A 54-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of difficulty swallowing of both solids and liquids for 1 month. During the past 5 months, he has also had increased weakness of his hands and legs. He sails regularly and is unable to hold the ropes as tightly as before. Ten years ago, he was involved in a motor vehicle collision. Examination shows atrophy of the tongue. Muscle strength is decreased in the right upper and lower extremities. There is muscle stiffness in the left lower extremity. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+ in the right upper and lower extremities, 3+ in the left upper extremity, and 4+ in the left lower extremity. Plantar reflex shows an extensor response on the left foot. Sensation to light touch, pinprick, and vibration is intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q182
A 77-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, is brought to the physician by staff of the nursing home where she resides because of involuntary loss of urine and increased frequency of urination over the past 2 weeks. She reports that she has very little time to get to the bathroom after feeling the urge to urinate. “Accidents” have occurred 4–6 times a day during this period. She has never had urinary incontinence before. She has also been more tired than usual. She drinks 3 cups of coffee daily. Her last menstrual period was 15 years ago. She takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Pelvic examination shows a normal-appearing vagina and cervix; uterus and adnexa are small. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q183
A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up appointment. Two months ago, she was diagnosed with asthma after a 1-year history of a chronic cough and dyspnea with exertion. Her symptoms have improved since starting inhaled albuterol and beclomethasone, but she still coughs most nights when she is lying in bed. Over the past 2 weeks, she has also had occasional substernal chest pain. She does not smoke. She is 158 cm (5 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 75 kg (165 lb); BMI is 30 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. She has a hoarse voice and frequently clears her throat during the examination. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Pulmonary function tests show a FEV1 of 78% of expected. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q184
A 38-year-old man comes to the physician because of an 8-month history of upper abdominal pain. During this period, he has also had nausea, heartburn, and multiple episodes of diarrhea with no blood or mucus. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 18 years. He does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Current medications include an antacid. The abdomen is soft and there is tenderness to palpation in the epigastric and umbilical areas. Upper endoscopy shows several ulcers in the duodenum and the upper jejunum as well as thick gastric folds. Gastric pH is < 2. Biopsies from the ulcers show no organisms. Which of the following tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Q185
A 42-year-old man presents to clinic complaining of increasing difficulty climbing stairs and standing up from sitting in his chair. On exam you perceive his strength to be 5/5 distally, but only 3/5 in proximal muscle groups bilaterally. There is a distinctive rash on his upper eyelids and around his eyes. Examination of the fingers is most likely to reveal which of the following?
Q186
A 62-year-old man comes to the office complaining of dysphagia that started 4-5 months ago. He reports that he initially had difficulty swallowing only solid foods. More recently, he has noticed some trouble swallowing liquids. The patient also complains of fatigue, a chronic cough that worsens at night, and burning chest pain that occurs after he eats. He says that he has used over-the-counter antacids for "years" with mild relief. He denies any change in diet, but says he has "gone down a pant size or 2." The patient has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He takes amlodipine and atorvastatin. He smoked 1 pack of cigarettes a day for 12 years while in the military but quit 35 years ago. He drinks 1-2 beers on the weekend while he is golfing with his friends. His diet consists mostly of pasta, pizza, and steak. The patient's temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 143/91 mmHg, and pulse is 80/min. His BMI is 32 kg/m^2. Physical examination reveals an obese man in no acute distress. No masses or enlarged lymph nodes are appreciated upon palpation of the neck. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. An endoscopy is performed, which identifies a lower esophageal mass. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q187
A 20-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of a pruritic rash on both arms. He returned from a 2-week hiking trip in North Carolina 1 day ago. He has ulcerative colitis. He works as a landscape architect. His only medication is a mesalazine suppository twice daily. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 4 years and drinks one alcoholic beverage daily. He does not use illicit drugs. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 65/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 127/74 mm Hg. A photograph of the rash is shown. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q188
A 40-year-old South Asian male presents to a primary care provider complaining of a chronic cough that is worse at night. Through a translator, he reports that he has had the cough for several years but that it has been getting worse over the last few months. He recently moved to the United States to work in construction. He attributes some weight loss of ten pounds in the last three months along with darker stools to difficulties adjusting to a Western diet. He denies any difficulty swallowing or feeling of food getting stuck in his throat. He drinks alcohol once or twice per week and has never smoked. He denies any family history of cancer. On physical exam, his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally without wheezing. His abdomen is soft and non-distended. He has no tenderness to palpation, and bowel sounds are present. He expresses concern that he will be fired from work if he misses a day and requests medication to treat his cough.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q189
A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of fatigue. She has not had any change in weight. She had infectious mononucleosis 4 weeks ago. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 days with moderate flow. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Her mother has Hashimoto thyroiditis. Examination shows pale conjunctivae, inflammation of the corners of the mouth, and brittle nails. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.3 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 74 μm3
Platelet count 280,000/mm3
Leukocyte count 6,000/mm3
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluating this patient's illness?
