A 71-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue, weight loss, and early satiety for 3 weeks. Before this, he felt well overall. He is a former smoker, but otherwise has no past medical history. On examination, the patient appears fatigued and thin; his stool is guaiac positive. He is referred to a gastroenterologist who performs an esophagogastroduodonoscopy that reveals a mass in the antrum of the stomach. Pathology consistent with adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q192
A 19-year-old recent ROTC male recruit presents to the university clinic with left foot pain. He reports that the pain started a week ago while running morning drills. The pain will improve with rest but will occur again during exercises or during long periods of standing. He denies any recent trauma. His medical history is significant for partial color blindness. He has no other chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. He denies any surgical history. His family history is significant for schizophrenia in his father and breast cancer in his mother. He denies tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drug use. On physical examination, there is tenderness to palpation of the second metatarsal of the left foot. A radiograph of the left foot shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q193
A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
Q194
A 26-year-old female with AIDS (CD4 count: 47) presents to the emergency department in severe pain. She states that over the past week she has been fatigued and has had a progressively worse headache and fever. These symptoms have failed to remit leading her to seek care in the ED. A lumbar puncture is performed which demonstrates an opening pressure of 285 mm H2O, increased lymphocytes, elevated protein, and decreased glucose. The emergency physician subsequently initiates treatment with IV amphotericin B and PO flucytosine. What additional treatment in the acute setting may be warranted in this patient?
Q195
A 28-year-old African American woman presents to her primary care physician with two weeks of nausea, abdominal pain, and increased urination. She states she has had kidney stones in the past and is concerned because her current pain is different in character from what she had experienced then. In addition she reports increasing weakness and fatigue over the past several months as well as mild shortness of breath. Chest radiography shows bilateral hilar adenopathy. Which of the following processes is most likely responsible for her current symptoms?
Q196
A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department due to an episode of lightheadedness. The patient was working at his garage workbench when he felt like he was going to faint. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 125/62 mmHg, pulse is 117/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 7 g/dL
Hematocrit: 22%
Leukocyte count: 6,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 197,000/mm^3
The patient is started on blood products and a CT scan is ordered. Several minutes later, his temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 87/48 mmHg, and pulse is 180/min. The patient's breathing is labored. Which of the following is also likely to be true?
Q197
A 55-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the emergency department because of a 5-day history of a severely painful, blistering rash. The rash began over the right forehead, and spread to the chest, back, and bilateral upper extremities over the next 2 days. She is diagnosed with disseminated cutaneous herpes zoster and hospitalized for further management. Prior to admission, her only medication was insulin. On the second day of her stay, she develops bilateral episodic, cramping flank pain and nausea. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg. Examination shows a healing rash over the forehead, chest, and extremities, with no evidence of new blisters. Her serum blood urea nitrogen is 33 mg/dL and serum creatinine is 3.5 mg/dL. On admission, her serum urea nitrogen was 18 mg/dL and her serum creatinine was 1.1 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's laboratory findings?
Q198
A 43-year-old man comes to the physician because of nasal congestion and fatigue for 12 days. During this period, he has had fevers and severe pain over his cheeks. His nasal discharge was initially clear, but it has turned yellowish over the last couple of days. He has no visual complaints. He has been taking an over-the-counter nasal decongestant and acetaminophen without much relief. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He underwent an appendectomy 23 years ago. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. His current medications include metformin, sitagliptin, and enalapril. He appears tired. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 96/min, and blood pressure is 138/86 mm Hg. Examination shows purulent discharge in the nose and pharynx and normal appearing ears. The left maxillary sinus is tender to palpation. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 14.6 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,800/mm3
Platelet count 263,000/mm3
ESR 22 mm/hr
Serum
Glucose 112 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q199
A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of blood in his stool. He reports that this morning he saw bright red blood in the toilet bowl. He denies fatigue, headache, weight loss, palpitations, constipation, or diarrhea. He has well-controlled hypertension and takes hydrochlorothiazide. His father has rheumatoid arthritis, and his mother has Graves disease. The patient’s temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg, and pulse is 70/min. He appears well. No source for the bleeding is appreciated upon physical examination, including a digital rectal exam. A fecal occult blood test is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test to rule out malignancy?
