A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency room with right flank pain. On physical examination, there is no rebound tenderness, guarding, and rigidity. The pain is radiating to the groin region and is associated with nausea. Plain X-ray of the kidney, ureter, and bladder is normal. Urinalysis showed the presence of mild hematuria, an absence of pus cells, and the following crystals (refer to image). What is the most likely composition of these crystals?
Q222
A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician after a recent illness. For the past 48 hours the patient has experienced constant vomiting and diarrhea with a high fever. He is feeling better today and wants to be seen to ensure he is healthy. The patient has a past medical history of schizophrenia well controlled with risperidone and lithium. He takes ibuprofen for knee pain and attempts to stay well hydrated. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 123 mEq/L
Cl-: 90 mEq/L
K+: 3.8 mEq/L
HCO3-: 29 mEq/L
BUN: 42 mg/dL
Glucose: 109 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.9 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s laboratory derangements?
Q223
An 18-year-old man presents to his primary care provider before leaving for college. He has no complaints. His past medical history is significant for asthma, acne vulgaris, and infectious mononucleosis at age 16. His home medications include doxycycline and albuterol as needed. His family history is significant for colon cancer in his father at age 50, his paternal grandfather at age 55, and an uncle at age 45. His father underwent testing for mutations in the APC gene, which were negative. There is no family history of dental abnormalities or other malignancy. The patient denies any recent weight loss, abdominal pain, hematochezia, melena, or other changes in the appearance of his stools. This patient should be screened for colorectal cancer (CRC) under which of the following protocols?
Q224
A 55-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with retrosternal pain that started this evening. The patient states that her symptoms started as she was going to bed after taking her medications. She describes the pain as sudden in onset, worse with swallowing, and not associated with exertion. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes, anemia, and congestive heart failure and is currently taking metoprolol, insulin, metformin, iron, and lisinopril. Her temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 125/63 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an obese woman who appears uncomfortable. An initial electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates sinus rhythm, and a set of troponins are pending. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q225
A 35-year-old woman is presenting for a general wellness checkup. She is generally healthy and has no complaints. The patient does not smoke, drinks 1 alcoholic drink per day, and exercises 1 day per week. She recently had silicone breast implants placed 1 month ago. Her family history is notable for a heart attack in her mother and father at the age of 71 and 55 respectively. Her father had colon cancer at the age of 70. Her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 121/81 mmHg, pulse is 77/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Q226
A 45-year-old woman comes to see you for a second opinion regarding an upcoming surgery for pancreatic insulinoma. While taking a surgical history, she tells you she previously had a pituitary tumor resected. For which additional neoplasms might you consider testing her?
Q227
A 19-year-old woman presents to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She has a past medical history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. She recently moved to a new city to begin her undergraduate studies. Her father was diagnosed with colon cancer at age 46. Her father's brother died because of small bowel cancer. Her paternal grandfather died because of stomach cancer. She takes a vitamin supplement. Current medications include esomeprazole and a multivitamin. She smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 3 years but quit 2 years ago. She drinks 1–2 alcoholic beverages on the weekends. She appears healthy. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Colonoscopy is unremarkable. Germline testing via DNA sequencing in this patient shows mutations in DNA repair genes MLH1 and MSH2. Which of the following will this patient most likely require at some point in her life?
