of symmetric, inflammatory arthritis is not typical for primary ANCA-associated vasculitis.
*Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction*
- A **type I hypersensitivity reaction** involves IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation, leading to immediate allergic reactions like asthma, anaphylaxis, or hives.
- This mechanism is completely unrelated to the pathogenesis of an autoimmune, chronic inflammatory arthritis like Rheumatoid Arthritis.
*Repetitive microtrauma*
- Repetitive microtrauma is more consistent with **osteoarthritis** or **occupational overuse injuries**.
- Osteoarthritis typically presents with pain that worsens with activity and improves with rest, **morning stiffness lasting less than 30 minutes**, and often affects weight-bearing joints or specific joints due to trauma or wear and tear, rather than the inflammatory pattern described.
Question 276: A 24-year-old African American college student comes to the office for a scheduled visit. He has been healthy, although he reports occasional flank discomfort which comes and goes. He denies any fever, chills, dysuria, or polyuria in the past year. His vaccinations are up to date. His family history is unknown, as he was adopted. He smokes 1 pack of cigarettes every 3 days, drinks socially, and denies any current illicit drug use, although he endorses a history of injection drug use. He currently works as a waiter to afford his college tuition. His physical examination shows a young man with a lean build, normal heart sounds, clear breath sounds, bowel sounds within normal limits, and no lower extremity edema. You order a urinalysis which shows 8 red blood cells (RBCs) per high-power field (HPF). The test is repeated several weeks later and shows 6 RBCs/HPF. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Plain abdominal X-ray
B. Repeat urinalysis in 6 months
C. 24-hour urine collection test
D. Renal ultrasound (Correct Answer)
E. Observation
Explanation: ***Renal ultrasound***
- This patient has **asymptomatic microscopic hematuria** which requires investigation to rule out significant renal or urological pathology, particularly in the context of recurrent flank discomfort and a history of injection drug use which increases risk for certain renal diseases.
- A **renal ultrasound** is the most appropriate initial imaging study to evaluate the kidneys and urinary tract for structural abnormalities, stones, masses, or hydronephrosis.
*Plain abdominal X-ray*
- A plain abdominal X-ray (KUB) is **less sensitive** than ultrasound for detecting many renal pathologies, especially soft tissue masses or early hydronephrosis.
- While it can detect **radio-opaque stones**, it will miss radiolucent stones and other important causes of hematuria.
*Repeat urinalysis in 6 months*
- This approach is too delayed given the **persistent microscopic hematuria** and the patient's reported flank discomfort, which warrants a more immediate workup.
- Delaying investigation could lead to the **progression of underlying pathology** that might be treatable if caught earlier.
*24-hour urine collection test*
- A 24-hour urine collection is useful for assessing **proteinuria** and **creatinine clearance**, and sometimes for quantification of red blood cell excretion, but it is not the initial diagnostic step for identifying the *source* or *cause* of hematuria.
- It would typically be considered **after initial imaging** and further characterization of the hematuria have been performed.
*Observation*
- **Observation alone is insufficient** for unexplained, persistent microscopic hematuria combined with flank discomfort, even if intermittent.
- This approach risks missing a potentially serious underlying condition that could benefit from early diagnosis and intervention, such as **renal cell carcinoma** or significant **nephrolithiasis**.
Question 277: A 24-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of a severely pruritic skin rash. Physical examination shows a symmetrical rash over the knees and elbows with tense, grouped vesicles, and several excoriation marks. Microabscesses in the papillary dermis are seen on light microscopy. Immunofluorescence shows deposits of immunoglobulin A at the tips of dermal papillae. This patient's skin findings are most likely associated with which of the following?
A. Mite eggs and fecal pellets
B. Positive Nikolsky sign
C. Gliadin-dependent hypersensitivity (Correct Answer)
D. Multinucleated giant cells
E. Nail pitting
Explanation: ***Gliadin-dependent hypersensitivity***
- The description of a severely **pruritic rash** with **grouped vesicles** on extensor surfaces (knees and elbows), along with **IgA deposits** at the tips of dermal papillae and **microabscesses**, is classic for **dermatitis herpetiformis**.
- Dermatitis herpetiformis is strongly associated with **celiac disease**, which is caused by a **hypersensitivity reaction to gliadin**, a protein found in gluten.
*Mite eggs and fecal pellets*
- This finding is characteristic of **scabies**, which presents with burrows, intense pruritus, and a rash that primarily affects the web spaces of fingers, wrists, and other areas where mites burrow.
- The clinical presentation and microscopic findings (IgA deposits, microabscesses) do not align with scabies.