Q200
A 48-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by police because of confusion and agitation. Her medical record indicates that she has peptic ulcer disease that is treated with omeprazole. The patient's brother arrives shortly after. He reports that she drinks around 17 oz. of vodka daily. Neurological examination shows horizontal nystagmus. Her gait is wide-based with small steps. Her hemoglobin concentration is 9.1 g/dL. A peripheral blood smear shows hypersegmented neutrophils. Homocysteine levels are elevated. Methylmalonic acid levels are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely direct cause of this patient's anemia?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: A 71-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue, weight loss, and early satiety for 3 weeks. Before this, he felt well overall. He is a former smoker, but otherwise has no past medical history. On examination, the patient appears fatigued and thin; his stool is guaiac positive. He is referred to a gastroenterologist who performs an esophagogastroduodonoscopy that reveals a mass in the antrum of the stomach. Pathology consistent with adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. MRI abdomen/pelvis
B. PET-CT
C. Obtain CEA, CA 125 antigen, and CA 19-9
D. Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)
E. CT abdomen/pelvis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CT abdomen/pelvis***
- A **CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis** is crucial for **initial staging** of gastric adenocarcinoma, evaluating for **local invasion**, **lymph node involvement**, and **distant metastasis**.
- This whole-body imaging provides a comprehensive overview that guides subsequent treatment decisions, including resectability.
*MRI abdomen/pelvis*
- While MRI can provide detailed images, it is generally **not the first-line imaging modality** for initial staging of gastric cancer due to its **higher cost** and **longer acquisition time** compared to CT.
- MRI is typically reserved for specific situations, such as evaluating **liver metastases** with greater precision or in patients with contraindications to CT contrast.
*PET-CT*
- **PET-CT** is primarily used to detect **distant metastases** and assess **metabolic activity** of tumors, which can be valuable for identifying occult disease or monitoring treatment response.
- However, it is usually performed **after an initial CT scan** to confirm findings or in cases where resectability is still in question post-CT.
*Obtain CEA, CA 125 antigen, and CA 19-9*
- **Tumor markers** like CEA, CA 125, and CA 19-9 can be elevated in various cancers, including gastric adenocarcinoma, and may be used for **monitoring treatment response** or detecting **recurrence**.
- However, they are generally **not reliable for initial diagnosis or staging** due to their lack of sensitivity and specificity.
*Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)*
- **Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)** provides excellent detail for assessing the **depth of tumor invasion** through the gastric wall and detecting **regional lymph node involvement**.
- While critical for determining T and N stages, it is usually performed **after initial cross-sectional imaging** (like CT) has ruled out distant metastasis that would preclude curative surgery.
Question 192: A 19-year-old recent ROTC male recruit presents to the university clinic with left foot pain. He reports that the pain started a week ago while running morning drills. The pain will improve with rest but will occur again during exercises or during long periods of standing. He denies any recent trauma. His medical history is significant for partial color blindness. He has no other chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. He denies any surgical history. His family history is significant for schizophrenia in his father and breast cancer in his mother. He denies tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drug use. On physical examination, there is tenderness to palpation of the second metatarsal of the left foot. A radiograph of the left foot shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Splinting
B. MRI
C. Rest and ibuprofen (Correct Answer)
D. Casting
E. Internal fixation
Explanation: ***Rest and ibuprofen***
- The patient's presentation of gradual onset foot pain in a **military recruit** that worsens with activity and improves with rest, with focal metatarsal tenderness, is highly suggestive of a **stress fracture**. Initial radiographs are often normal in early stress fractures, and conservative management with **rest and NSAIDs** like ibuprofen is the first-line treatment.
- This approach aims to reduce inflammation and pain, allowing the bone to heal while preventing further stress and injury.
*Splinting*
- While splinting can provide support and pain relief, it is generally considered for more severe or unstable injuries, or as an adjunct to rest and medication if symptoms are not adequately controlled.
- It's a more restrictive measure that might not be necessary for an initial, unconfirmed stress fracture of this nature.
*MRI*
- An MRI would be the next step if symptoms persist or worsen despite conservative management, or if there is diagnostic uncertainty.
- It is highly sensitive for detecting **stress reactions** and early stress fractures that are not visible on plain radiographs but is not the immediate first step for an uncomplicated presentation.
*Casting*
- Casting provides rigid immobilization and is typically reserved for confirmed, more severe, or unstable stress fractures, or those that fail to heal with rest and non-pharmacological interventions.
- Applying a cast for an initial, suspected stress fracture where conservative measures haven't been tried would be overly aggressive.