Q190
A 56-year-old male with a history of hypertension, asthma, intravenous drug use, and recent incarceration 2 months ago presents to your office with an erythematous, itchy rash on his arms and chest. He does not recall exactly when the rash first started but he believes it was several days ago. Review of symptoms is notable for cough, runny nose, and diarrhea for several weeks. He is currently taking medications for a cough that he developed while he was incarcerated. He does not know the name of his medications and does not remember his diagnosis. Temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 20/min. He has difficulty remembering his history and appears thin. There is a scaly, symmetrical rash on his arms and neck with areas of dusky brown discoloration. He has mild abdominal tenderness to palpation but no rebound or guarding. Physical exam is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is associated with this disease syndrome?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 181: A 54-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of difficulty swallowing of both solids and liquids for 1 month. During the past 5 months, he has also had increased weakness of his hands and legs. He sails regularly and is unable to hold the ropes as tightly as before. Ten years ago, he was involved in a motor vehicle collision. Examination shows atrophy of the tongue. Muscle strength is decreased in the right upper and lower extremities. There is muscle stiffness in the left lower extremity. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+ in the right upper and lower extremities, 3+ in the left upper extremity, and 4+ in the left lower extremity. Plantar reflex shows an extensor response on the left foot. Sensation to light touch, pinprick, and vibration is intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Correct Answer)
B. Inclusion-body myositis
C. Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord
D. Syringomyelia
E. Cervical spondylosis with myelopathy
Explanation: ***Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis***
- This diagnosis accounts for the combination of **upper motor neuron** (spasticity, hyperreflexia, extensor plantar response) and **lower motor neuron** (weakness, atrophy, dysphagia, tongue atrophy) signs and symptoms.
- The progressive weakness in both hands and legs, alongside **dysphagia** (difficulty swallowing) and **dysarthria** (implied by tongue atrophy), is highly characteristic of ALS, a neurodegenerative disorder affecting motor neurons.
*Cervical spondylosis with myelopathy*
- While it can cause some **upper motor neuron signs** (spasticity, hyperreflexia), it does not typically present with prominent **lower motor neuron signs** like widespread muscle atrophy or tongue atrophy.
- Sensation is usually impaired below the level of compression, but in this patient, sensation is **intact**, making cervical myelopathy less likely.
*Inclusion-body myositis*
- This is a **muscle disease** causing progressive weakness and atrophy, particularly in the quadriceps and forearm flexors, often with **dysphagia**.
- However, it is primarily a **myopathy** and does not cause **upper motor neuron signs** such as spasticity, hyperreflexia, or an extensor plantar response.
*Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord*
- This condition is caused by **vitamin B12 deficiency** and typically presents with a combination of **sensory ataxia**, weakness, and **paresthesias**, affecting the dorsal and lateral columns.
- It usually presents with **paresthesias** and **sensory deficits** (especially vibratory sense and proprioception), which are specifically noted as intact in this patient.
*Syringomyelia*
- This involves a **fluid-filled cyst (syrinx)** within the spinal cord, leading to a classic "cape-like" distribution of **loss of pain and temperature sensation** in the upper extremities due to damage to the spinothalamic tracts.
- While it can cause weakness and atrophy, it characteristically spares light touch, vibration, and position sense but involves **dissociated sensory loss**, which is not seen in this patient.
Question 182: A 77-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, is brought to the physician by staff of the nursing home where she resides because of involuntary loss of urine and increased frequency of urination over the past 2 weeks. She reports that she has very little time to get to the bathroom after feeling the urge to urinate. “Accidents” have occurred 4–6 times a day during this period. She has never had urinary incontinence before. She has also been more tired than usual. She drinks 3 cups of coffee daily. Her last menstrual period was 15 years ago. She takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Pelvic examination shows a normal-appearing vagina and cervix; uterus and adnexa are small. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Vaginal estrogen cream
B. Urinalysis and culture (Correct Answer)
C. Pad test
D. MRI of the pelvis
E. Caffeine abstinence
Explanation: **Urinalysis and culture**
- The sudden onset of **urinary incontinence** and **increased frequency** in an elderly woman, especially without prior history, strongly suggests a **urinary tract infection (UTI)**.