Q228
A 31-year-old man presents with jaundice, scleral icterus, dark urine, and pruritus. He also says that he has been experiencing abdominal pain shortly after eating. He says that symptoms started a week ago and have not improved. The patient denies any associated fever or recent weight-loss. He is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the patient’s skin appears yellowish. Scleral icterus is present. Remainder of physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory findings are significant for:
Conjugated bilirubin 5.1 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 6.0 mg/dL
AST 24 U/L
ALT 22 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase 662 U/L
A contrast CT of the abdomen is unremarkable. An ultrasound of the right upper quadrant reveals a normal gallbladder, but the common bile duct is not visible. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q229
A 54-year-old man comes to the physician because of dysphagia and hoarseness of voice for the past 3 months. Initially, he had difficulty swallowing solid food but now has difficulty swallowing porridge and liquids as well. He has recently been choking on his oral secretions. During this period, he has had an 8.2-kg (18-lb) weight loss. He has noticed increasing weakness of both arms over the past year. He appears ill. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 74/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 114/74 mmHg. Examination shows tongue atrophy and pooled oral secretions. There is diffuse muscle atrophy with occasional twitching. He is unable to lift his arms above the chest level. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ in all extremities. Sensation to pinprick, light touch, and vibration is intact. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 16.1 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,900/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 20 mm/h
Serum
Na+ 133 mEq/L
K+ 4.2 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 12 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Creatine kinase 320 U/L
Albumin 4.3 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase 307 U/L
An esophagogastroduodenoscopy shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q230
A 28-year-old graduate student visits the university health clinic for 3-weeks of epigastric pain that worsens with meals, associated with retrosternal pain, early satiety, and bloating. She denies vomiting blood or blood in her stool. She has been consuming large volumes of caffeinated-drinks and fast-food for a month, as she has been studying for her tests. Her family and personal history are unremarkable with no history of gastrointestinal cancer. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is only positive for a mild epigastric tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach in this case?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency room with right flank pain. On physical examination, there is no rebound tenderness, guarding, and rigidity. The pain is radiating to the groin region and is associated with nausea. Plain X-ray of the kidney, ureter, and bladder is normal. Urinalysis showed the presence of mild hematuria, an absence of pus cells, and the following crystals (refer to image). What is the most likely composition of these crystals?
A. Cysteine stones
B. Uric acid (Correct Answer)
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Calcium carbonate
E. Magnesium ammonium phosphate (Struvite)
Explanation: ***Uric acid***
- The combination of **flank pain radiating to the groin**, nausea, and mild hematuria is highly indicative of **renal colic caused by kidney stones**.
- **Uric acid crystals** typically appear as **rhombic, needle-shaped, or barrel-shaped structures** in urine, often reddish-brown, and are associated with a low urinary pH.
*Cysteine stones*
- **Cysteine crystals** are hexagonal and clear, often seen in inherited disorders of amino acid transport.
- They are less common causes of kidney stones compared to uric acid.
*Calcium oxalate*
- **Calcium oxalate crystals** are typically octahedral (envelope-shaped) or dumbbell-shaped and are the most common type of kidney stone.
- While they cause similar symptoms, their characteristic crystal morphology is different from the described appearance of uric acid crystals.
*Calcium carbonate*
- **Calcium carbonate crystals** are typically large, colorless spheres or ovals with radial striations, or smaller dumbbell shapes.
- While they can be found in urine, they are not a common cause of kidney stones in humans.
*Magnesium ammonium phosphate (Struvite)*
- **Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite) crystals** are typically coffin-lid shaped and are associated with **urinary tract infections** caused by urease-producing bacteria, which would typically involve pus cells in the urine.
- The absence of pus cells makes struvite stones less likely in this case.
Question 222: A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician after a recent illness. For the past 48 hours the patient has experienced constant vomiting and diarrhea with a high fever. He is feeling better today and wants to be seen to ensure he is healthy. The patient has a past medical history of schizophrenia well controlled with risperidone and lithium. He takes ibuprofen for knee pain and attempts to stay well hydrated. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 123 mEq/L
Cl-: 90 mEq/L
K+: 3.8 mEq/L
HCO3-: 29 mEq/L
BUN: 42 mg/dL
Glucose: 109 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.9 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s laboratory derangements?
A. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
B. Intrarenal injury
C. Volume depletion (Correct Answer)
D. Aldosterone-secreting mass
E. Psychogenic polydipsia
Explanation: ***Volume depletion***
- The patient's history of **vomiting, diarrhea, and fever** indicates significant fluid loss, leading to **volume depletion**.
- This explains the **hyponatremia** (Na+ 123 mEq/L) due to preferential water loss from the extracellular space, and the elevated **BUN (42 mg/dL) and creatinine (1.9 mg/dL)**, consistent with **pre-renal acute kidney injury**.
- The **BUN/creatinine ratio is 22:1 (42/1.9)**, which is **>20:1** and supports a **prerenal etiology**.
*Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion*
- While it causes **hyponatremia**, SIADH is characterized by **euvolemia** or mild hypervolemia, not the signs of volume loss seen in this patient.
- Patients with SIADH typically have **low BUN and creatinine** as a result of hemodilution, which contradicts the elevated values observed.