*Internal fixation*
- **Internal fixation** is a surgical procedure considered for complicated stress fractures, such as those at high risk of **non-union** or displacement (e.g., in the femoral neck, anterior tibial cortex), or if conservative management and casting fail.
- It is a highly invasive approach and would be inappropriate as the initial management strategy for this patient's presentation.
Question 193: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?***
- This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis.
- In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions.
*Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?*
- While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience.
- It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture.
*Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?*
- Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions.
- However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed.
*Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life*
- Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time.
- However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially.
*Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?*
- Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related.
- This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.
Question 194: A 26-year-old female with AIDS (CD4 count: 47) presents to the emergency department in severe pain. She states that over the past week she has been fatigued and has had a progressively worse headache and fever. These symptoms have failed to remit leading her to seek care in the ED. A lumbar puncture is performed which demonstrates an opening pressure of 285 mm H2O, increased lymphocytes, elevated protein, and decreased glucose. The emergency physician subsequently initiates treatment with IV amphotericin B and PO flucytosine. What additional treatment in the acute setting may be warranted in this patient?
A. Serial lumbar punctures (Correct Answer)
B. Fluconazole
C. Mannitol
D. Chloramphenicol
E. Acetazolamide
Explanation: **Serial lumbar punctures**
- The elevated opening pressure (285 mm H2O) indicates **increased intracranial pressure (ICP)**, which is common in cryptococcal meningitis and can be life-threatening.
- Serial lumbar punctures can help to **reduce ICP** and relieve symptoms, improving outcomes in patients with cryptococcal meningitis.
*Fluconazole*
- Fluconazole is used for **maintenance therapy** to prevent relapse after the acute phase of cryptococcal meningitis has been controlled.
- It is generally **not recommended for initial acute treatment** in severe cases due to its fungistatic nature, making it less effective than the combination of amphotericin B and flucytosine.
*Mannitol*
- Mannitol is an **osmotic diuretic** sometimes used to acutely *reduce* ICP in cases of cerebral edema.
- While effective in some situations, it is **not the primary treatment for increased ICP** in cryptococcal meningitis, where repeated LPs are preferred to remove infected CSF and directly reduce pressure.
*Chloramphenicol*
- Chloramphenicol is an **antibiotic** primarily used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections.
- It has **no role in the treatment of fungal meningitis** caused by *Cryptococcus neoformans*.
*Acetazolamide*
- Acetazolamide is a **carbonic anhydrase inhibitor** that can reduce CSF production, thereby *reducing* ICP.
- While it can be used in some cases of elevated ICP, routine use in cryptococcal meningitis is **not standard practice**, and serial LPs are generally the preferred method for managing dangerously high ICP in this context due to their immediate efficacy.
Question 195: A 28-year-old African American woman presents to her primary care physician with two weeks of nausea, abdominal pain, and increased urination. She states she has had kidney stones in the past and is concerned because her current pain is different in character from what she had experienced then. In addition she reports increasing weakness and fatigue over the past several months as well as mild shortness of breath. Chest radiography shows bilateral hilar adenopathy. Which of the following processes is most likely responsible for her current symptoms?
A. Osteoclast-driven bone resorption
B. Increased intestinal absorption of calcium (Correct Answer)
C. Ectopic parathyroid hormone release
D. Increased production of parathyroid hormone
E. Increased renal calcium reabsorption
Explanation: ***Increased intestinal absorption of calcium***
- The constellation of symptoms including **bilateral hilar adenopathy**, chronic fatigue, weakness, and hypercalcemia symptoms (nausea, abdominal pain, increased urination) in an African American woman is highly suggestive of **sarcoidosis**.
- In sarcoidosis, activated macrophages within granulomas produce **1α-hydroxylase**, which converts **25-hydroxyvitamin D to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol)**, leading to increased intestinal absorption of calcium and subsequent hypercalcemia.
*Osteoclast-driven bone resorption*
- While hypercalcemia can result from increased osteoclast activity (e.g., in **malignancy** or **primary hyperparathyroidism**), sarcoidosis-associated hypercalcemia is primarily due to increased gut absorption of calcium.
- The patient's history does not strongly point to significant bone destructive processes that would be the primary cause of her hypercalcemia.
*Ectopic parathyroid hormone release*
- **Ectopic PTH release** is characteristic of certain malignancies, such as squamous cell carcinoma, leading to **hypercalcemia of malignancy**.
- This syndrome is typically associated with very high calcium levels and PTHrP (parathyroid hormone-related peptide) production, not the clinical picture of sarcoidosis.
