A 60-year-old patient presents to the urgent care clinic with complaints of pain and abdominal distention for the past several weeks. The pain began with a change in bowel habits 3 months ago, and he gradually defecated less until he became completely constipated, which led to increasing pain and distention. He also mentions that he has lost weight during this period, even though he has not changed his diet. When asked about his family history, the patient reveals that his brother was diagnosed with colorectal cancer at 65 years of age. An abdominal radiograph and CT scan were done which confirmed the diagnosis of obstruction. Which of the following locations in the digestive tract are most likely involved in this patient’s disease process?
Q232
A 32-year-old woman comes to her physician because of increasing back pain for the past 10 months. The pain is worse in the morning when she wakes up and improves with activity. She used to practice yoga, but stopped 5 months ago as bending forward became increasingly difficult. She has also had bilateral hip pain for the past 4 months. She has not had any change in urination. She has celiac disease and eats a gluten-free diet. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 65/min, respirations are 13/min, and blood pressure is 116/72 mmHg. Examination shows the range of spinal flexion is limited. Flexion, abduction, and external rotation of bilateral hips produces pain. An x-ray of her pelvis is shown. Further evaluation of this patient is likely to show which of the following?
Q233
A 25-year-old woman presents to a physician for a new patient physical exam. Aside from occasional shin splints, she has a relatively unremarkable medical history. She takes oral contraceptive pills as scheduled and a multivitamin daily. She reports no known drug allergies. All of her age appropriate immunizations are up to date. Her periods have been regular, occurring once every 28 to 30 days with normal flow. She is sexually active with two partners, who use condoms routinely. She works as a cashier at the local grocery store. Her mother has diabetes and coronary artery disease, and her father passed away at age 45 after being diagnosed with colon cancer at age 40. Her grand-aunt underwent bilateral mastectomies after being diagnosed with breast cancer at age 60. Her physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best recommendation for this patient?
Q234
A 38-year-old man comes to the physician because of progressive pain and swelling of his left knee for the past 2 days. He has been taking ibuprofen for the past 2 days without improvement. Four days ago, he scraped his left knee while playing baseball. He has a 2-month history of progressive pain and stiffness in his back. The pain starts after waking up and lasts for 20 minutes. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus. His older sister has rheumatoid arthritis. He is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 91 kg (201 lb); BMI is 31.5 kg/m2. Temperature is 39°C (102.2°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg. Examination shows an erythematous, tender, and swollen left knee; range of motion is limited. There are abrasions over the lateral aspect of the left knee. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 13,500/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 70 mm/h. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q235
A 36-year-old man presents with soreness and dryness of the oral mucosa for the past 3 weeks. No significant past medical history. The patient reports that he has had multiple bisexual partners over the last year and only occasionally uses condoms. He denies any alcohol use or history of smoking. The patient is afebrile and his vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is a lesion noted in the oral cavity, which is shown in the exhibit. Which of the following is the next best step in the treatment of this patient?
Q236
A 64-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 7.2-kg (16-lb) weight loss over the past 6 months. For the last 4 weeks, she has also had intermittent constipation and bloating. Four months ago, she spent 2 weeks in Mexico with her daughter. She has never smoked. She drinks one glass of wine daily. She appears thin. Her temperature is 38.3°C (101°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 136/78 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is distended and the liver is palpable 4 cm below the right costal margin with a hard, mildly tender nodule in the left lobe. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Serum studies show:
Alkaline phosphatase 67 U/L
AST 65 U/L
ALT 68 U/L
Hepatitis B surface antigen negative
Hepatitis C antibody negative
A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q237
A 76-year-old man presents after an acute onset seizure. He lives in a retirement home and denies any previous history of seizures. Past medical history is significant for a hemorrhagic stroke 4 years ago, and type 2 diabetes, managed with metformin. His vital signs include: blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg, pulse 80/min, and respiratory rate 19/min. On physical examination, the patient is lethargic. Mucous membranes are dry. A noncontrast CT of the head is performed and is unremarkable. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Plasma glucose 680 mg/dL
pH 7.37
Serum bicarbonate 17 mEq/L
Effective serum osmolality 350 mOsm/kg
Urinary ketone bodies negative
Which of the following was the most likely trigger for this patient’s seizure?