*Positive Nikolsky sign*
- A positive Nikolsky sign (skin sloughing with gentle lateral pressure) is typically seen in **pemphigus vulgaris** or **toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)**.
- These conditions involve blistering but have distinct histological features and different immune pathologies (e.g., IgG antibodies against desmoglein in pemphigus vulgaris).
*Multinucleated giant cells*
- The presence of **multinucleated giant cells** is a histological hallmark of **viral infections**, such as **herpes simplex virus (HSV)** or **varicella-zoster virus (VZV)**.
- While these can cause vesicular rashes, the characteristic IgA deposition and microabscesses are not typical of viral infections.
*Nail pitting*
- **Nail pitting** is a common finding in **psoriasis** and **psoriatic arthritis**.
- Psoriasis typically presents with erythematous plaques with silvery scales, which is different from the vesicular rash seen in this patient.
Question 278: A 33-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 14-hour history of left flank pain associated with dark urine. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F). The abdomen is soft with normal bowel sounds. There is guarding on the left lateral side and tenderness to palpation over the left costophrenic angle. An x-ray of the abdomen shows an 8-mm kidney stone. Stone analysis reveals a calcium oxalate stone. In addition to adequate hydration, which of the following diets should be advised for this patient?
A. High-oxalate diet
B. Low-calcium diet
C. Vitamin C supplementation
D. High-sodium diet
E. Low-protein diet (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Low-protein diet***
- **Moderate reduction in animal protein intake** is recommended for calcium oxalate stone prevention
- High animal protein consumption increases **urinary calcium, uric acid, and oxalate excretion** while decreasing urinary citrate (a stone inhibitor)
- Limiting animal protein to approximately **0.8-1.0 g/kg/day** helps reduce stone recurrence risk
- This is an evidence-based dietary modification for calcium oxalate nephrolithiasis
*Incorrect: Low-calcium diet*
- **Counterintuitive but harmful**: Low calcium intake actually **increases** stone formation risk
- Dietary calcium binds oxalate in the gut, reducing oxalate absorption and urinary oxalate excretion
- **Normal calcium intake (1000-1200 mg/day)** is recommended to prevent stones
- Calcium restriction paradoxically increases urinary oxalate and promotes stone formation
*Incorrect: Vitamin C supplementation*
- **Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)** is metabolized to **oxalate**, increasing urinary oxalate levels
- High-dose vitamin C supplementation (>1000 mg/day) significantly increases calcium oxalate stone risk
- Patients with nephrolithiasis should **avoid vitamin C supplements**
*Incorrect: High-oxalate diet*
- Foods high in oxalate (spinach, rhubarb, nuts, chocolate, tea, beets) directly increase urinary oxalate
- High urinary oxalate promotes **calcium oxalate crystal supersaturation** and stone formation
- Patients should **limit (not increase) dietary oxalate** intake
*Incorrect: High-sodium diet*
- High sodium intake increases **urinary calcium excretion** through reduced renal calcium reabsorption
- Increased urinary calcium promotes calcium oxalate stone formation
- **Sodium restriction (<2300 mg/day)** is recommended to decrease calcium excretion and stone risk
Question 279: A 45-year-old woman presents with fever, chills, nausea, and dysuria. She says her symptoms started 4 days ago and have progressively worsened. Her past medical history is significant for recurrent UTIs for the past 6 months and for diabetes mellitus type 2, diagnosed 5 years ago and treated with metformin. Her vital signs include: temperature 39.5°C (103.1°F), blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg, pulse 90/min, and respiratory rate 23/min. On physical examination, moderate right costovertebral angle tenderness is noted. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
WBC 9,500/mm3
RBC 4.20 x 106/mm3
Hematocrit 41.5%
Hemoglobin 13.0 g/dL
Platelet count 225,000/mm3
Urinalysis:
Color Dark yellow
Clarity Turbid
pH 5.5
Specific gravity 1.021
Glucose None
Ketones None
Nitrites Positive
Leukocyte esterase Positive
Bilirubin Negative
Urobilirubin 0.6 mg/dL
Protein Trace
Blood None
WBC 25/hpf
Bacteria Many
Urine culture and sensitivities are pending. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Admit for prompt percutaneous nephrostomy
B. Contrast MRI of the abdomen and pelvis
C. Renal ultrasound
D. Admit for IV antibiotic therapy (Correct Answer)
E. Discharge with outpatient antibiotic therapy
Explanation: **Admit for IV antibiotic therapy**
- The patient presents with classic signs of **pyelonephritis** (fever, chills, nausea, dysuria, CVA tenderness) and signs of **sepsis** (fever 39.5°C, BP 100/70 mmHg, pulse 90/min, RR 23/min), indicating a severe infection requiring hospital admission.