*Increased production of parathyroid hormone*
- **Increased PTH production** (primary hyperparathyroidism) causes hypercalcemia by increasing bone resorption, renal calcium reabsorption, and renal production of calcitriol.
- Although some symptoms overlap, the presence of **bilateral hilar adenopathy** and the absence of clear evidence for a parathyroid adenoma makes this less likely than sarcoidosis.
*Increased renal calcium reabsorption*
- While increased renal calcium reabsorption contributes to hypercalcemia, in the context of sarcoidosis, it is a secondary effect due to the overall calcium imbalance, not the primary mechanism.
- The principal driver of hypercalcemia in this patient's likely condition is the **overproduction of active vitamin D** leading to increased intestinal absorption.
Question 196: A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department due to an episode of lightheadedness. The patient was working at his garage workbench when he felt like he was going to faint. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 125/62 mmHg, pulse is 117/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 7 g/dL
Hematocrit: 22%
Leukocyte count: 6,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 197,000/mm^3
The patient is started on blood products and a CT scan is ordered. Several minutes later, his temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 87/48 mmHg, and pulse is 180/min. The patient's breathing is labored. Which of the following is also likely to be true?
A. Anaphylactic reaction (Correct Answer)
B. Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
D. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
E. Bacterial contamination of blood products
Explanation: ***Anaphylactic reaction***
- The rapid onset of **hypotension**, **tachycardia**, and **respiratory distress** immediately following blood product administration is highly suggestive of an anaphylactic reaction.
- This severe allergic reaction occurs within **minutes** of exposure and can rapidly progress to **shock** and **airway compromise**.
- The profound cardiovascular collapse with respiratory distress is the hallmark presentation.
*Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction*
- Characterized by **fever** and **chills** within several hours of transfusion.
- Typically does **not** cause the profound **hypotension** and severe **respiratory distress** seen here.
- While a slight temperature elevation occurred, the overwhelming cardiovascular collapse is not typical.
*Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction*
- Usually presents with **fever**, **chills**, **flank pain**, **dark urine** (hemoglobinuria), and sometimes hypotension due to **ABO incompatibility**.
- Onset can be rapid but typically includes more evidence of **hemolysis** (jaundice, hemoglobinuria).
- The immediate and severe respiratory compromise is less typical compared to anaphylaxis.
*Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)*
- Presents primarily with **acute respiratory distress**, **hypoxemia**, and **bilateral pulmonary infiltrates** within six hours of transfusion.
- Usually occurs **1-6 hours** post-transfusion, not within minutes.
- While respiratory distress is present, the immediate and profound circulatory collapse with such rapid onset points toward anaphylaxis rather than TRALI.
*Bacterial contamination of blood products*
- Can present with **septic shock**: fever, hypotension, and tachycardia following transfusion.
- However, the **respiratory distress** and **immediate onset** within minutes are more characteristic of anaphylaxis.
- Bacterial contamination typically has a slightly more gradual onset and may show signs of sepsis.
Question 197: A 55-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the emergency department because of a 5-day history of a severely painful, blistering rash. The rash began over the right forehead, and spread to the chest, back, and bilateral upper extremities over the next 2 days. She is diagnosed with disseminated cutaneous herpes zoster and hospitalized for further management. Prior to admission, her only medication was insulin. On the second day of her stay, she develops bilateral episodic, cramping flank pain and nausea. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg. Examination shows a healing rash over the forehead, chest, and extremities, with no evidence of new blisters. Her serum blood urea nitrogen is 33 mg/dL and serum creatinine is 3.5 mg/dL. On admission, her serum urea nitrogen was 18 mg/dL and her serum creatinine was 1.1 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's laboratory findings?
A. Deposition of glomerular immune complexes
B. Glycosylation of glomerular basement membrane
C. Formation of anti-GBM antibodies
D. Coagulative necrosis of renal papilla (Correct Answer)
E. Obstruction of renal tubule
Explanation: ***Coagulative necrosis of renal papilla***
- The patient's history of **poorly controlled diabetes** and recent infection (herpes zoster) are risk factors for **renal papillary necrosis**. Acute worsening of kidney function with flank pain and nausea in this context strongly suggests this diagnosis.
- **Renal papillary necrosis** is characterized by ischemic coagulative necrosis of the renal papillae, leading to their sloughing and potential obstruction of the urinary tract, which can cause acute kidney injury.