- UTIs are common in elderly individuals and can present atypically with incontinence, confusion, or increased fatigue, requiring **urinalysis** to detect infection and **culture** for pathogen identification and antibiotic susceptibility.
*Vaginal estrogen cream*
- This treatment is primarily for **atrophic vaginitis** and associated **urge or stress incontinence** due to estrogen deficiency, which develops gradually over time.
- The patient's symptoms are of **acute onset**, which makes **atrophy** less likely to be the primary cause of this sudden change.
*Pad test*
- A pad test quantifies the amount of urine leakage over a specific period and is used to assess the **severity of incontinence**.
- While it helps in characterizing incontinence, it does not identify the **underlying cause** of new-onset symptoms, particularly in the context of possible infection.
*MRI of the pelvis*
- This imaging study would be considered for evaluating **structural abnormalities** or **neurological causes** of incontinence, such as masses or nerve compression.
- Given the acute onset of symptoms suggestive of infection, a less invasive and more direct diagnostic approach, like urinalysis, is warranted first.
*Caffeine abstinence*
- **Caffeine** is a **bladder irritant** and **diuretic** that can worsen existing urinary incontinence or frequency.
- While reducing caffeine intake might help manage symptoms in the long term, it is not the appropriate **first step** to diagnose the acute onset of severe symptoms that likely point to an infection.
Question 183: A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up appointment. Two months ago, she was diagnosed with asthma after a 1-year history of a chronic cough and dyspnea with exertion. Her symptoms have improved since starting inhaled albuterol and beclomethasone, but she still coughs most nights when she is lying in bed. Over the past 2 weeks, she has also had occasional substernal chest pain. She does not smoke. She is 158 cm (5 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 75 kg (165 lb); BMI is 30 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. She has a hoarse voice and frequently clears her throat during the examination. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Pulmonary function tests show a FEV1 of 78% of expected. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Add a salmeterol inhaler
B. Order total serum IgE levels
C. Add oral prednisone
D. Add a proton pump inhibitor (Correct Answer)
E. Order a transthoracic echocardiogram
Explanation: ***Add a proton pump inhibitor***
- The patient's nocturnal cough, hoarse voice, frequent throat clearing, and substernal chest pain, especially in the context of **obesity (BMI 30)** and a diagnosis of asthma, are highly suggestive of **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)**.
- GERD can exacerbate asthma symptoms and cause chronic respiratory complaints, making a trial of a **proton pump inhibitor (PPI)** an appropriate next step to address these symptoms.
*Add a salmeterol inhaler*
- Adding a **long-acting beta-agonist (LABA)** such as salmeterol would be considered if the patient's asthma symptoms were not adequately controlled by her current therapy (inhaled albuterol and beclomethasone), but her cough and dyspnea have improved and her persistent nocturnal symptoms are atypical for uncontrolled asthma.
- While LABAs are used for maintenance therapy in asthma, the constellation of symptoms (hoarseness, throat clearing, nocturnal cough in bed) points more strongly to an underlying GERD contributing to her respiratory issues, rather than solely uncontrolled asthma.
*Order total serum IgE levels*
- Total serum IgE levels are used to assess for **allergic phenotypes** of asthma, particularly when considering biologics like omalizumab for severe allergic asthma.
- While IgE can be elevated in some asthma patients, it is not the most pertinent investigation given the patient's current symptoms, which are more suggestive of GERD, and her asthma symptoms have already shown improvement with standard therapy.
*Add oral prednisone*
- **Oral prednisone** is a systemic corticosteroid typically reserved for **acute asthma exacerbations** or for patients with severe, uncontrolled asthma despite maximal inhaled therapy.
- Her symptoms have improved with inhaled medications, and her persistent nocturnal symptoms are not indicative of a severe exacerbation or poorly controlled asthma requiring systemic steroids; rather, they point to a co-morbid condition.
*Order a transthoracic echocardiogram*
- A transthoracic echocardiogram assesses cardiac function and structure, and while it could investigate other causes of chest pain or dyspnea, her symptoms are more consistent with GERD rather than a primary cardiac issue.