*Intrarenal injury*
- Intrarenal injury, or **acute tubular necrosis**, typically presents with a **BUN-to-creatinine ratio of 10-15:1** (intrinsic renal damage).
- In this case, the **BUN/creatinine ratio is 22:1**, which is **>20:1** and points towards a **prerenal cause** (volume depletion) rather than intrinsic kidney damage.
*Aldosterone-secreting mass*
- An aldosterone-secreting mass typically causes **hypernatremia**, **hypokalemia**, and **metabolic alkalosis**, which is inconsistent with the patient's **hyponatremia and normal potassium**.
- This condition also typically presents with **hypertension**, which is not mentioned and is less likely in the context of acute illness with fluid loss.
*Psychogenic polydipsia*
- Psychogenic polydipsia causes **hyponatremia** due to excessive water intake, but patients are typically **euvolemic** or hypervolemic.
- The elevated **BUN and creatinine** observed in this patient are inconsistent with psychogenic polydipsia, as the kidneys would typically excrete the excess fluid efficiently with normal function.
Question 223: An 18-year-old man presents to his primary care provider before leaving for college. He has no complaints. His past medical history is significant for asthma, acne vulgaris, and infectious mononucleosis at age 16. His home medications include doxycycline and albuterol as needed. His family history is significant for colon cancer in his father at age 50, his paternal grandfather at age 55, and an uncle at age 45. His father underwent testing for mutations in the APC gene, which were negative. There is no family history of dental abnormalities or other malignancy. The patient denies any recent weight loss, abdominal pain, hematochezia, melena, or other changes in the appearance of his stools. This patient should be screened for colorectal cancer (CRC) under which of the following protocols?
A. Colonoscopy every 5 years beginning at age 40 (Correct Answer)
B. Colonoscopy every 10 years beginning at age 50
C. Colonoscopy every 1-2 years beginning at age 25
D. Prophylactic colectomy
E. Fecal occult blood testing annually beginning at age 40
Explanation: ***Colonoscopy every 5 years beginning at age 40***
- The patient has a strong family history of CRC, with a father diagnosed at age 50 and a paternal grandfather at age 55, placing him at increased risk.
- Current guidelines recommend that individuals with a first-degree relative diagnosed with CRC before age 60 should begin screening 10 years before the earliest diagnosis in the family, or at age 40, whichever comes first, with a colonoscopy every 5 years.
*Colonoscopy every 10 years beginning at age 50*
- This protocol is recommended for individuals with an **average risk** for colorectal cancer, which does not apply to this patient due to his strong family history.
- Starting screening at age 50 would be too late given the early onset of CRC in his family.
*Colonoscopy every 1-2 years beginning at age 25*
- This more aggressive screening schedule is typically reserved for individuals with identified **hereditary colorectal cancer syndromes**, such as **Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)** or **Lynch syndrome**.
- Though there is a strong family history, the negative APC gene testing and absence of other syndromic features (like dental abnormalities) make FAP less likely, and Lynch syndrome would typically involve other cancers.
*Prophylactic colectomy*
- **Prophylactic colectomy** is a major surgical procedure considered in rare cases of very high-risk hereditary syndromes, such as confirmed **Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)**, where the risk of CRC is almost 100%.
- This patient's family history, while significant, does not meet the criteria for such an extreme measure.
*Fecal occult blood testing annually beginning at age 40*
- While **fecal occult blood testing (FOBT)** is a valid screening method, it is typically used for individuals with average risk or in conjunction with other methods.
- Given the patient's strong family history of early-onset CRC, a **colonoscopy** is the more appropriate and comprehensive screening method.
Question 224: A 55-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with retrosternal pain that started this evening. The patient states that her symptoms started as she was going to bed after taking her medications. She describes the pain as sudden in onset, worse with swallowing, and not associated with exertion. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes, anemia, and congestive heart failure and is currently taking metoprolol, insulin, metformin, iron, and lisinopril. Her temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 125/63 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an obese woman who appears uncomfortable. An initial electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates sinus rhythm, and a set of troponins are pending. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Esophageal rupture
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Esophagitis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Esophagitis***
- The patient's presentation with **sudden onset retrosternal pain** that is **worse with swallowing** (odynophagia) shortly after taking medications and going to bed strongly suggests **pill-induced esophagitis**.