*Deposition of glomerular immune complexes*
- While immune complex deposition can cause **glomerulonephritis**, the patient's symptoms (flank pain, acute worsening of renal function) are more consistent with an acute obstructive process rather than primary glomerular disease.
- There is no direct evidence of a post-infectious glomerulonephritis (e.g., hematuria, proteinuria, or edema) and the acute presentation points away from a chronic process.
*Glycosylation of glomerular basement membrane*
- This refers to the process of non-enzymatic glycation of proteins, a long-term complication of **diabetes mellitus** leading to **diabetic nephropathy**.
- While diabetic nephropathy can cause chronic kidney disease, the acute and significant elevation in BUN and creatinine over a short period, accompanied by flank pain, suggests an acute event rather than chronic progression.
*Formation of anti-GBM antibodies*
- **Anti-GBM disease** (Goodpasture's syndrome) is a rare autoimmune disorder causing rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, often associated with pulmonary hemorrhage.
- The clinical picture (no hemoptysis, flank pain, and the presence of risk factors for papillary necrosis) does not fit anti-GBM disease.
*Obstruction of renal tubule*
- While **acute tubular necrosis (ATN)** can cause acute kidney injury, the dominant feature of flank pain suggests a more macroscopic obstruction, such as from sloughed papillae or stones.
- ATN typically presents with casts and electrolyte disturbances, and while ATN can be a consequence of severe illness, the specific context points to papillary necrosis as the initiating event for obstruction.
Question 198: A 43-year-old man comes to the physician because of nasal congestion and fatigue for 12 days. During this period, he has had fevers and severe pain over his cheeks. His nasal discharge was initially clear, but it has turned yellowish over the last couple of days. He has no visual complaints. He has been taking an over-the-counter nasal decongestant and acetaminophen without much relief. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He underwent an appendectomy 23 years ago. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. His current medications include metformin, sitagliptin, and enalapril. He appears tired. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 96/min, and blood pressure is 138/86 mm Hg. Examination shows purulent discharge in the nose and pharynx and normal appearing ears. The left maxillary sinus is tender to palpation. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 14.6 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,800/mm3
Platelet count 263,000/mm3
ESR 22 mm/hr
Serum
Glucose 112 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Reassurance and follow-up in 1 week
B. Oral levofloxacin
C. Oral loratadine
D. Intravenous amphotericin B
E. Oral amoxicillin-clavulanic acid (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Oral amoxicillin-clavulanic acid**
- The patient's symptoms (nasal congestion, purulent discharge, facial pain, fever, and duration >10 days) are highly suggestive of **acute bacterial rhinosinusitis**.
- **Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid** is the first-line antibiotic for empiric treatment of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis due to good coverage of common pathogens like *Streptococcus pneumoniae* and *Haemophilus influenzae*.
*Reassurance and follow-up in 1 week*
- This approach is appropriate for **viral rhinosinusitis**, which typically resolves within 7-10 days, or for milder bacterial cases that are not progressing.
- Given the fever, purulent discharge, severe pain, and **duration of symptoms for 12 days**, bacterial infection is likely, requiring active treatment.
*Oral levofloxacin*
- **Levofloxacin** is a fluoroquinolone, typically reserved for **second-line treatment** in patients with penicillin allergy or those who have failed initial amoxicillin-clavulanic acid therapy.
- Routine use of broad-spectrum antibiotics like levofloxacin as first-line treatment can contribute to **antibiotic resistance**.
*Oral loratadine*
- **Loratadine** is an antihistamine used for allergic rhinitis.
- The patient's symptoms, including fever, purulent discharge, and facial pain, are more consistent with an **infectious etiology** rather than allergies.
*Intravenous amphotericin B*
- **Amphotericin B** is a potent antifungal agent used for severe and invasive fungal infections, such as **mucormycosis**, often seen in immunocompromised patients, especially those with poorly controlled diabetes.
- While the patient has diabetes, there are no classic signs of invasive fungal sinusitis (e.g., black eschar, visual changes, cranial nerve palsies), and the primary presentation points towards a common bacterial infection requiring a less aggressive approach.
Question 199: A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of blood in his stool. He reports that this morning he saw bright red blood in the toilet bowl. He denies fatigue, headache, weight loss, palpitations, constipation, or diarrhea. He has well-controlled hypertension and takes hydrochlorothiazide. His father has rheumatoid arthritis, and his mother has Graves disease. The patient’s temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg, and pulse is 70/min. He appears well. No source for the bleeding is appreciated upon physical examination, including a digital rectal exam. A fecal occult blood test is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test to rule out malignancy?