- Her vital signs are stable, and the chest pain is substernal, which can be a symptom of GERD; there are no other red flags for cardiac disease.
Question 184: A 38-year-old man comes to the physician because of an 8-month history of upper abdominal pain. During this period, he has also had nausea, heartburn, and multiple episodes of diarrhea with no blood or mucus. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 18 years. He does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Current medications include an antacid. The abdomen is soft and there is tenderness to palpation in the epigastric and umbilical areas. Upper endoscopy shows several ulcers in the duodenum and the upper jejunum as well as thick gastric folds. Gastric pH is < 2. Biopsies from the ulcers show no organisms. Which of the following tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Urea breath test
B. 24-hour esophageal pH monitoring
C. Serum vasoactive intestinal polypeptide level
D. Urine metanephrine levels
E. Fasting serum gastrin level (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fasting serum gastrin level***
- The patient's presentation with multiple, refractory **duodenal and jejunal ulcers**, thick gastric folds, and severely low gastric pH (<2) strongly suggests **Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES)**, caused by a gastrin-secreting tumor (gastrinoma).
- Measuring **fasting serum gastrin** is the most direct way to confirm excess gastrin production characteristic of ZES.
*Urea breath test*
- This test is primarily used for diagnosing **Helicobacter pylori infection**, which can cause peptic ulcers.
- However, the presentation of **multiple, refractory ulcers** extending into the jejunum, thick gastric folds, and very low gastric pH are not typical for *H. pylori* alone, and biopsies showed no organisms, making this less likely the primary issue.
*24-hour esophageal pH monitoring*
- This test is used to diagnose **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)** by measuring esophageal acid exposure.
- While heartburn is present, the widespread, severe ulcers in the duodenum and jejunum, along with thick gastric folds and very low gastric pH, point to a more systemic problem of acid hypersecretion rather than just reflux.
*Serum vasoactive intestinal polypeptide level*
- Elevated **VIP (vasoactive intestinal polypeptide) levels** are indicative of a **VIPoma**, a tumor that causes secretory diarrhea.
- While the patient has diarrhea, the prominent features of severe, widespread ulcers and gastric acid hypersecretion are not hallmarks of a VIPoma; they are characteristic of gastrinoma.
*Urine metanephrine levels*
- Measuring **urine metanephrine levels** is used to screen for **pheochromocytoma**, an adrenal tumor that secretes catecholamines.
- Pheochromocytoma symptoms typically include hypertension, palpitations, and headaches, which are not present in this patient's clinical picture of persistent acid-related symptoms and diarrhea.
Question 185: A 42-year-old man presents to clinic complaining of increasing difficulty climbing stairs and standing up from sitting in his chair. On exam you perceive his strength to be 5/5 distally, but only 3/5 in proximal muscle groups bilaterally. There is a distinctive rash on his upper eyelids and around his eyes. Examination of the fingers is most likely to reveal which of the following?
A. Enlargement of the PIP
B. Ulnar deviation of the fingers
C. Dactylitis
D. Violaceous papules over the MCP and PIP joints (Correct Answer)
E. Nail pitting with oil spots
Explanation: ***Violaceous papules over the MCP and PIP joints***
- The patient's symptoms of **proximal muscle weakness** and characteristic rash (rash on upper eyelids, i.e., **heliotrope rash**) are highly suggestive of **dermatomyositis**.
- **Gottron's papules**, which are violaceous papules over the **extensor surfaces** of the **metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints**, are a **pathognomonic cutaneous finding** in dermatomyositis.
- These lesions may also appear over the elbows and knees, and occasionally over the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints, but MCP and PIP involvement is most characteristic.
*Enlargement of the PIP*
- **Enlargement of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints** is more characteristic of **osteoarthritis** (Bouchard's nodes) or **rheumatoid arthritis**, which typically presents with symmetric joint involvement and different cutaneous manifestations.
- This finding does not align with the patient's pattern of proximal muscle weakness and distinctive rash.
*Ulnar deviation of the fingers*
- **Ulnar deviation of the fingers** is a classic deformity seen in advanced **rheumatoid arthritis**, which primarily affects joints symmetrically and is not associated with the proximal muscle weakness and specific facial rash described.
- The patient's symptoms point away from an inflammatory arthropathy like rheumatoid arthritis.
*Dactylitis*
- **Dactylitis** (swelling of an entire digit, giving a **"sausage digit"** appearance) is characteristic of **psoriatic arthritis** or **spondyloarthropathies** (such as reactive arthritis or ankylosing spondylitis).