Q238
A 70-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 1 hour after being found unconscious in her apartment by her neighbor. No medical history is currently available. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor. The neighbor mentions that the patient had been complaining of severe diarrhea for the past 2 days. Laboratory studies show a glomerular filtration rate of 70 mL/min/1.73 m2 (N > 90) and an increased filtration fraction. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's findings?
Q239
A 24-year-old woman with 45,X syndrome comes to the physician because of diarrhea for 4 months. She also reports bloating, nausea, and abdominal discomfort that persists after defecation. For the past 6 months, she has felt tired and has been unable to do her normal chores. She went on a backpacking trip across Southeast Asia around 7 months ago. She is 144 cm (4 ft 9 in) tall and weighs 40 kg (88 lb); BMI is 19 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg in the upper extremities and 80/40 mm Hg in the lower extremities. Examination shows pale conjunctivae and angular stomatitis. Abdominal examination is normal. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.1 mg/dL
Leukocyte count 5100/mm3
Platelet count 200,000/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 67 μmm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
K+ 3.7 mEq/L
Cl- 105 mEq/L
Glucose 89 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL
Ferritin 10 ng/mL
IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody positive
Based on the laboratory studies, a biopsy for confirmation of the diagnosis is suggested, but the patient is unwilling to undergo the procedure. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's gastrointestinal symptoms?
Q240
A 30-year-old male visits you in the clinic complaining of chronic abdominal pain and diarrhea following milk intake. Gastrointestinal histology of this patient's condition is most similar to which of the following?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: A 60-year-old patient presents to the urgent care clinic with complaints of pain and abdominal distention for the past several weeks. The pain began with a change in bowel habits 3 months ago, and he gradually defecated less until he became completely constipated, which led to increasing pain and distention. He also mentions that he has lost weight during this period, even though he has not changed his diet. When asked about his family history, the patient reveals that his brother was diagnosed with colorectal cancer at 65 years of age. An abdominal radiograph and CT scan were done which confirmed the diagnosis of obstruction. Which of the following locations in the digestive tract are most likely involved in this patient’s disease process?
A. Small bowel
B. Ascending colon
C. Rectum
D. Sigmoid colon (Correct Answer)
E. Cecum
Explanation: ***Sigmoid colon***
- This patient's symptoms—**progressive constipation, abdominal distention, weight loss**, and a family history of colorectal cancer—strongly suggest a **colorectal malignancy** causing obstruction.
- The **sigmoid colon** is the most common site for colorectal cancer, especially those presenting with obstructive symptoms due to its narrower lumen compared to the proximal colon.
*Small bowel*
- While small bowel obstruction can cause similar symptoms, **primary small bowel cancers are rare** and typically present differently, often with episodes of partial obstruction.
- The history of a **change in bowel habits preceding complete constipation** is more indicative of a colonic mass.
*Ascending colon*
- Cancers in the **right colon (ascending and cecum)** tend to present with symptoms like **iron deficiency anemia, fatigue, and occult bleeding**, rather than obstruction, due to its wider lumen and more fluid stool.
- **Obstruction is less common** as an initial presentation in this location.
*Rectum*
- Rectal cancers often cause **changes in bowel habits, tenesmus, and hematochezia** (bright red blood per rectum).
- While obstruction can occur, the sigmoid colon is a more frequent site for tumors causing **progressive obstructive symptoms** as described.
*Cecum*
- Similar to the ascending colon, cancers in the **cecum** are more likely to present with **anemia and vague abdominal discomfort** rather than overt obstruction.