- Medications, especially those that are acidic or poorly dissolved like iron supplements (which the patient is taking), can cause direct mucosal injury if they remain in contact with the esophageal lining for too long.
*Spontaneous pneumothorax*
- This typically presents with **sudden onset pleuritic chest pain** and **shortness of breath**, often accompanied by ipsilateral diminished breath sounds.
- The patient's pain is described as worse with swallowing, not breathing, and there is no mention of respiratory distress or physical exam findings consistent with a pneumothorax.
*Myocardial infarction*
- While retrosternal pain is a hallmark, MI pain is typically described as **pressure-like** or **squeezing**, often **radiating** to the arm, neck, or jaw, and is usually **exertion-related**.
- The patient's pain is sudden, worse with swallowing, and specifically *not* associated with exertion, and her ECG is currently stable.
*Esophageal rupture*
- This is a catastrophic event usually presenting with **severe, acute, excruciating chest pain**, often following forceful vomiting, retching, or iatrogenic injury.
- While it causes odynophagia and retrosternal pain, the patient's symptoms are less severe, and there are no signs of mediastinitis or sepsis typically seen with rupture.
*Pulmonary embolism*
- A PE usually presents with **sudden onset dyspnea**, **pleuritic chest pain**, and sometimes **hemoptysis**.
- The patient's pain is primarily linked to swallowing and not described as pleuritic, and her oxygen saturation is 100% on room air, making PE less likely.
Question 225: A 35-year-old woman is presenting for a general wellness checkup. She is generally healthy and has no complaints. The patient does not smoke, drinks 1 alcoholic drink per day, and exercises 1 day per week. She recently had silicone breast implants placed 1 month ago. Her family history is notable for a heart attack in her mother and father at the age of 71 and 55 respectively. Her father had colon cancer at the age of 70. Her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 121/81 mmHg, pulse is 77/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
A. Alcohol cessation
B. Colonoscopy at age 60
C. Mammography at age 50
D. Colonoscopy at age 40 (Correct Answer)
E. Mammography now
Explanation: ***Colonoscopy at age 40***
- This patient has a **first-degree relative (father) diagnosed with colorectal cancer at age 70**, which increases her risk compared to the average population.
- Current **USPSTF and ACS guidelines** recommend that individuals with a first-degree relative diagnosed with colorectal cancer at **age 60 or older** should begin screening at **age 40** (or 10 years before the age of diagnosis in the relative, whichever is earlier).
- Since her father was diagnosed at age 70, she should start screening at age 40 (which is 10 years earlier and also the recommended age for those with family history).
- At age 35, she does **not yet need** colonoscopy, but should plan for screening in 5 years.
*Colonoscopy now*
- This is **too early** based on current guidelines.
- Immediate colonoscopy at age 35 is not indicated in an asymptomatic patient whose father was diagnosed at age 70.
- Screening at age 40 provides adequate time for early detection while avoiding unnecessary early intervention.
*Colonoscopy at age 60*
- This is **too late** and ignores the increased risk from family history.
- Delaying screening until age 60 would miss the recommended earlier screening window for patients with first-degree relatives with CRC.
*Alcohol cessation*
- The patient drinks **1 alcoholic drink per day**, which is within recommended limits for women.
- While reducing alcohol consumption has general health benefits, this is not the most urgent preventive measure given her family history of colon cancer.
*Mammography now*
- Screening mammography typically begins at **age 40-50** for average-risk women.
- At age 35 with no specific high-risk factors (no BRCA mutation, no strong early-onset breast cancer family history), mammography is not indicated now.
*Mammography at age 50*
- While this may be appropriate for breast cancer screening depending on guidelines followed, it is **not the priority** given her significant family history of colorectal cancer requiring earlier intervention.
Question 226: A 45-year-old woman comes to see you for a second opinion regarding an upcoming surgery for pancreatic insulinoma. While taking a surgical history, she tells you she previously had a pituitary tumor resected. For which additional neoplasms might you consider testing her?
A. Parathyroid adenoma (Correct Answer)
B. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
C. Mucosal neuroma
D. Multiple myeloma
E. Pheochromocytoma
Explanation: ***Parathyroid adenoma***
- The patient's history of a **pituitary tumor** and a **pancreatic insulinoma** strongly suggests **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 1 (MEN1)**.