- It is not a feature of dermatomyositis and does not fit the overall clinical picture of proximal muscle weakness and heliotrope rash.
*Nail pitting with oil spots*
- **Nail pitting** and **oil spots** (yellow-brown discoloration under the nail) are characteristic dermatological manifestations of **psoriasis** and **psoriatic arthritis**.
- These findings are not associated with dermatomyositis, whose dermatological features include Gottron's papules and heliotrope rash.
Question 186: A 62-year-old man comes to the office complaining of dysphagia that started 4-5 months ago. He reports that he initially had difficulty swallowing only solid foods. More recently, he has noticed some trouble swallowing liquids. The patient also complains of fatigue, a chronic cough that worsens at night, and burning chest pain that occurs after he eats. He says that he has used over-the-counter antacids for "years" with mild relief. He denies any change in diet, but says he has "gone down a pant size or 2." The patient has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He takes amlodipine and atorvastatin. He smoked 1 pack of cigarettes a day for 12 years while in the military but quit 35 years ago. He drinks 1-2 beers on the weekend while he is golfing with his friends. His diet consists mostly of pasta, pizza, and steak. The patient's temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 143/91 mmHg, and pulse is 80/min. His BMI is 32 kg/m^2. Physical examination reveals an obese man in no acute distress. No masses or enlarged lymph nodes are appreciated upon palpation of the neck. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. An endoscopy is performed, which identifies a lower esophageal mass. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Nutcracker esophagus
B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
C. Small cell carcinoma
D. Adenocarcinoma (Correct Answer)
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation: ***Adenocarcinoma***
- The patient's history of **dysphagia progressing from solids to liquids**, **weight loss**, and **long-standing GERD symptoms** (chronic cough, burning chest pain, use of antacids for years) are highly suggestive of **esophageal adenocarcinoma**, especially given the endoscopic finding of a **lower esophageal mass**.
- **Risk factors** present include **obesity** (BMI 32 kg/m²), **chronic GERD**, and a remote history of smoking, which contribute to the development of **Barrett's esophagus**, a precursor to adenocarcinoma.
- Adenocarcinoma typically arises in the **distal/lower esophagus** due to chronic acid reflux.
*Nutcracker esophagus*
- Characterized by **high-amplitude peristaltic contractions** of the esophagus, primarily causing **chest pain** and **dysphagia**.
- It is a **motility disorder**, not a structural lesion, and does not present with **progressive dysphagia from solids to liquids**, **weight loss**, or an **esophageal mass** on endoscopy.
*Plummer-Vinson syndrome*
- A rare condition characterized by the triad of **iron deficiency anemia**, **dysphagia**, and **esophageal webs** (typically in the upper esophagus).
- While it causes dysphagia, it does not present with an **esophageal mass**, **weight loss**, or a history of long-standing GERD.
- More common in middle-aged women and associated with increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma.
*Small cell carcinoma*
- **Small cell carcinoma** is primarily a type of **lung cancer**, although it can rarely occur in the esophagus.
- Esophageal small cell carcinoma is **very aggressive** and usually presents with symptoms similar to other esophageal cancers but is **much less common** than adenocarcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma in the esophagus.
*Squamous cell carcinoma*
- **Squamous cell carcinoma** of the esophagus is strongly associated with **smoking** and **alcohol use**, and typically arises in the **upper or middle esophagus**.
- While the patient has a remote smoking history, his **long-standing GERD**, **obesity**, and **lower esophageal mass** location make **adenocarcinoma** the more probable diagnosis, as adenocarcinoma arises from **Barrett's esophagus** in the distal esophagus due to chronic reflux.
Question 187: A 20-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of a pruritic rash on both arms. He returned from a 2-week hiking trip in North Carolina 1 day ago. He has ulcerative colitis. He works as a landscape architect. His only medication is a mesalazine suppository twice daily. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 4 years and drinks one alcoholic beverage daily. He does not use illicit drugs. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 65/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 127/74 mm Hg. A photograph of the rash is shown. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Apply topical calamine preparation (Correct Answer)
B. Administer oral cetirizine
C. Administer oral ivermectin
D. Counsel patient on alcohol intake
E. Administer oral prednisone
Explanation: ***Apply topical calamine preparation***
- This patient likely has **contact dermatitis** from poison ivy, oak, or sumac given his recent hiking trip and job as a landscape architect, presenting with a pruritic rash.