- The **wider diameter** of the cecum allows tumors to grow quite large before causing obstructive symptoms.
Question 232: A 32-year-old woman comes to her physician because of increasing back pain for the past 10 months. The pain is worse in the morning when she wakes up and improves with activity. She used to practice yoga, but stopped 5 months ago as bending forward became increasingly difficult. She has also had bilateral hip pain for the past 4 months. She has not had any change in urination. She has celiac disease and eats a gluten-free diet. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 65/min, respirations are 13/min, and blood pressure is 116/72 mmHg. Examination shows the range of spinal flexion is limited. Flexion, abduction, and external rotation of bilateral hips produces pain. An x-ray of her pelvis is shown. Further evaluation of this patient is likely to show which of the following?
A. High levels of creatine phosphokinase
B. High levels of rheumatoid factor
C. HLA-B27 positive genotype (Correct Answer)
D. Presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies
E. Presence of anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies
Explanation: ***HLA-B27 positive genotype***
- The patient's symptoms of **inflammatory back pain** (worse in the morning, improves with activity, limited spinal flexion, bilateral hip pain) are classic for **spondyloarthritis**, particularly **ankylosing spondylitis**.
- **HLA-B27** is strongly associated with ankylosing spondylitis and other spondyloarthropathies, making its presence highly likely in this clinical scenario.
*High levels of creatine phosphokinase*
- Elevated **creatine phosphokinase (CPK)** levels typically indicate **muscle damage** or inflammation, as seen in conditions like myositis.
- While back pain can have a muscular component, her symptoms are more indicative of inflammatory arthritis of the spine and hips, not primary muscle inflammation.
*High levels of rheumatoid factor*
- **Rheumatoid factor (RF)** is a key marker for **rheumatoid arthritis**, which primarily affects peripheral joints in a symmetrical pattern, not typically the axial skeleton in this manner.
- The patient's presentation with **inflammatory back pain** and hip involvement is inconsistent with typical rheumatoid arthritis.
*Presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies*
- **Anti-dsDNA antibodies** are highly specific for **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**, a systemic autoimmune disease with diverse manifestations.
- While SLE can cause arthralgia or arthritis, her specific pattern of inflammatory back pain and hip involvement is not characteristic of SLE.
*Presence of anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies*
- **Anti-Ro (SSA)** and **anti-La (SSB) antibodies** are primarily associated with **Sjögren's syndrome**, an autoimmune disease causing dry eyes and mouth.
- They can also be present in SLE, but again, the patient's presentation is more specific for a spondyloarthropathy than for Sjögren's or SLE.
Question 233: A 25-year-old woman presents to a physician for a new patient physical exam. Aside from occasional shin splints, she has a relatively unremarkable medical history. She takes oral contraceptive pills as scheduled and a multivitamin daily. She reports no known drug allergies. All of her age appropriate immunizations are up to date. Her periods have been regular, occurring once every 28 to 30 days with normal flow. She is sexually active with two partners, who use condoms routinely. She works as a cashier at the local grocery store. Her mother has diabetes and coronary artery disease, and her father passed away at age 45 after being diagnosed with colon cancer at age 40. Her grand-aunt underwent bilateral mastectomies after being diagnosed with breast cancer at age 60. Her physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best recommendation for this patient?
A. Colonoscopy in 10 years
B. Mammogram now
C. Pap smear now
D. Pap smear in 5 years
E. HPV DNA testing now (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***HPV DNA testing now***
- This 25-year-old patient is due for cervical cancer screening and this is the best recommendation.
- **ACOG (2021)** recommends **primary HPV testing every 5 years** for women aged 25-65 as the preferred screening method.
- Although USPSTF guidelines recommend starting HPV testing at age 30, ACOG's updated guidelines support initiating primary HPV testing at age 25, making this the most current evidence-based recommendation.
- Given she is presenting for a new patient physical and cervical cancer screening is due now, initiating HPV testing is appropriate.