- Given her history of **diabetes mellitus** and **recurrent UTIs**, along with the severity of her current symptoms, **intravenous antibiotic therapy** is crucial for promptly treating the infection and preventing further deterioration.
*Admit for prompt percutaneous nephrostomy*
- **Percutaneous nephrostomy** is typically indicated for patients with **obstructive pyelonephritis**, often due to kidney stones, leading to hydronephrosis and potential urosepsis.
- While the patient has severe pyelonephritis, there is no immediate evidence of **urinary tract obstruction** in the initial presentation; imaging would be needed first to assess for obstruction.
*Contrast MRI of the abdomen and pelvis*
- While imaging is important in complicated pyelonephritis, a **contrast MRI** is not the initial imaging modality of choice given the urgency of starting antibiotics.
- MRI is more often used for evaluating **renal abscesses** or complex structural abnormalities if initial treatments fail or specific complications are suspected.
*Renal ultrasound*
- A **renal ultrasound** is the appropriate initial imaging study for evaluating pyelonephritis, especially in patients with diabetes or recurrent infections, to rule out **obstruction** or abnormalities like **abscesses**.
- However, the **initial priority is stabilizing the patient with IV antibiotics** due to her severe symptoms and signs of sepsis; ultrasound can be performed once she is admitted and treatment has begun.
*Discharge with outpatient antibiotic therapy*
- The patient's presentation with **high fever, systemic symptoms, and signs of sepsis** (hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea) makes **outpatient management unsafe and inappropriate**.
- These severe symptoms, especially in a **diabetic patient** with a history of recurrent UTIs, necessitate **inpatient care** for close monitoring and intravenous therapy.
Question 280: A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 12-month history of upper abdominal pain. The pain is worse after eating, which she reports as 7 out of 10 in intensity. Over the last year, she has also had nausea, heartburn, and multiple episodes of diarrhea with no blood or mucus. Eight months ago, she underwent an upper endoscopy, which showed several ulcers in the gastric antrum, the pylorus, and the duodenum, as well as thick gastric folds. The biopsies from these ulcers were negative for H. pylori. Current medications include pantoprazole and over-the-counter antacids. She appears anxious. Vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and there is tenderness to palpation in the epigastric and umbilical areas. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. A repeat upper endoscopy shows persistent gastric and duodenal ulceration with minimal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
A. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
B. Secretin stimulation test
C. 24-hour esophageal pH monitoring
D. Urea breath test
E. Fasting serum gastrin level (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fasting serum gastrin level***
- The patient presents with **recurrent, refractory peptic ulcers** in unusual locations (gastric antrum, pylorus, duodenum), despite **proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy**, and **H. pylori-negative biopsies**. This highly suggests **Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome (ZES)**, caused by a gastrinoma.
- A **fasting serum gastrin level** is the **initial diagnostic test** for ZES. If the level is elevated (typically >100 pg/mL, or much higher in severe cases) in the context of high gastric acid output, it supports the diagnosis.
- Additional clues supporting ZES: **thick gastric folds** (from gastric acid hypersecretion), **diarrhea** (from acid overwhelming intestinal absorptive capacity), and **multiple ulcers** in atypical locations.
*Incorrect: CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis*
- While imaging like a CT scan or somatostatin receptor scintigraphy (SRS) is used to **localize the gastrinoma** after ZES is suspected and confirmed biochemically.
- Doing a CT first, before biochemical confirmation of ZES, would be **premature** and is not the most appropriate initial diagnostic step.
*Incorrect: Secretin stimulation test*
- The **secretin stimulation test** is a confirmatory test for ZES and is performed if the fasting gastrin level is **equivocal** (e.g., 100-1000 pg/mL with acid hypersecretion).
- It involves measuring gastrin levels before and after secretin administration; a rise in gastrin >200 pg/mL confirms ZES. However, it is not the *initial* diagnostic step.
*Incorrect: 24-hour esophageal pH monitoring*
- This test is used to diagnose or quantify gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) by measuring the frequency and duration of esophageal acid exposure.
- While the patient has heartburn, the primary concern is severe ulceration and high suspicion for ZES, making pH monitoring **less relevant** as the first diagnostic step.
*Incorrect: Urea breath test*
- The urea breath test is a non-invasive method for detecting **H. pylori infection**.
- The patient's previous biopsies were **negative for H. pylori**, making a repeat urea breath test unlikely to yield new information or address the underlying cause of her refractory ulcers.