- **Calamine lotion** helps to soothe the skin, reduce itching, and dry out oozing lesions, providing symptomatic relief for mild to moderate cases.
*Administer oral cetirizine*
- While **cetirizine** is an antihistamine that could help with the itching, topical treatments are generally preferred for localized contact dermatitis first.
- Oral antihistamines are typically reserved for more widespread or severe pruritus, or when topical treatments are insufficient.
*Administer oral ivermectin*
- **Ivermectin** is an antiparasitic medication used for conditions like scabies or strongyloidiasis, which are not suggested by this patient's presentation.
- The rash described is consistent with a plant-induced contact dermatitis, not a parasitic infection.
*Counsel patient on alcohol intake*
- While counseling on **alcohol intake** may be beneficial for overall health, it is not the most appropriate immediate next step for managing an acute pruritic rash.
- The patient's alcohol use is chronic, and reducing it would not directly address the acute dermatological issue.
*Administer oral prednisone*
- **Oral prednisone** (corticosteroids) is indicated for severe or widespread contact dermatitis, or when the face/genitals are involved.
- Given the description of a localized rash on both arms, oral corticosteroids are likely excessive as a first-line treatment.
Question 188: A 40-year-old South Asian male presents to a primary care provider complaining of a chronic cough that is worse at night. Through a translator, he reports that he has had the cough for several years but that it has been getting worse over the last few months. He recently moved to the United States to work in construction. He attributes some weight loss of ten pounds in the last three months along with darker stools to difficulties adjusting to a Western diet. He denies any difficulty swallowing or feeling of food getting stuck in his throat. He drinks alcohol once or twice per week and has never smoked. He denies any family history of cancer. On physical exam, his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally without wheezing. His abdomen is soft and non-distended. He has no tenderness to palpation, and bowel sounds are present. He expresses concern that he will be fired from work if he misses a day and requests medication to treat his cough.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Barium swallow
B. Trial of lansoprazole
C. Upper endoscopy (Correct Answer)
D. Colonoscopy
E. Helicobacter pylori stool antigen test
Explanation: ***Upper endoscopy***
- This patient presents with **alarm symptoms** including **unexplained weight loss** and **darker stools** (potentially indicative of melena), which warrant a direct visualization of the upper gastrointestinal tract.
- While a chronic cough can be a symptom of **GERD**, the presence of alarm symptoms necessitates ruling out more serious conditions like **esophageal adenocarcinoma** or **gastric cancer** rather than empiric treatment.
*Barium swallow*
- A barium swallow is less sensitive for detecting subtle mucosal changes, inflammation, or early malignancies compared to endoscopy.
- It primarily evaluates the **structure and motility** of the esophagus but does not allow for **biopsy** of suspicious lesions.
*Trial of lansoprazole*
- An empiric trial of a **proton pump inhibitor (PPI)** like lansoprazole is appropriate for classic GERD symptoms without alarm features.
- However, the presence of **weight loss** and **darker stools** (suggesting GI bleeding) makes empirical treatment inappropriate; a definitive diagnosis is required.
*Colonoscopy*
- A colonoscopy examines the **lower gastrointestinal tract** (colon and rectum) and would be indicated for symptoms like changes in bowel habits, lower GI bleeding, or unexplained iron deficiency anemia.
- The patient's symptoms (chronic cough, potential upper GI bleeding via darker stools, weight loss) point towards an **upper GI source**.
*Helicobacter pylori stool antigen test*
- This test is used to diagnose **H. pylori infection**, which is a common cause of peptic ulcers and gastritis.
- While H. pylori can cause abdominal symptoms, it is not typically associated with a chronic cough or the alarm symptoms of **weight loss** and **darker stools** that suggest upper GI bleeding requiring immediate investigation via endoscopy.
Question 189: A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of fatigue. She has not had any change in weight. She had infectious mononucleosis 4 weeks ago. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 days with moderate flow. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Her mother has Hashimoto thyroiditis. Examination shows pale conjunctivae, inflammation of the corners of the mouth, and brittle nails. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.3 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 74 μm3
Platelet count 280,000/mm3
Leukocyte count 6,000/mm3
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluating this patient's illness?