*Colonoscopy in 10 years*
- While the patient's father was diagnosed with colon cancer at age 40, this option is **incorrectly timed**.
- Guidelines recommend screening beginning at age 40 OR 10 years before the youngest affected first-degree relative's diagnosis (age 30 for this patient), whichever comes first.
- Since this patient is 25, she would need colonoscopy at age 30 (in 5 years), not in 10 years (age 35).
- However, cervical cancer screening is the more immediate priority right now.
*Mammogram now*
- The patient's grand-aunt had breast cancer at age 60, but this is a **second-degree relative** with late-onset disease.
- This does not meet criteria for early mammography screening at age 25.
- Routine mammography typically begins at age 40 (per ACOG) or age 50 (per USPSTF), unless there is a strong family history in first-degree relatives or genetic mutations (BRCA1/2).
*Pap smear now*
- Pap smear (cytology) is an acceptable screening option for cervical cancer.
- **USPSTF (2018)** recommends cytology alone every 3 years for women ages 21-29, or starting HPV-based testing at age 30.
- However, **ACOG (2021)** supports primary HPV testing starting at age 25 as the preferred method.
- While Pap smear now would not be incorrect, HPV DNA testing is the preferred and more current guideline-based approach for this age group.
*Pap smear in 5 years*
- This represents inappropriate delay in initiating cervical cancer screening.
- Screening should begin now, not be deferred for 5 years.
- The 5-year interval applies to primary HPV testing once initiated, not to delaying the start of screening.
Question 234: A 38-year-old man comes to the physician because of progressive pain and swelling of his left knee for the past 2 days. He has been taking ibuprofen for the past 2 days without improvement. Four days ago, he scraped his left knee while playing baseball. He has a 2-month history of progressive pain and stiffness in his back. The pain starts after waking up and lasts for 20 minutes. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus. His older sister has rheumatoid arthritis. He is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 91 kg (201 lb); BMI is 31.5 kg/m2. Temperature is 39°C (102.2°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg. Examination shows an erythematous, tender, and swollen left knee; range of motion is limited. There are abrasions over the lateral aspect of the left knee. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 13,500/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 70 mm/h. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Arthrocentesis of the left knee (Correct Answer)
B. Bone scan
C. MRI of the left knee
D. Blood cultures
E. Continued ibuprofen intake
Explanation: ***Arthrocentesis of the left knee***
- This patient presents with signs of **septic arthritis**, including acute joint pain and swelling, fever, and elevated inflammatory markers, after a knee abrasion. **Arthrocentesis** is crucial for diagnosing septic arthritis by analyzing the synovial fluid for cell count, Gram stain, and culture.
- Given the patient's history of trauma, which can introduce bacteria into the joint, and the acute inflammatory response, a prompt diagnosis via **arthrocentesis** is essential for guiding antibiotic treatment and preventing joint destruction.
*Bone scan*
- A bone scan is primarily used to detect bone metabolic activity, such as in stress fractures, infections (osteomyelitis), or metastasis, but it is not the first-line diagnostic for acute septic arthritis of a joint.
- While it might show increased uptake around an inflamed joint, it will not provide the specific microbiological diagnosis needed to guide treatment for potential septic arthritis.
*MRI of the left knee*
- MRI can show soft tissue and bone changes, including effusions, synovitis, and bone edema, but it is not the initial test of choice for suspected septic arthritis.
- It does not provide microbial identification, which is critical for targeted antibiotic therapy, and it is a more expensive and time-consuming procedure than arthrocentesis.
*Blood cultures*
- Blood cultures are important for identifying systemic infection (bacteremia) and can be helpful in septic arthritis if a patient has bacteremia, but they are not as sensitive as synovial fluid culture for diagnosing joint infection.
- A positive blood culture alone does not confirm that the joint infection is due to the same organism, and a negative blood culture does not rule out septic arthritis.