- **Parathyroid adenomas** are the most common manifestation of MEN1, affecting over 90% of patients, and should be screened for.
*Medullary thyroid carcinoma*
- This is a characteristic component of **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2 (MEN2)**.
- MEN2 includes medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, and parathyroid hyperplasia, which is distinct from the patient's presentation.
*Mucosal neuroma*
- **Mucosal neuromas** are associated with **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2B (MEN2B)**, a subtype of MEN2.
- MEN2B also typically involves medullary thyroid carcinoma and pheochromocytoma, which do not align with the patient's current tumors.
*Multiple myeloma*
- This is a **hematologic malignancy** involving plasma cells and is not typically associated with the type of endocrine tumors seen in this patient.
- There is no direct link between multiple myeloma and pituitary or pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors.
*Pheochromocytoma*
- **Pheochromocytoma** is a tumor of the adrenal medulla and is a hallmark of **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2 (MEN2)**.
- While it is an endocrine tumor, it is not part of the triad seen in MEN1 (pituitary, parathyroid, and pancreatic tumors).
Question 227: A 19-year-old woman presents to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She has a past medical history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. She recently moved to a new city to begin her undergraduate studies. Her father was diagnosed with colon cancer at age 46. Her father's brother died because of small bowel cancer. Her paternal grandfather died because of stomach cancer. She takes a vitamin supplement. Current medications include esomeprazole and a multivitamin. She smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 3 years but quit 2 years ago. She drinks 1–2 alcoholic beverages on the weekends. She appears healthy. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Colonoscopy is unremarkable. Germline testing via DNA sequencing in this patient shows mutations in DNA repair genes MLH1 and MSH2. Which of the following will this patient most likely require at some point in her life?
A. Celecoxib or sulindac therapy
B. Surgical removal of a desmoid tumor
C. Prophylactic proctocolectomy with ileoanal anastomosis
D. Annual colonoscopy beginning at 20–25 years of age (Correct Answer)
E. Measurement of carcinoembryonic antigen and CA 19-9 yearly
Explanation: ***Annual colonoscopy beginning at 20–25 years of age***
- This patient's family history of multiple cancers at young ages (father with colon cancer at 46, uncle with small bowel cancer, grandfather with stomach cancer) combined with **germline mutations in MLH1 and MSH2** is highly indicative of **Lynch syndrome (hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer - HNPCC)**.
- Individuals with Lynch syndrome have a significantly increased risk of colorectal cancer, and screening with **annual colonoscopies starting at a young age (20-25 years or 2-5 years younger than the earliest age of diagnosis in the family)** is crucial for early detection and prevention.
*Celecoxib or sulindac therapy*
- **NSAID therapy** (like celecoxib or sulindac) is sometimes used for **chemoprevention in familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)** to reduce polyp burden, especially in attenuated FAP.
- However, this patient's presentation and genetic findings point to **Lynch syndrome**, for which NSAID chemoprevention is not the primary or most effective strategy compared to surveillance.
*Surgical removal of a desmoid tumor*
- **Desmoid tumors** are benign but locally aggressive soft tissue tumors that are a characteristic **extracolonic manifestation of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)**, especially in patients with mutations in the APC gene.
- This patient has **Lynch syndrome**, which is associated with different extracolonic cancers (e.g., endometrial, ovarian, gastric, small bowel), but **desmoid tumors are not a typical feature of Lynch syndrome**.
*Prophylactic proctocolectomy with ileoanal anastomosis*
- **Prophylactic proctocolectomy** is the standard preventive surgery for individuals with **familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)** to prevent the inevitable development of colorectal cancer due to hundreds to thousands of polyps.
- While Lynch syndrome carries a high risk of colorectal cancer, prophylactic colectomy is generally **not recommended as the initial management** given that surveillance via colonoscopy allows for removal of precancerous polyps and early-stage cancers, reserving surgery for when clinically indicated.
*Measurement of carcinoembryonic antigen and CA 19-9 yearly*
- **Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and CA 19-9** are **tumor markers** that can be elevated in certain cancers (e.g., colorectal for CEA, pancreatic/biliary for CA 19-9).