A. Peripheral blood smear
B. Ferritin levels (Correct Answer)
C. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
D. Bone marrow biopsy
E. Direct Coombs test
Explanation: ***Ferritin levels***
- The patient presents with **microcytic anemia** (**MCV 74 µm³**) and clinical signs consistent with **iron deficiency anemia**, such as **pale conjunctivae**, **angular cheilitis** (inflammation of the corners of the mouth), and brittle nails.
- **Ferritin** is the most sensitive and specific test for assessing **iron stores** and directly evaluating for iron deficiency.
*Peripheral blood smear*
- While a peripheral blood smear would show **microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells**, it is a confirmatory test rather than the most appropriate initial diagnostic step for directly assessing iron status.
- It would not quantify iron stores or definitively rule in or out iron deficiency without additional tests.
*Hemoglobin electrophoresis*
- This test is primarily used to diagnose **hemoglobinopathies** like **thalassemias** or **sickle cell disease**, which can also cause microcytic anemia.
- However, the patient's symptoms and the absence of specific risk factors (e.g., ethnic background known for thalassemia) make iron deficiency a more likely primary cause, especially given the clinical presentation.
*Bone marrow biopsy*
- A bone marrow biopsy is an **invasive procedure** typically reserved for cases where other diagnostic tests are inconclusive or to evaluate for bone marrow disorders.
- It is not the initial step in evaluating for iron deficiency anemia.
*Direct Coombs test*
- The direct Coombs test is used to detect **autoimmune hemolytic anemia**.
- This patient's anemia is **microcytic**, not hemolytic, and there are no signs of hemolysis (e.g., jaundice, splenomegaly, elevated bilirubin or LDH), making this test inappropriate.
Question 190: A 56-year-old male with a history of hypertension, asthma, intravenous drug use, and recent incarceration 2 months ago presents to your office with an erythematous, itchy rash on his arms and chest. He does not recall exactly when the rash first started but he believes it was several days ago. Review of symptoms is notable for cough, runny nose, and diarrhea for several weeks. He is currently taking medications for a cough that he developed while he was incarcerated. He does not know the name of his medications and does not remember his diagnosis. Temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 20/min. He has difficulty remembering his history and appears thin. There is a scaly, symmetrical rash on his arms and neck with areas of dusky brown discoloration. He has mild abdominal tenderness to palpation but no rebound or guarding. Physical exam is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is associated with this disease syndrome?
A. Zinc deficiency
B. Protein-energy malnutrition
C. Riboflavin deficiency
D. Thiamine deficiency
E. Niacin deficiency (pellagra) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Niacin deficiency (pellagra)***
- The patient's presentation with **dermatitis** (scaly, erythematous rash with dusky brown discoloration on sun-exposed areas), **diarrhea**, and signs of **dementia** (difficulty remembering history, appearing thin potentially indicating weight loss/malnutrition) is classic for **pellagra**, a disease caused by niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency. The history of intravenous drug use, incarceration, and chronic cough (possibly HIV/tuberculosis related) increases the risk of malnutrition.
- **The 4 D's of pellagra** (dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and death) are key diagnostic features, all of which are either present or suggested in this clinical scenario.
*Zinc deficiency*
- While zinc deficiency can cause **dermatitis**, it typically presents as **periorificial and acral lesions**, often associated with **alopecia** and impaired wound healing, which are not described here.
- Diarrhea can occur, but the combination with profound neurological and dermatological features in this pattern strongly points away from zinc deficiency.
*Protein-energy malnutrition*
- Protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) leads to generalized wasting and can cause various non-specific dermatological changes and impaired immune function. However, it does not typically present with the **specific triad of dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia** characteristic of pellagra.
- While the patient appears thin and likely has some degree of malnutrition, PEM alone does not explain the specific rash pattern and neurological symptoms as precisely as pellagra.
*Riboflavin deficiency*
- Riboflavin (vitamin B2) deficiency can cause **cheilosis**, **angular stomatitis**, **glossitis**, and **seborrheic dermatitis-like lesions**, particularly around the nose and eyes.
- It does not typically cause the widespread, sun-exposed dermatitis or the profound gastrointestinal and neurological symptoms (diarrhea, dementia) seen in this patient.
*Thiamine deficiency*
- Thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency primarily affects the nervous and cardiovascular systems, leading to **beriberi** (wet or dry). Symptoms include **peripheral neuropathy**, **heart failure**, and **Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome**.
- While neurological symptoms (dementia-like features) could occur in Wernicke-Korsakoff, the distinctive widespread erythematous rash and chronic diarrhea are not typical features of thiamine deficiency.