*Continued ibuprofen intake*
- The patient has already been taking ibuprofen for 2 days without improvement, indicating that the condition is unlikely to be simple inflammatory pain that responds to NSAIDs.
- Continuing ibuprofen would delay the necessary diagnostic evaluation and definitive treatment for a potentially destructive condition like septic arthritis.
Question 235: A 36-year-old man presents with soreness and dryness of the oral mucosa for the past 3 weeks. No significant past medical history. The patient reports that he has had multiple bisexual partners over the last year and only occasionally uses condoms. He denies any alcohol use or history of smoking. The patient is afebrile and his vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is a lesion noted in the oral cavity, which is shown in the exhibit. Which of the following is the next best step in the treatment of this patient?
A. Topical corticosteroids
B. Change the patient’s toothbrush and improve oral hygiene
C. HAART therapy
D. Nystatin (Correct Answer)
E. Surgical excision
Explanation: ***Nystatin***
- The clinical presentation shows **oral candidiasis (thrush)**, characterized by white, plaque-like lesions on the tongue and palate in a patient with risk factors for immunosuppression (multiple sexual partners with inconsistent condom use, suggesting possible HIV exposure).
- **Nystatin** is a topical antifungal agent and represents the **first-line treatment** for oral candidiasis.
- It is available as oral suspension ("swish and swallow") and effectively treats the fungal infection directly.
- Additional measures like changing the toothbrush and improving oral hygiene are important **adjunctive steps** but the primary treatment requires antifungal therapy.
*Topical corticosteroids*
- Topical corticosteroids are used for **inflammatory conditions** such as oral lichen planus or recurrent aphthous ulcers.
- They are **contraindicated** in candidiasis as they suppress local immune responses and can worsen fungal growth.
*HAART therapy*
- **Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART)** treats HIV infection and improves immune function.
- While the patient's risk factors suggest possible HIV exposure, HAART is not the **immediate treatment** for oral candidiasis.
- HIV testing should be offered, but antifungal therapy addresses the acute infection.
*Change the patient's toothbrush and improve oral hygiene*
- Changing the toothbrush and improving oral hygiene are important **adjunctive measures** that help prevent reinfection by eliminating fungal reservoirs.
- However, these are supportive measures, not the primary treatment for active oral candidiasis.
- The question asks for "next best step in treatment," which requires antifungal therapy.
*Surgical excision*
- **Surgical excision** is reserved for suspicious oral lesions requiring histopathological diagnosis, such as squamous cell carcinoma or other growths.
- It is **not indicated** for oral candidiasis, which is a fungal infection treated medically with antifungals.
Question 236: A 64-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 7.2-kg (16-lb) weight loss over the past 6 months. For the last 4 weeks, she has also had intermittent constipation and bloating. Four months ago, she spent 2 weeks in Mexico with her daughter. She has never smoked. She drinks one glass of wine daily. She appears thin. Her temperature is 38.3°C (101°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 136/78 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is distended and the liver is palpable 4 cm below the right costal margin with a hard, mildly tender nodule in the left lobe. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Serum studies show:
Alkaline phosphatase 67 U/L
AST 65 U/L
ALT 68 U/L
Hepatitis B surface antigen negative
Hepatitis C antibody negative
A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hepatic echinococcal cysts
B. Metastatic colorectal cancer (Correct Answer)
C. Cirrhosis
D. Cholangiocarcinoma
E. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation: ***Metastatic colorectal cancer***
- The patient's **weight loss**, **constipation**, **bloating**, **positive fecal occult blood**, and **palpable, nodular liver** are highly suggestive of **colorectal cancer with liver metastases**.
- The CT scan findings (presumably showing multiple liver lesions) and elevated AST/ALT further support the diagnosis of **liver involvement from a primary malignancy**, often colorectal due to its common metastatic spread to the liver via portal circulation.
- The combination of **GI symptoms** (constipation, bloating) with **hepatic findings** (hard nodule, hepatomegaly) points to a primary GI tumor with secondary liver involvement.