- However, these markers have **poor sensitivity and specificity for screening healthy, asymptomatic individuals** at high risk for cancer and are primarily used for monitoring disease recurrence or treatment response in diagnosed cancers. They are not recommended for routine surveillance in Lynch syndrome.
Question 228: A 31-year-old man presents with jaundice, scleral icterus, dark urine, and pruritus. He also says that he has been experiencing abdominal pain shortly after eating. He says that symptoms started a week ago and have not improved. The patient denies any associated fever or recent weight-loss. He is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the patient’s skin appears yellowish. Scleral icterus is present. Remainder of physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory findings are significant for:
Conjugated bilirubin 5.1 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 6.0 mg/dL
AST 24 U/L
ALT 22 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase 662 U/L
A contrast CT of the abdomen is unremarkable. An ultrasound of the right upper quadrant reveals a normal gallbladder, but the common bile duct is not visible. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Serologies for antimitochondrial antibodies
B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) (Correct Answer)
C. HIDA scan
D. Hepatitis serologies
E. Antibiotics and admit to observation
Explanation: ***Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)***
- The patient's presentation with **jaundice, scleral icterus, dark urine, pruritus, unremarked CT abdomen, and significantly elevated alkaline phosphatase** (suggesting **cholestasis**), coupled with an ultrasound showing **non-visualization of the common bile duct**, points to a **biliary obstruction**. ERCP is both diagnostic and therapeutic in this setting, allowing for direct visualization and potential relief of the obstruction.
- The combination of **conjugated hyperbilirubinemia** and isolated elevated alkaline phosphatase with normal AST/ALT indicates a **biliary outflow problem**, warranting further imaging of the biliary tree beyond initial ultrasound and CT.
*Serologies for antimitochondrial antibodies*
- **Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMAs)** are characteristic of **primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)**, which presents with similar symptoms like pruritus and elevated alkaline phosphatase.
- However, PBC primarily affects **intrahepatic bile ducts** and typically does not present with an acute, complete common bile duct obstruction that would lead to non-visualization on ultrasound.
*HIDA scan*
- A **HIDA scan** (hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid scan) is used to assess **gallbladder function** and patency of the cystic duct in cases of suspected **acute cholecystitis**.
- The ultrasound already showed a normal gallbladder, and the primary concern here is a common bile duct obstruction, not gallbladder inflammation or function.
*Hepatitis serologies*
- **Hepatitis serologies** (e.g., for Hepatitis A, B, C) would be appropriate if the clinical picture suggested **hepatitis** (e.g., markedly elevated AST/ALT, fever, malaise).
- In this patient, the **transaminases (AST, ALT) are normal**, which makes acute viral hepatitis an unlikely primary diagnosis for his acute presentation and cholestatic pattern.
*Antibiotics and admit to observation*
- While **cholangitis** (biliary infection) can cause fever and severe abdominal pain, the patient denies fever and his vital signs are stable, making acute cholangitis less likely as the primary problem needing immediate antibiotics.
- Admitting for observation without further diagnostic intervention would delay identifying and treating the underlying cause of the **biliary obstruction**, which could lead to serious complications.
Question 229: A 54-year-old man comes to the physician because of dysphagia and hoarseness of voice for the past 3 months. Initially, he had difficulty swallowing solid food but now has difficulty swallowing porridge and liquids as well. He has recently been choking on his oral secretions. During this period, he has had an 8.2-kg (18-lb) weight loss. He has noticed increasing weakness of both arms over the past year. He appears ill. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 74/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 114/74 mmHg. Examination shows tongue atrophy and pooled oral secretions. There is diffuse muscle atrophy with occasional twitching. He is unable to lift his arms above the chest level. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ in all extremities. Sensation to pinprick, light touch, and vibration is intact. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 16.1 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,900/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 20 mm/h
Serum
Na+ 133 mEq/L
K+ 4.2 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 12 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Creatine kinase 320 U/L
Albumin 4.3 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase 307 U/L
An esophagogastroduodenoscopy shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Autoimmune destruction of acetylcholine receptors
B. Dilation of the central spinal canal
C. Multiple cerebral infarctions
D. Destruction of upper and lower motor neurons (Correct Answer)
E. Demyelination of peripheral nerves
Explanation: ***Destruction of upper and lower motor neurons***
- The constellation of **dysphagia**, **hoarseness**, **tongue atrophy**, **generalized muscle atrophy with twitching (fasciculations)**, and **hyperreflexia (3+ deep tendon reflexes)** points strongly to **amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)**, which involves both upper and lower motor neuron degeneration.