A. Barium enema
B. Colonoscopy (Correct Answer)
C. Anoscopy
D. Computed tomography
E. Upper endoscopy
Explanation: ***Colonoscopy***
- **Colonoscopy** is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for diagnosing the source of **lower gastrointestinal bleeding** and ruling out malignancy, especially in a 50-year-old with positive fecal occult blood. It offers direct visualization of the entire colon and permits **biopsy** of suspicious lesions.
- The patient's age and the presence of **bright red blood per rectum (hematochezia)**, even if intermittent, warrant a thorough evaluation for **colorectal cancer** or its precursors.
*Barium enema*
- A **barium enema** is an imaging study that can identify mass lesions but is less sensitive than colonoscopy for detecting small polyps or early cancers.
- It does not allow for **biopsy** of suspected lesions, which is crucial for confirming malignancy.
*Anoscopy*
- **Anoscopy** visualizes only the anal canal and the distal rectum, making it suitable for diagnosing conditions like **hemorrhoids** or **anal fissures**.
- It cannot evaluate for sources of bleeding higher up in the colon, which is necessary to rule out malignancy in this case.
*Computed tomography*
- **Computed tomography (CT) scans** can identify large masses or metastatic disease but are not the primary diagnostic tool for initial evaluation of **lower GI bleeding** or for ruling out primary colon cancer.
- CT does not offer direct visualization of the colonic mucosa or allow for **biopsy** of suspicious lesions.
*Upper endoscopy*
- **Upper endoscopy** evaluates the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum to identify sources of **upper gastrointestinal bleeding**.
- Given the symptom of **bright red blood per rectum**, the source of bleeding is most likely in the **lower GI tract**, making upper endoscopy an unlikely initial diagnostic choice.
Question 200: A 48-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by police because of confusion and agitation. Her medical record indicates that she has peptic ulcer disease that is treated with omeprazole. The patient's brother arrives shortly after. He reports that she drinks around 17 oz. of vodka daily. Neurological examination shows horizontal nystagmus. Her gait is wide-based with small steps. Her hemoglobin concentration is 9.1 g/dL. A peripheral blood smear shows hypersegmented neutrophils. Homocysteine levels are elevated. Methylmalonic acid levels are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely direct cause of this patient's anemia?
A. Vitamin E deficiency
B. Vitamin B1 deficiency
C. Folate deficiency (Correct Answer)
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
E. Alcohol toxicity
Explanation: ***Folate deficiency***
- The combination of **anemia**, **hypersegmented neutrophils**, elevated **homocysteine**, and *normal methylmalonic acid* levels strongly points to folate deficiency.
- **Alcoholism** is a significant risk factor for folate deficiency due to poor nutritional intake and impaired folate absorption and metabolism.
*Vitamin E deficiency*
- This deficiency typically causes **neurological dysfunction** and **hemolytic anemia**, but it does not lead to hypersegmented neutrophils or elevated homocysteine.
- It is often seen in conditions causing **fat malabsorption**, which is not explicitly indicated as the primary driver here.
*Vitamin B1 deficiency*
- **Thiamine (B1) deficiency** is associated with **Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome**, characterized by confusion, nystagmus, and ataxia, which are present in this patient.
- Although alcohol abuse causes thiamine deficiency, it does not explain the **megaloblastic anemia** with hypersegmented neutrophils evident in the peripheral blood smear.
*Vitamin B12 deficiency*
- Vitamin B12 deficiency also causes **megaloblastic anemia** and elevated **homocysteine** levels, but it would also present with **elevated methylmalonic acid (MMA)** levels, which are explicitly stated as normal here.
- The patient's use of omeprazole (a proton pump inhibitor) can contribute to B12 deficiency over time by reducing gastric acid necessary for B12 release from food proteins, but the MMA levels rule it out as the *direct cause* of anemia in this specific instance.
*Alcohol toxicity*
- While chronic alcohol abuse can lead to **anemia** through various mechanisms, including **bone marrow suppression** or **gastrointestinal bleeding**, it does not directly explain the specific findings of **hypersegmented neutrophils** and the particular pattern of homocysteine and methylmalonic acid levels.
- Alcohol toxicity is an underlying cause for other deficiencies, but not the direct cause of this specific type of anemia.