*Hepatic echinococcal cysts*
- While a travel history to Mexico might suggest parasitic infection, the patient's presentation with significant **weight loss**, **fever**, and **abnormal liver enzymes** within a relatively short timeframe is not typical for uncomplicated hydatid cysts.
- Hydatid cysts are usually **asymptomatic until large** or complicated, and the presence of **occult blood in stool** points away from this diagnosis.
*Cirrhosis*
- Cirrhosis is characterized by chronic liver damage, often leading to portal hypertension, jaundice, and ascites. While it can cause **weight loss** and **hepatomegaly**, the rapid progression of symptoms, **fever**, and especially the **positive fecal occult blood** and **nodular liver** are not classic findings for typical cirrhosis.
- The mildly elevated transaminases and normal alkaline phosphatase are not highly indicative of severe, decompensated cirrhosis.
*Cholangiocarcinoma*
- Cholangiocarcinoma typically presents with **jaundice**, pruritus, and abdominal pain due to **biliary obstruction**.
- Although it can cause **weight loss** and **liver nodules**, the absence of significant jaundice and the strong evidence for a primary GI malignancy (constipation, occult blood) make it less likely than metastatic colorectal cancer.
*Hepatocellular carcinoma*
- HCC typically occurs in patients with **underlying chronic liver disease**, such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, or cirrhosis, which are all negative in this patient.
- While HCC can cause **weight loss** and **liver nodules**, the **positive fecal occult blood** points to a primary gastrointestinal source, making metastatic disease more probable than primary liver cancer.
Question 237: A 76-year-old man presents after an acute onset seizure. He lives in a retirement home and denies any previous history of seizures. Past medical history is significant for a hemorrhagic stroke 4 years ago, and type 2 diabetes, managed with metformin. His vital signs include: blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg, pulse 80/min, and respiratory rate 19/min. On physical examination, the patient is lethargic. Mucous membranes are dry. A noncontrast CT of the head is performed and is unremarkable. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Plasma glucose 680 mg/dL
pH 7.37
Serum bicarbonate 17 mEq/L
Effective serum osmolality 350 mOsm/kg
Urinary ketone bodies negative
Which of the following was the most likely trigger for this patient’s seizure?
A. Reduced fluid intake (Correct Answer)
B. Inappropriate insulin therapy
C. Concomitant viral infection
D. Unusual increase in physical activity
E. Metformin side effects
Explanation: ***Reduced fluid intake***
- This patient presents with **hyperglycemia** (680 mg/dL), **high effective serum osmolality** (350 mOsm/kg), and **dry mucous membranes** and **hypotension**, indicating severe **dehydration**. These findings are consistent with **Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)**, which commonly results from inadequate fluid intake in response to osmotic diuresis.
- Seizures in HHS are often triggered by **severe hyperosmolality** and resultant neuronal dehydration, which can be exacerbated by **reduced fluid intake**, especially in elderly patients in nursing homes with impaired thirst sensation or limited access to water.
*Inappropriate insulin therapy*
- **Inappropriate insulin therapy** (either inadequate or excessive) is less likely to be the primary trigger for HHS in this patient, especially since he is managed with **metformin** and does not appear to be on insulin.
- Even if he were on insulin, **insufficient insulin** would *contribute* to hyperglycemia but the acute trigger for the decompensation leading to severe dehydration and seizures is often related to fluid balance.
*Concomitant viral infection*
- While a **concomitant viral infection** can precipitate HHS by causing increased stress hormones and inflammation, leading to worsening insulin resistance and hyperglycemia, the patient's presentation primarily points towards severe dehydration and osmolality disturbances.
- There are no specific symptoms or signs mentioned (e.g., fever, cough, chills) to suggest a viral infection as the *most likely* immediate trigger over profound dehydration.
*Unusual increase in physical activity*
- An **unusual increase in physical activity** would typically *decrease* blood glucose levels by increasing insulin sensitivity and glucose utilization.