- The progressive weakness, weight loss, and choking on secretions are consistent with bulbar and limb involvement in ALS, a neurodegenerative disorder.
*Autoimmune destruction of acetylcholine receptors*
- This describes **myasthenia gravis**, which typically presents with **fluctuating weakness** that worsens with activity and improves with rest.
- While it can cause dysphagia and bulbar symptoms, **muscle atrophy** and **hyperreflexia** are not characteristic features of myasthenia gravis, and **fasciculations** are absent.
*Dilation of the central spinal canal*
- This refers to **syringomyelia**, a condition where a **syrinx (fluid-filled cyst)** forms within the spinal cord, often leading to **cape-like loss of pain and temperature sensation**, weakness, and atrophy.
- This patient's symptoms of widespread muscle atrophy, fasciculations, bulbar dysfunction, and hyperreflexia are not typical of syringomyelia.
*Multiple cerebral infarctions*
- Multiple cerebral infarctions can lead to various neurological deficits depending on their location, but they typically present with acute or subacute onset of focal neurological signs.
- The **progressive nature** of the patient's symptoms, combined with the specific signs of both upper and lower motor neuron involvement (fasciculations, hyperreflexia), is not characteristic of multiple cerebral infarcts.
*Demyelination of peripheral nerves*
- This describes conditions like **Guillain-Barré syndrome** or **chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP)**, which predominantly affect **peripheral nerves**.
- While demyelination can cause weakness, it typically leads to **hyporeflexia or areflexia**, and does not explain the presence of **fasciculations** or the signs of **upper motor neuron involvement** (e.g., hyperreflexia) seen in this patient.
Question 230: A 28-year-old graduate student visits the university health clinic for 3-weeks of epigastric pain that worsens with meals, associated with retrosternal pain, early satiety, and bloating. She denies vomiting blood or blood in her stool. She has been consuming large volumes of caffeinated-drinks and fast-food for a month, as she has been studying for her tests. Her family and personal history are unremarkable with no history of gastrointestinal cancer. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is only positive for a mild epigastric tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach in this case?
A. Treatment with metoclopramide
B. Upper endoscopy
C. Fecal antigen testing for Helicobacter pylori (Correct Answer)
D. Treatment with omeprazole
E. Barium swallow radiograph
Explanation: ***Fecal antigen testing for Helicobacter pylori***
- The patient presents with **dyspeptic symptoms** (epigastric pain, early satiety, bloating) and no **alarm symptoms** (e.g., GI bleeding, unexplained weight loss, dysphagia).
- Given her age (< 60 years) and lack of alarm symptoms, a "test-and-treat" strategy for **Helicobacter pylori** is recommended, with fecal antigen testing being a non-invasive and accurate option.
*Treatment with metoclopramide*
- Metoclopramide is a **prokinetic agent** used for conditions like gastroparesis, not primarily for initial management of undiagnosed dyspepsia.
- While she has early satiety, the primary approach should be to rule out common causes of dyspepsia like **H. pylori** before considering symptomatic treatments for motility issues.
*Upper endoscopy*
- An **upper endoscopy** is indicated if the patient is older (typically > 60 years) or has **alarm symptoms** (e.g., GI bleeding, unexplained weight loss, dysphagia, persistent vomiting).
- This 28-year-old patient lacks any alarm symptoms and is below the age threshold for an immediate endoscopic evaluation for dyspepsia.
*Treatment with omeprazole*
- While a **proton pump inhibitor (PPI)** like omeprazole can treat dyspeptic symptoms, it is not the most appropriate *initial* approach without first testing for **H. pylori**.
- Empiric PPI therapy can **mask H. pylori infection**, potentially delaying appropriate eradication therapy if the test-and-treat strategy is not followed.
*Barium swallow radiograph*
- A **barium swallow** is primarily used to evaluate structural abnormalities of the **esophagus**, such as strictures, diverticula, or achalasia, and is less effective for diagnosing mucosal diseases of the stomach or duodenum.
- It is not the preferred diagnostic test for evaluating dyspepsia or identifying **H. pylori** infection.