- Therefore, this is an **unlikely trigger** for the profound hyperglycemia and hyperosmolar state observed in this patient.
*Metformin side effects*
- **Metformin** typically causes gastrointestinal side effects (e.g., nausea, diarrhea) and can lead to **lactic acidosis** in specific circumstances (e.g., renal impairment, hypoperfusion), but it does not directly cause HHS or seizures.
- The patient's **pH (7.37)** and **bicarbonate (17 mEq/L)**, while slightly low, do not indicate severe lactic acidosis, and the predominant clinical picture is HHS-related dehydration and hyperosmolality.
Question 238: A 70-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 1 hour after being found unconscious in her apartment by her neighbor. No medical history is currently available. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor. The neighbor mentions that the patient had been complaining of severe diarrhea for the past 2 days. Laboratory studies show a glomerular filtration rate of 70 mL/min/1.73 m2 (N > 90) and an increased filtration fraction. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's findings?
A. Profuse diarrhea (Correct Answer)
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Nephrolithiasis
E. Salicylate poisoning
Explanation: ***Profuse diarrhea***
- The patient's history of **severe diarrhea** for two days, combined with signs of **dehydration** (dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor), **hypotension** (70/50 mm Hg), and **tachycardia** (120/min), indicates significant fluid loss leading to **prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI)**.
- The **increased filtration fraction** is the key diagnostic clue for prerenal azotemia: in response to decreased renal perfusion, angiotensin II preferentially constricts the **efferent arteriole**, maintaining GFR while renal blood flow drops, thus increasing the filtration fraction (GFR/renal plasma flow).
- This compensatory mechanism distinguishes prerenal from intrinsic renal causes of AKI.
*Multiple myeloma*
- This condition causes kidney injury through **light chain cast nephropathy** (intrinsic renal damage) or hypercalcemia, which would **not** present with an increased filtration fraction.
- While multiple myeloma can cause renal dysfunction in elderly patients, the acute presentation with profound **volume depletion** and the specific finding of increased filtration fraction make prerenal causes (diarrhea) much more likely.
*Pyelonephritis*
- This **kidney infection** typically presents with **fever**, **flank pain**, and **dysuria**, which are not described in this patient.
- Pyelonephritis would cause **intrinsic renal injury** with a **normal or decreased** filtration fraction, not the increased filtration fraction seen in prerenal azotemia.
- The prominent signs of severe volume depletion point to a prerenal rather than infectious etiology.
*Nephrolithiasis*
- **Kidney stones** typically cause acute, severe **flank pain** (renal colic) and **hematuria**.
- Obstructive uropathy from nephrolithiasis would cause **postrenal AKI** with a **decreased** filtration fraction, not increased.
- This would not explain the patient's profound dehydration, hypotension, and tachycardia as the primary pathophysiology.
*Salicylate poisoning*
- Salicylate toxicity typically presents with **respiratory alkalosis** (early) and **metabolic acidosis** (late), **tinnitus**, **nausea/vomiting**, and altered mental status.
- While it can cause AKI and unconsciousness, it would **not** produce the classic prerenal pattern with increased filtration fraction seen here.
- The prominent **2-day history of diarrhea** and signs of severe dehydration clearly point to volume depletion as the primary etiology rather than toxin exposure.
Question 239: A 24-year-old woman with 45,X syndrome comes to the physician because of diarrhea for 4 months. She also reports bloating, nausea, and abdominal discomfort that persists after defecation. For the past 6 months, she has felt tired and has been unable to do her normal chores. She went on a backpacking trip across Southeast Asia around 7 months ago. She is 144 cm (4 ft 9 in) tall and weighs 40 kg (88 lb); BMI is 19 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg in the upper extremities and 80/40 mm Hg in the lower extremities. Examination shows pale conjunctivae and angular stomatitis. Abdominal examination is normal. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.1 mg/dL
Leukocyte count 5100/mm3
Platelet count 200,000/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 67 μmm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
K+ 3.7 mEq/L
Cl- 105 mEq/L
Glucose 89 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL
Ferritin 10 ng/mL
IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody positive
Based on the laboratory studies, a biopsy for confirmation of the diagnosis is suggested, but the patient is unwilling to undergo the procedure. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's gastrointestinal symptoms?
A. Avoid milk products
B. Gluten-free diet (Correct Answer)
C. Metronidazole therapy
D. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy
E. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole therapy
Explanation: ***Gluten-free diet***
- The patient's symptoms (diarrhea, bloating, abdominal discomfort, fatigue) and lab findings (**microcytic anemia** with **low ferritin**, and **positive IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody**) are highly suggestive of **celiac disease**.
- Given the strong serological evidence and patient's unwillingness for biopsy, initiating a **gluten-free diet** is the most appropriate next step, as it is the primary treatment for celiac disease and should alleviate symptoms.
*Avoid milk products*
- While **lactose intolerance** can cause similar GI symptoms like diarrhea and bloating, and is sometimes comorbid with celiac disease due to damage to intestinal villi, the primary driver here appears to be celiac disease based on the specific antibody test.
- Avoiding milk products without addressing the underlying celiac disease would likely not resolve all symptoms, and a gluten-free diet is the more targeted initial therapy for the confirmed serology.
*Metronidazole therapy*
- **Metronidazole** is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial and parasitic infections, such as *Giardia* or *Clostridium difficile*.
- Although the patient traveled to Southeast Asia, suggesting a possible exposure to parasitic infections, the presence of **positive IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody** strongly points towards celiac disease, not solely an infection requiring antibiotics (though infections can sometimes trigger celiac disease onset).
*Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy*
- **Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) therapy** is used for various immune deficiencies or autoimmune conditions, but it is not indicated for the initial management of celiac disease.
- Celiac disease is managed by dietary changes (gluten-free diet) to prevent autoimmune damage to the small intestine.
*Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole therapy*
- **Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole** is an antibiotic primarily used for bacterial infections, including some diarrheal diseases.
- Similar to metronidazole, while an infection is plausible given the travel history, the strong serological evidence for celiac disease makes antibiotic therapy a less appropriate first step compared to a gluten-free diet.
Question 240: A 30-year-old male visits you in the clinic complaining of chronic abdominal pain and diarrhea following milk intake. Gastrointestinal histology of this patient's condition is most similar to which of the following?
A. Crohn's disease
B. Celiac disease
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Tropical sprue
E. No GI disease (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***No GI disease***
- The patient's symptoms of **chronic abdominal pain** and **diarrhea following milk intake** are classic for **lactose intolerance**.
- Lactose intolerance is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme **lactase**, leading to an inability to digest lactose, and does not involve histological changes in the GI tract.
*Crohn's disease*
- Characterized by **transmural inflammation** and **skip lesions** anywhere from the mouth to the anus, with common findings being **granulomas**, fissures, and ulcers.
- While it causes abdominal pain and diarrhea, it is not specifically triggered by milk intake and has distinct histological features.
*Celiac disease*
- Involves **villous atrophy**, **crypt hyperplasia**, and an increase in **intraepithelial lymphocytes** in the small intestine, triggered by gluten exposure.
- While it causes malabsorption symptoms, it is not triggered by lactose and has specific histological markers.
*Ulcerative colitis*
- Characterized by **mucosal and submucosal inflammation** limited to the colon, with features like **crypt abscesses**, pseudopolyps, and loss of haustra.
- Unlike the described symptoms, UC primarily affects the large intestine and is not directly related to lactose consumption.
*Tropical sprue*
- Involves **flattening of villi** and inflammation of the small intestinal mucosa, often leading to malabsorption, seen in individuals from tropical regions.
- It is an acquired condition, not specifically triggered by milk, and has distinct histological changes.